Air Law Flashcards
(187 cards)
1
Q
Define aircraft category
MCAR 1
A
Classification of aircraft according to specified basic characteristics.
(Eg. Aero plane, helicopter, glider, free balloon)
2
Q
What type of operations are required to establish a dangerous goods training program?
A
All operations
3
Q
Where would you find a list of basic equipment legally required to be carried by an airplane flying commercial air transport?
A
MCAR - Air Operations
MMEL
4
Q
What is a dangerous goods incident?
MCAR 18 Ch. 1
A
An occurrence, other than a dg accident, associated with and related to the transport of dg by air, not necessarily occurring on board and a/c, which results in injury to person, property damage, fire, breakage, spillage leakage of fluid or radiation or other evidence that the integrity of the packaging has not been maintained. Any occurrence relating to the transport of dg which seriously jeopardizes the a/c or it’s occupants is also deemed to constitute a dg incident.
5
Q
Define special VFR
MCAR 2 Ch 1
A
A VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to operate within a control zone in meteorological conditions below VMC.
6
Q
How do you log flight time (block time) in your log book?
MCAR 1 Ref 2.2
A
The total time from the time the aeroplane first moves for the purpose of taking off to the time that it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight.
7
Q
Dangerous goods packages
MCAR 18 Ch 1 Ref 2.2
A
The complete product of the packing operation consisting of the packing and its contents prepared for transport.
8
Q
If in an airplane some instruments are unserviceable, who can allow the airplane to fly?
A
The commander and the MEL
9
Q
The window of circadian low is?
MCAR 1 Ref 2.2
A
The period between 0200 and 0559 in the time zone in which the crew member is acclimatized.
10
Q
Who can taxi an aircraft?
MCAR - Air Operations Ref 5.5
A
Appropriately qualified pilot; or anyone authorized by the operator and competent to taxi an aeroplane, use the radio and receive instructions in respect of aerodrome layout, routes, signs, markings, lights, air traffic control signals and instructions.
11
Q
What is an aerodrome?
MCAR 1 Ref 2.2
A
A defined area on land or water (including any buildings, installations, and equipment) intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft.
12
Q
Height above open air assembly (about 1000 people)
MCAR 2 or AIP Ref 3.4.2 and 3.6.2
A
VFR 300 metres or 1000’ above highest obstacle
IFR 600 metres or 2000’ above highest obstacle within 8 km of the estimated position of aircraft
13
Q
English language proficiency
MCAR Aircrew Part FCL Refer 6.1.6
A
Level 4 every 3 years
Level 5 every 6 years
14
Q
Bend extended arms at elbows and move wands up and down from chest height to head
A
Straight ahead
15
Q
Which word must the pilot repeat three times to alert the need for ground assistance?
A
Pan Pan
16
Q
Visual signals used to warn an unauthorized aircraft flying in, or about to enter a restricted, prohibited or danger area
MCAR 2 Appendix 1 Signals Ref 3.10.3
A
By day and by night a series of projectiles discharged from the ground in intervals of 10 seconds, each showing, on bursting, red and green stars will indicate to an unauthorized aircraft that they are about to enter a restricted, prohibited or danger area and the aircraft is to take such remedial action as may e necessary.
17
Q
What is a UN number?
Ref 2.2
A
The 4 digit number assigned by the United Nations Committee of Experts on the Transport of Dangerous Goods to identify a substance or particular group of substances.
18
Q
Who is responsible to ensure that all passengers are briefed on the exits and the location and the use of relevant safety and emergency equipment?
Ref 5.6
A
The commander
19
Q
The weighting of the aircraft must be accomplished by
MCAR Air Ops Part CAT Ref 5.4.4
A
The manufacturer or by approved maintenance organization.
20
Q
What does performance class A mean? Ref 2.2
A
Multi-engined aeroplanes powered by turbo-propeller engines with a max operational passenger seating configuration (MOPSC) of more than nine, or a max take-off mass exceeding 5700 KG (12566 LBS), and all multi engine turbojet powered aeroplanes.
21
Q
What is the meaning of a flashing white light directed toward an aircraft on the ground by an aerodrome traffic control unit?
MCAR 2 Appendix 1 Ref 3.10.4
A
Return to the starting point on the aerodrome
22
Q
Define “Medical Assessor”
MCAR 1 Ref 2.2
A
A physician qualified and experienced in aviation medicine who evaluates medical reports submitted to MCAA by medical examiners.
23
Q
The use of Technical Instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air (doc 9248) is?
A
The document used for detailed specification and procedures for transport of dangerous goods by air.
24
Q
What is UTC time conversion for Maldives?
A
UTC is 5 hours behind Male (UTC + 5 = MLE)
25
An operator shall insure that in-flight re-planning procedures for calculating useable fuel required when a flight has to proceed along a route or to a destination other than originally planned includes:
MCAR AirOps Part Cat Subpart OP Ref 5.4.5 d
Trip fuel for the remainder of the flight, reserve fuel (contingency fuel, alternate fuel, final reserve fuel, and additional fuel required by the type of operation) and extra fuel if required by the commander.
26
AIP stands for?
| MCAR 2 Ch 1
Aeronautical Information Publication
27
When two aircraft are approaching head on or approximately so and there is a danger of collision, what shall they do?
MCAR 2 Ref 3.7.1
Each aircraft shall alter their heading to the right
28
A person shall not carry out instruction on an aircraft simulator device for issue of a pilots licence or rating unless:
It is approved by the MCAA, relevant flight experience, have or held a flight instructor authorization
29
Articles and substances that would otherwise be classified as dangerous goods but are required to be on board the aircraft in accordance with the pertinent airworthiness requirements and operating regulations...
MCAR 18 Ch 2 Applicability 2.4 Ref 7.2.2 (1)
Are already excepted
30
An aircraft taxiing on the maneuvering area shall:
STOP and HOLD at all lighted stop bars and may proceed further when the lights are switched off.
31
Except when clearance is obtained by an air traffic control unit, VFR flights shall not take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone, or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern:
MCAR 2 Ch 4 Visual flight rules 4.2
When the ceiling is less than 450 metres (1500') or; when the ground vis is less than 5 km (3 miles)
32
What is instrument ground time?
Time during which a pilot is practicing, on the ground, simulated instrument flight, in a flight simulation training device approved by the MCAA
33
What is the language used for dangerous goods transport document?
English
34
When the altimeter sub scale is set to QFE the altimeter reading is reported as:
MCAR 2 Ch 1 Definitions (under flight level note 1)
Height
35
Generally, what is the lowest level for flying IFR?
| MCAR 2 Ch 5 5.1.2. B
1000' above the highest obstacle within 8 km (5 nm)
36
MCAR 1 is:
Definitions used in other parts of the MCAR (Maldivian Civil Aviation Regulations)
37
MCAR 2:
Rules of air, procedures for interception of civil aircraft, VFR, IFR, signals, signals for marshalling, distress signals, unlawful interference
38
MCAR 18
Dangerous Goods
39
MCAR 13
Search and Rescue
40
MCAR - Air Operations
Technical requirements and administrative procedures related to civil aviation air operations
41
Passenger briefings after take-off:
Smoking regulations, use of safety belts and/or safety harnesses including the benefits of having safety belts fastened when seated irrespective of seat belt sign illumination.
42
In a passenger briefing, which is not required to demonstrate?
Use of fire extinguisher
43
Who can do an operator proficiency check?
Examiner
44
Continuous of how many days should be informed to MCAA?
21 days
45
What is the maximum age to fly in Maldives?
| Ref 6.2.8
<60 no restrictions
60-64 can operate as pilot in multi-pilot crew under CAT operations
65-69 (not yet 70) can act as pilot of balloon and sailplane only
46
Maximum age to act as PIC (Part FCL)
| 6.2.8
Up to 60th birthday single pilot
Up to 65th birthday multi-crew (other crew must be less than 60)
Up to 70th birthday balloon & sailplane
47
The aircraft that has right of way should maintain its:
| MCAR 2 Ch 3.2.2 Ref 3.7
Heading and speed
48
MCAR - Air Operations, Part ORO, Section 2 Composition of Flight Crew: Minimum flight crew for all turbo-prop aeroplanes with max t/o mass of less than 5700 kg and a max approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 is:
Ref 5.10.1
Two pilots
49
If descending VFR how do you set the altimeter?
| Ref 3.2.2
Aerodrome QNH
50
When to declare an emergency?
| (CAT OP MPA 280) Ref 5.4.12
When usable fuel is less than the final reserve
51
Documents to be carried on bored are;
| CAT.GEN.MPA 180, CAT.GEN.NMPA.140, NCC.GEN.140, NCO.GEN.135
Ref 5.7
52
Fully extend arms and wands at 90 degree angle to sides and slowly move to above head until wands cross. What does it mean?
Normal stop
53
Abruptly extends arms and wands to top of head
Emergency stop
54
What is the maximum altitude for VFR?
FL200
55
Raise right arm to head level with wand pointing up or display hand with "thumbs up", left arm remains at side by knee
Affirmative/all clear
56
What is a non-precision approach?
| MCAR 1 Ref 2.2
An IFR approach that utilizes lateral guidance but does not utilize vertical guidance
Note: not to be mixed with APV (approach with vertical guidance)
57
When operating a seaplane or amphibian the aircraft should have;
MCAR Air Ops, Part CAT, Subpart IDE Ref 5.8.29 (flight over water)
Sea Anchor
| Equipment to make sound signal to prevent collision at sea
58
Dangerous goods markings and labels should have
UN number, classification, name of contents
59
What is the meaning of a steady red light to an aircraft from an aerodrome?
MCAR 2 Appendix 1 Signals Ref 3.10.4
Give way and keep circling
60
What does a landing aircraft turning its landing lights on and off mean?
Ref 3.10
Radio failure or urgency signal.
61
What are dangerous goods?
| Ref 2.2
Articles or substances that are capable of posing a risk to health, safety, property or the environment and which are shown in the list of dangerous goods in the Technical Instructions or which are classified according to those instructions.
62
How many classes do dangerous goods have?
9 classes
63
What does class 3 dangerous goods hold?
Flammable liquids
64
How should dangerous goods be labelled?
Appropriate labels in accordance with provisions set forth in technical instructions.
65
What is the minimum age for a private pilot?
17
66
Which direction is North West refer to?
| Ch 9
315 deg
67
What is ETOPS
| MCAR Air Ops Part SPA Subpart F
Extended Range Twin Engine Operational Performance Standards
| Extended Range Operation Twin-Engine aeroplanes
68
```
Decision height (DH) or Decision altitude (DA)?
REF 2.2
```
A specific height or altitude in the precision approach or approach with vertical guidance a which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established.
69
MDA (minimum descent altitude) or MDH (minimum descent height)
Ref 2.2
A specific altitude in a non precision approach or circling approach below which descent must not be made without the required visual reference.
70
Define Ceiling
| Ref 2.2
The height above ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of clouds below 6000 metres (20,000') covering more than half the sky.
71
Differentiate (?) civil aircraft
| Ref 2.2
Any aircraft on the civil register of a state, other than those which state treats as being in the service of the state, either permanently or temporarily.
72
Commercial air transport refers to:
| Ref 2.2
Any aircraft operation involving transport of passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or hire.
73
Fatal injury means:
Any injury which results in death within 30 days.
74
Steady red light to aircraft in the air means:
Give way/keep circling
75
Flashing red light to an aircraft in the air means:
Airport unsafe
76
What is the time of useful consciousness at 18,000'?
| Ref 5.9.5
20-30 minutes
77
Definition of duty time
| Ref 2.2
A period that commences when a crew member is required to report for duty which includes a sector or series of sectors, and finishes when the aircraft comes to a rest and the engines are shut down at the end of the last sector on which the crew member is acting as an operating crew member.
78
How much rest period does a crew member need to have between duty periods?
Rest periods under 5.11
The minimum rest that must be provided before undertaking a flight duty from home base shall be at least as long as the preceding duty period or 12 hours, whichever is the greater.
Min rest period when starting away from base is 10 hrs.
79
How long should you wait before flying after a drink?
| Ref 5.4.1.1
8 hrs ??
80
Where can you find what is required for your duty time?
MCAR Air Operations Part FTL (FLT?)
81
What is MCAR 12?
Aircraft accidents, incidents and statistics
82
An aircraft maneuvering in the circuit receives a series of red flashes from the tower. This signifies the aircraft must:
Ref 3.10.4
A) Not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions
B) Not land because the airport is not safe for landing
C) Give way to another aircraft
D) Return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course
B) Airport unsafe for landing
83
An aircraft maneuvering in the circuit receives a series of white flashes from the tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:
Ref 3.10.4
A) Return to starting point on the aerodrome
B) Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron
C) There is no such signal
D) Cleared for landing but be cautious
B) Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron
84
What is the max VFR Flt level?
Ref 3.4.3
A) FL150
B) FL200
C) FL100
D) FL180
D) FL200
85
Dangerous goods are divided into ----- classes reflecting the type of risk involved:
Ref 7.10
A) 12
B) 6
C) 18
D) 9
D) 9
86
The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than:
A) 17
B) 18
C) 16
D) 21
B) 18
87
The runway edge lights will be:
A) White
B) Blue
C) Red
D) Green
A) White
88
The pilot of an aircraft losing two way communication shall set the transponder code to:
A) 7700
B) 7600
C) 7500
D) 1200
B) 7600
89
ELT stands for:
A) Emergency locator transponder
B) Emergency local transmitter
C) Emergency locator transmitter
D) Emergency locator beacon transmitter
C) Emergency locator transmitter
90
The total block time for 28 consecutive days shall not exceed:
A) 300 hours
B) 100 hours
C) 120 hours
D) 190 hours
B) 100 hours
91
The crew member shall not consume alcohol under the following circumstances:
A) 12 hours
B) less than 9 hours prior to the specified reporting time for flight duty
C) less than 8 hours prior to the specified reporting time for flight duty
D) less than 12 hours prior to the specified reporting time for flight duty
C) less than 8 hours
92
VFR flight shall not be operated:
Ref 3.4
A) Above FL201
B) At night
C) At transsexual sonic (??)
D) At night unless authorized by the director
D) At night unless authorized by the director
93
A flight conducted at night is intensified as:
Ref 3.4
A) VMC
B) IMC
C) VFR Flight
D) IFR Flight
D) IFR Flight
94
Any injury which is sustained by a person in an accident and which requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date the injury is considered:
A) Fatal injury
B) Serious problem
C) Serious injury
D) Serious incident
C) serious injury
95
Regarding the facilities of an aerodrome, you should refer to?
A) Aeronautical Information Publication
B) Civil Aviation Regulations
C) Air Navigation Order
D) Notams
A) Aeronautical Information Publication
96
Window of Circadian Low (WOCL) falls between?
A) 20:00 hours and 05:00 hours
B) 01:59 hours to 05:59 hours
C) 02:00 hours to 05:59 hours
D) 02:00 hours to 06:00 hours
C) 02:00 hours to 05:59 hours
97
Maldivian aircrafts are identified as:
A) Q8
B) MDV
C) 8Q
D) Q8-XXX
C) 8Q
98
Max daily FDP is?
A) 14 hours
B) 12 hours
C) 11 hours
A) 14 hours
99
ETOPS stands for?
A) Extended time of passenger standards
B) Extended range twin-engine operational performance standard
C) Extended range twin operational procedure standard
D) Extended time operational procedure standard
B) Extended range twin-engine operational performance standard
100
Which of the following should be recorded as an air accident?
A) The engine caught fire during a routine check
B) While landing an aircraft wing hit a stationary aircraft, resulting in significant damage
B) While landing an aircraft wing hit a stationary aircraft, resulting in significant damage
101
An occurrence associated with and related to the transport of dangerous goods by air which results in fatal or serious injury to a person or major property damage:
A) Dangerous goods incident
B) Dangerous goods accident
C) dangerous accident
D) Dangerous goods release
A) Dangerous goods accident
102
Cardinal point southeast is?:
A) 315 degrees
B) 115 degrees
C) 45 degrees
D) 135 degrees
D) 135 degrees
103
A passenger can be carried in the cargo hold of an aircraft if:
A) Not under any circumstances
B) The passenger is going to miss a connecting flight
C) The hold is big enough
D) With the directors approval
A) Not under any circumstances
104
Except when necessary for take off or landing, or except by permission from the director, a flight shall not be flown;
A) 1500' above the highest obstacle in a congested area
B) Over city or congested area near runway terminals
C) At a height of less than 150 m above ground
D) At a height of less than 300 m above ground
C) at a height of less than 150 m above ground.
105
Block time is defined as:
A) The time between when an aeroplane first moves from it's parking place for the purpose of taking off until it comes to rest at designated parking position
B) Engines start time to stop time
C) The time between when an aeroplane first moves form it's parking place for the purpose of taking off until it comes to rest at designated parking position and all engines or props are stopped
D) The time between when an aeroplane first moves from it's Parkin place for the purpose of taking off until it comes to rest at designated parking position and all engines or props are stopped.
106
Which of the following comes under MCAR Air Operations (MCAR Air OPS Previously)?
A) Flight and safety manual
B) AFM
C) Flight Ops Manual
D) Cabin Crew Manual
C) Flight Ops Manual
107
Break is?
Ref 2.2
A) A period free from all duties, which counts as duty, being less than the rest period.
B) A period free from all duties, which counts as rest period, being less than 8 hours
C) A period free of all duties, which counts as duty, being more than rest period
D) Time designated for food, coffee and other non work related things
A) A period free from all duties, which counts as duty, being less than the rest period
108
Altitude is referred as?
Ref 2.2
A) The vertical distance measured from the lowest ground level.
B) The vertical distance of a level, a point or object considered as a point measured from mean sea level.
C) Vertical distance
D) The vertical distance of a level, a point or object considered as a point measured from the lowest point on the ground.
B) the vertical distance of a level, a point or object considered as a point measured from mean sea level.
109
MCAR 1 is?
A) Accidents, Incidents, and Statistics
B) Introductions
C) AIP
D) Definitions and abbreviations
D) Definitions and abbreviations
110
MCAR 18 is?
A) Carriage of Dangerous Goods by air
B) Definitions and abbreviations
C) Search and Rescue
D) Accidents and incidents
A) Carriage of Dangerous Goods
111
ISA stands for?
Ref 2.2
A) Internal signing authority
B) International Standard Aerodrome
C) International Standard Atmosphere
C) International Standard Atmosphere
112
Rules of the air come under?
A) MCAR 47
B) MCAR 11
C) MCAR 2
C) MCAR 2
113
MCAR 13 refers to?
A) Search and Rescue
B) Aircraft accidents, incidents, and statistics
C) Air Traffic Service
D) Initial Airworthiness
A) Search and Rescue
114
If you are descending to do an approach at some airport, what should you set descending through transition level?
Ref 3.2
A) Regional QNH
B) Aerodrome QNH
C) Airport QNE
D) Airport QFE
B) Aerodrome QNH
115
What are you reading when using QFE?
Ref 3.2
A) Elevation
B) Altitude
C) Height
D) Distance
C) Height
116
Classification of aircraft according to specified basic characteristics (aeroplane, helicopter, glider, airship)
A) Rating
B) Category
C) Class
D) Type
B) Category
117
Duty limits in any 7 consecutive days should be:
A) 80 hours
B) 190 hours
C) 12 hours
D) 60 hours
D) 60 hours
118
All operators should keep a record of all block time, duty periods and other relevant information for a minimum of:
A) 15 days
B) 15 hours
C) 24 months
D) 60 days
C) 24 months
119
A holder of a pilot license when acting as PIC under supervision, shall be entitled to be credited:
A) 50% of his flight time toward the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence
B) In full with this flight time toward the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence
C) In full with this time but not more than 300 hours toward the total time
B) In full with this flight time toward the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot license.
120
What are the documents required to be carried on each flight?
Original Registration
Original Airworthiness
Original or copy of Noise Certificate (if applicable)
Original or copy of AOC
Original aircraft radio certificate
Original or copy of third party liability insurance certificate
121
A pressure type altimeter calibrated in accordance with the standard atmosphere?
Ref 3.2
A) When set to QNH altimeter setting will indicate Altitude
B) When set to QFE altimeter setting will indicate height
C) When set to a pressure of 1013.2 hPa will indicate flight level
All of the above?
122
Give one difference between non-precision and precision approaches plus two example approaches:
Non-precision approach utilizes lateral guidance but not vertical (ie VOR, ASR (?))
Precision approach utilizes lateral and vertical guidance (ie ILS, PAR)
123
Taxiway centreline lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:
A) Fixed lights showing blue
B) Fixed lights showing yellow
C) Fixed lights showing white
D) Fixed lights showing green
D) Fixed lights showing green
124
Minimum age for obtaining a PPL?
A) 18 years
B) 21 years
C) 16 years
D) 17 years
D) 17 years
125
A flashing red light from a control tower during an approach to land means:
A) The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling
B) Give way to other aircraft in an emergency
C) Continue circling and wait for further instruction
D) Airport is unsafe do not land.
D) Airport is unsafe do not land.
126
In a radio communication "distress" differs from "urgency" because in the first case:
A) There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance
B) An aeroplane has suffered damages which impairs its fitness to fly
C) The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome
D) The aeroplane or passengers safety requires the flight immediately interrupted.
A) There is a serious and imminent danger require it immediate assistance
127
Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes which are to be used in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?
A) Distress 7700, Hijacking 7600, Comm Fail 7500
B) Distress 7500, Hijacking 7700, Comm Fail 7600
C) Distress 7700, Hijacking 7500, Comm Fail 7600
C) Distress 7700, Hijacking 7500, Comm Fail 7600
128
What are these abbreviations?
```
MCAA
IFR
ILS
VFR
VSO
VMC
IMC
ISA
WOCL
ETOPS
CAS
ICAO
MDA
TAWS
ISA
GMT
ACAS
RNAV
UTC
```
```
Maldives Civil Aviation Authority
Instrument Flight Rules
Instrument Landing System
Visual Flight Rules
Stall Speed
Visual Meteorological Conditions
Instrument Meteorological Conditions
International Standard Atmosphere
Window of circadian low
Extended range twin engine operational performance standards
Calibrated Airspeed
International Civil Aviation Organization
Minimum descent altitude
Terrain Awareness and Warning System
International Standard Atmosphere
Greenwich mean time
Airborne Collision Avoidance System
Area Navigation
Coordinated universal time
```
129
Serious injury means an injury which is sustained by a person in an accident and which requires hospitalization for more than:
A) 24 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date the injury was recieved
B) 42 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date the injury was recieved
C) 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date the injury was recieved
D) 48 hours, commencing within 6 days of the date the injury was recieved
C) 48 hours, commencing within 7 days of the date the injury was recieved
130
Small aircraft have a maximum certified take off weight of:
A) 6700 kg or more
B) 6700 kg or less
C) 6700 kg not less or more
D) 5700 kg or less
D) 5700 kg or less
131
Movement of a helicopter/VTOL above the surface, normally in ground effect and at a ground speed normally less than 37 km/hr (20 kts) is called:
A) Hovering
B) Ground effect
C) Air Taxiing
C) Air taxiing
132
A service provided within advisory airspace to ensure separation, in so far as practical, between aircraft which are operating on IFR flight plans are called:
A) Air traffic control service
B) Flight following
C) Air traffic advisory service
D) Air traffic controlling
C) Air traffic advisory service
133
Explain DA (Decision Altitude)
A specified altitude or height on the precision approach or approach with vertical guidance at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference required to continue the approach has not been established
134
# Define ceiling? Ceiling is the height above the ground or water of the lowest layer of cloud below 6000 m (20,000') covering more than 1/2 the sky:
A) 6000', 4 oktas
B) 20,000', 2/3
C) 6000', 1/2
D) 20,000', 1/2, 6000 m
D) 20,000', 1/2, 6000 m
135
Local night is a period of 8 hours falling between:
A) 2100 to 0700 local
B) evening civil twilight to morning civil twilight
C) 2200 to 0800 local
C) 2200 to 0800 local
136
Define night time:
The hours between the end of evening civil twilight and the start of morning civil twilight, or such other period between sunset and sunrise, as may be prescribed by the appropriate authority.
137
Except when necessary for take off or landing, or except by permission by the director, VFR flight shall not be flown over the congested area of cities, towns or settlements, or over open air assemblies of persons at a height of:
A) 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600'/500'
B) less than 1000' above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m and elsewhere 150 m
C) 300 m above the highest obstacle within 2000'/500 m
D) 1000' above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m/150 m
B) less than 1000' above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m and elsewhere 150 m
138
Except where necessary for take off or landing, or except on specific approval from the director, airplanes shall not be flown over islands or sea plane bases at altitudes lower than:
A) 450'
B) 450 m
C) 1200'
D) 1000'
D) 1000'
139
IFR minimums over terrain or mountainous areas?
At a level at least 600m (2000') above the highest obstacle within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft; elsewhere at a level which is at least 300m (1000') above the highest obstacle within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft.
140
Except where clearance is obtained from an air traffic control unit, VFR flights should not take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone, or enter the traffic pattern when?
If ceiling is less than 450m or ground vis is less than 5 km
141
Dangerous goods are articles or substances which are capable of posing a risk to health, safety, property or the environment and which are shown in the list of Technical Instructions or which are classified according to those instructions.
A) True
B) False
A) True
142
Morse code for distress is:
A) ...---...
B) ---...---
C) ..._ _ _...
D) ---.---
C) ..._ _ _...
143
Write down the classes of dangerous goods:
```
Class 1 Explosives
Class 2 Flammable Gasses
Class 3 Flammable Liquids
Class 4 Flammable Solids
Class 5 Oxidizing Substances & Organic Peroxides
Class 6 Toxic and Infectious Substances
Class 7 Radioactive Material
Class 8 Corrosives
Class 9 Miscellaneous
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144
Who has right of way?
1) Converging:
2) Approaching head on:
3) Overtaking:
4) On Approach:
1) Converging: the aircraft that has the other on it's right shall give way (the one with the other on it's left has right of way)
2) Each shall alter heading to the right (no one has right of way)
3) Overtaking: the aircraft being overtaken has right of way
4) On approach: Aircraft landing or in final stages of an approach to land
145
A medical assessor is a physician qualified and experienced in general medicine who evaluates medical reports submitted to Operators by medical examiners:
A) True
B) False
B) False
146
For non-scheduled VFR operations FDP (Flight Duty Period)
Check 5.11.5
147
A crew member shall not perform duties on an aeroplane:
A) While under the influence of any drug
B) After scuba diving without a reasonable time period elapsed
C) Following a blood donation except when a reasonable time has elapsed
D) all of the above
D) all of the above
148
Alcohol consumption:
- Can't exceed 0.2 per thousand at the start of the flight duty period
- Can't be consumed less than 8 hours prior to specified reporting time for a flight duty period or the commencement of stand by
149
VFR flights are permitted in Class A airspace:
A) True
B) False
B) False
150
A UN number is a four digit number assigned by ICAO on the transport of dangerous goods to identify a substance or a particular group of substances:
A) True
B) False
A) True
151
Minimum rest which must be provided prior to undertaking a flight duty period stating at for CAT (?)
A) Home base, as long as preceding duty period or 12 hours, whichever is greatest
B) Away from home base, as long as preceding duty period or 10 hours, whichever is greatest.
C) The operator must allow for 8 hours sleep opportunity taking account of travel or other physiological needs
All of the above
152
The list of required items that must be operative in an aeroplane are found in?
A) POH
B) AFM
C) MEL
D) MMEL
D) MMEL
153
English level 5 is valid up to __ years and level 4 is valid up to __ years:
A) 6 years and 4 years
B) 4 years and 3 years
C) 6 years and 36 months
D) 5 years and 3 years
A) 6 years and 4 years
154
What does the letter C displayed vertically in black on a yellow background imply?
Air traffic services reporting office
155
A control area or portion thereof established in the form of a corridor is called?
An airway
156
What are the three circumstances required to get Special VFR Approval?
1) Ground vis not less than 1500 m (1 mile)
2) The aircraft is equipped with a functioning radio receiver
3) The pilot has agreed to guard on the appropriate ATC communication frequency
157
An operator shall not operator a non-pressurized aeroplane at altitudes above _____ unless supplemental oxygen, capable of storing and dispensing the oxygen required, is provided:
10,000'
158
If some instruments are unserviceable, who can allow to fly the plane?
Commander and MMEL
159
Minimum flight crew for all turbo-prop aeroplanes having a max take off mass of less than 5700 kg, and with a max approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 is:
A) Single pilot
B) Two pilot
C) Two pilot and engineer
D) Two pilot and at least one cabin attendant
D) Two pilots and at least one cabin crew
160
A horizontal white or orange landing T indicates:
The direction to be used by aircraft for take off and landing, which shall be in a direction parallel to the shaft of the T toward the cross arm.
161
A double white cross being displayed horizontally in the signal area indicates:
The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
162
What is meant, by day and by night, a series of projectiles discharged from the ground at intervals of 10 seconds, each showing on bursting red and green lights and stars?
A) Approach to land with caution
B) You are entering a restricted, prohibited or danger area
C) It's unsafe to land, keep circling
D) Return to land
B) you are entering a restricted, prohibited or danger area
163
Multi engine aeroplane powered by turbo prop engines with a max approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 or a max take off mass exceeding 5700 kg and all multi engine turbojet powered aeroplanes are classified as:
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A) Performance class D
B) Performance class A & B
C) Performance class A
D) Performance class B
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C) Performance class A
164
A person shall not carry out instruction on a flight simulator device for issue of a pilots licence or rating unless;
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A) Approved by MCAA
B) Relevant flight experience
C) Have or held a flight instructor rating
D) All of the above
E) A & C only
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D) all of the above
165
The minimum number of cabin crew members required to be onboard a Maldivian aircraft when carrying 187 passengers?
A) 3
B) 2
C) 1 for each 50 passengers
D) 4 cabin crew
D) 4 cabin crew
166
Max reduction of FDP is?
A) 4 hours
B) 3 hours
C) 2 hours
C) 2 hours
167
During the passenger briefing it is mandatory for the cabin crew to demonstrate the following:
A) Use of seat belts and life jackets, oxygen systems if equipped
B) Emergency features and no smoking
C) Seat belt extensions, life jackets, oxygen if equipped
D) All of the above
A) use of seat belts and life jackets, oxygen systems if equipped
168
Variants of an aeroplane type are considered to be different types if they are not similar in each of the following aspects;
A) Emergency exit operation, type specific emergency procedures, location and type of portable equipment
B) Location and type of portable equipment and emergency evacuation briefing
C) Type specific emergency procedures and no of pax
D) All of the above
?
169
How many megaphones are required on a double decker B-747 with 50 passengers on?
A) 4
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1
B) 2
170
"Apron" means:
A defined area, on a land aerodrome, intended to accommodate aircraft for purposes of loading or unloading passengers, mail or cargo, fuelling, parking or maintenance.
171
Number of fire extinguishers required for a max approved seating configuration of 31 is:
2
172
An operator shall ensure that after landing passengers are reminded of:
A) sick bags
B) smoking regulations and use of safety belt harness
C) location of emergency exits
D) use of floor proximity escape markings
B) smoking regulations and use of safety belts and/or restraint systems
173
Definition of "aerodrome";
A defined area on land or water (including any buildings, installations and equipment) intended to be used either wholly or in part, for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft.
174
When carrying a dangerous good, a breakage or leakage occurs. Who is responsible for the leakage?
A) Air Operator
B) Maldives Airports Company
C) Civil Aviation Department
D) Shipper of the good
A) Air Operator
175
Number of first aid kits in aircraft with 150 passenger seats installed?
A) 2
B) 1
C) 4
D) 3
A) 2
176
If UTC time is 1 am, what time is it in Male?
A) 8 pm
B) 6 am
C) 5 hours + UTC
D) A & C
D) A & C
177
Which of the following comes under MCAR Air Ops (previously MCAR-OPS 1)?
A) Cabin crew manual
B) Dangerous Goods Manual
C) Flight and safety manual
D) Flight Ops Manual
D) Flight Ops Manual
178
An operator shall carry at least one cabin crew member to operate an aeroplane with a max passenger seating configuration of more than:
A) 19 passengers
B) 10 passengers
C) 21 passengers
D) 9 passengers
D) 9 passengers
179
A single day free from duty shall include:
A) a local night, a rest period may be included as part of the day off
B) Two local nights, a rest period may be included as part of the day off
C) Two local nights, a rest period may not be included as part of the day off
D) Two local nights, a rest period not included in day off
B) Two local nights, a rest period MAY be included as part of the day off
180
An inter phone is required for an aeroplane with a max take off mass exceeding:
A) 5700 kg or having a max approved seating config of more than 19 pax
B) 15,000 kg or having a max approved seating config of more than 19 pax
C) 15,000 kg or having a max approved seating config of more than 9 pax
B) 15,000 kg or having a max approved seating config of more than 19 pax
181
AOC stands for:
A) Air Operator Centre
B) Air Operator Certificate
C) Aircraft Operation Coordinator
D) Aircraft Operator Certificate
B) Air Operator Certificate
182
Define "civil aircraft":
Any aircraft on the civil register of a State, other than those the State treats as being in the service of the State, either permanently or temporarily.
183
Except when necessary for take off or landing, or except by permission from the director, a flight shall not be flown:
A) At a height less than 100 m the ground level
B) Over a city or congested area near runway terminals
C) At a height of less than 150 m above the ground
D) At a height of less than 120 m above the ground
C) At a height of less than 150 m above the ground
184
Which of the following should be reported as an air accident?
A) While landing an aircraft wing hit a stationary aircraft, ending in significant damage
B) The engine caught fire during a routine check
C) A man was knocked down by an aircraft taxing on the runway. He was seriously injured but there was no damage to aircraft
D) A prop of an aircraft was broken after being hit by a falling object while parked in a field
A) while landing aircraft wing hit a stationary aircraft, ending in significant damage.
185
An operator shall not operate a land plane when taking off or landing at an aerodrome where the take off or approach path is so disposed over water that in the event of a mishap there would be a likelihood of ditching unless:
A) it has 4 engines
B) it is equipped with a life raft with a survivor locator light for each person on board
C) it is equipped with a life jackets equipped with a survivor locator light for each person on board.
D) it is equipped with enough portable oxygen for all persons on board
C) it is equipped with a life jacket equipped with a survivor locator light for each person on board. Each life jacket must be stowed in a position easily accessible from the seat or berth of the person whose use it is provided.
186
A local day is a 24 hours period commencing:
A) 12:00 local time
B) 00:00 local time
C) 00:00 UTC
D) 00:00 local night
B) 00:00 local time
187
A life raft must be equipped with:
A) GPRS
B) Float pumps
C) First Aid Kits
D) Survivor locator light
D) survivor locator light
