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EASA facts and figures > Air Law > Flashcards

Air Law Flashcards

(80 cards)

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1
Q

ICAO annex 1?

A

Personnel licensing

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2
Q

ICAO annex 2?

A

Rules of the air

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3
Q

ICAO annex 3?

A

Meteorological services for international air navigation

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4
Q

ICAO annex 4?

A

Aeronautical charts

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5
Q

ICAO annex 5?

A

Units of measurement to be used in air and ground operations

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6
Q

ICAO annex 6

A

Operation of aircraft

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7
Q

ICAO annex 7?

A

Aircraft nationality and registration marks

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8
Q

ICAO annex 8

A

Airworthiness of aircraft

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9
Q

ICAO Annex 9?

A

Facilitation

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10
Q

ICAO annex 10

A

Aeronautical telecommunications

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11
Q

ICAO annex 11

A

Air traffic services

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12
Q

ICAO annex 12

A

SAR

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13
Q

ICAO annex 13?

A

Aircraft accident investigations

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14
Q

ICAO Annex 14?

A

Aerodromes

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15
Q

ICAO annex 15?

A

AIS

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16
Q

ICAO annex 16?

A

Environmental protection (Masi)

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17
Q

ICAO Annex 17?

A

Security- safeguarding…

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18
Q

ICAO annex 18?

A

Safe transportation of dangerous goods by air

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19
Q

Which article requires each sovereign state to notify ICAO of any differences between national and international law?

A

Article 38

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20
Q

Regional structure of ICAO? (Number of Regions and regional offices)

A

7 regional offices.

9 regions.

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21
Q

Technical freedoms of the air?

A

First freedom- privilege to fly across territory of another state without landing.

Second freedom- privilege to land in another participating state for non-traffic purposes

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22
Q

Commercial freedoms of the air?

A

3rd- privilege to put down in another state traffic taken on in the state of registration

4th- privilege to take on traffic in another state destined for state of registration

5th- airline taking traffic from another state to a third state

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23
Q

Tokyo convention of 1963

A

Aims to restore and preserve control of A/C to lawful commander and ensures offences committed in the air are punished by state of registration.

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24
Q

Hague convention?

A

Terrorist hijackings should not go unpunished

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25
Montreal convention 1971
Makes worse penalties for terrorists
26
Montreal convention 1999
Carrier is not liable for a passenger's death of injury when the latter behaved stupidly. (Acts of recklessness of negligence like diving into a GE90-115B)
27
Rome Convention
Third parties on the ground damaged by foreign aircraft have the right of getting compensation.
28
IATA
Represents airlines and challenges politically limiting regulations to aid the growth of commercial aviation
29
ECAC
Intergovernmental organisation which promotes harmonisation of aviation regulation and a better understanding within the European territory. It gave birth to JAA of which it is now an associated body.
30
EASA
Taken over JAA, it is now, it ensures common safety and environmental standards at the European level. It is a legislative body.
31
Eurocontrol
Born to harmonise ATC services in Europe, now it has grown and represents air navigation and traffic management in Europe. It is responsible for the Air Traffic Flow Management through the CFMU
32
WTO ( world trade organisation)
Encourage growth and prosperity in global aviation economy and to allow competition to thrive.
33
Single European sky
An agreement to establish common requirements for air navigation services in the single European sky. (These include security,Human Resources, reporting systems etc.)
34
Hour requirements for CPL modular
200 hours of which 100 must be PIC
35
Cross country time required for CPL
20 hours of which 10 must be PIC and 10 PICUS. (At least one of these flights must be 300nm long with 2 full stops)
36
CPL instrument time requirements
10 of which 5 can be instrument ground time
37
CPL integrated requirements
150 hours of which 70 must be PIC.
38
CPL night flying time?
5 hours with 3 hours of dual instruction. 5 T/Ls
39
CPL+(IR) integrated requirements
Total 180 hours of which 70 PIC.
40
CPL+ (IR) integrated X-country requirements
50 hours including one flight of 300 nm with 2 full stops
41
CPL+IR integrated course instrument time required
100 hours of which 25 can be instrument ground time
42
ATPL instrument time required
75 hours of which up to 30 can be instrument ground time
43
ATPL night time requirements
100 hours as PIC or co-pilot
44
To what level of accuracy must ATSU clocks be within?
+- 30 seconds of UTC
45
What are the three subdivisions of the ATC service?
Area control service Approach control service Aerodrome control service
46
What are the three subdivisions of Air Traffic Services
Air Traffic Control Service Flight Information Service Alerting Service
47
at 15NM, what is the minimum radial seperation between two aircraft on a VOR
15 degrees
48
at 15NM, what is the minimum radial seperation between two aircraft on a NDB
30 degrees
49
at 15NM, what is the minimum radial seperation between two aircraft on a MDR radial from a location?
45 degrees
50
What are the weights associated with a medium wake turbulence category?
7 -136 tons
51
What is the radar seperation distance between a heavy WTC following a heavy WTC?
4nm
52
What is the radar seperation distance between a light WTC following a medium WTC?
5nm
53
Under time seperation, what is the seperation required between two aircraft with a speed differential of 0.01 mach?
10 minutes. -1 per additional .01 mach number differential up to 5 minutes
54
What is the minimum seperation between two aircraft under RNAV with RNP 20?
80nm
55
What is the minimum seperation between two aircraft under RNAV with RNP 10?
50nm
56
What is the period of validity of an ASHTAM or SNOWTAM?
24 hours
57
How much notice should a NOTAM be published with?
24 hours
58
what is a NOTAM checklist and how iften is it issued?
A listing of active NOTAMS, released monthly
59
What are the three parts of the AIP?
General, Enroute and Aerodromes
60
What are the 4 types of procedural ATC
Radar Control Radar Vectoring Approach Radar Precision Approach radar
61
*roughly* what is the width of a stripe on a runway threshold?
3.75m (i.e. a runway with 12 threshold stripes is 12*3.75 = 45 m wide)
62
What is the radius of an Obstacle Identification Surface?
15km
63
Which obstacles should be marked with medium intensity lights?
those with a vertical extent over 45m
64
Which obstacles should be marked with high intensity lights?
those with a vertical extent over 150m
65
What colour are medium intensity obstacle lights?
flasing red
66
What colour are high intensity obstacle lights?
flashing white
67
At what height is an obstacle considered an en-route obstacle?
150m. These must be lit by day and night.
68
What is the distance between 'distance to go' or 'closed runway' markings on a runway?
300m
69
an aerodrome has 2 fire vehicles. What is the maximum fusilage width aircraft that it can accept?
5m. lower requires only 1 vehicle, higher requires 3 vehicles.
70
What is the maximum allowable fire vehicle response time?
must not exceed 3 minutes from initial call to foaming.
71
What colour are low intensity obstacle lights?
steady red
72
What is a tall obstacle, and how should it be marked?
any obstacle over 45m, which should be marked with intermediate lights, spacing up to 45m
73
How many copies of the cargo manifest can a state demand?
three
74
How far in andvance should a state recieve a flight plan of an aircraft that intends to land at that state?
2 hours
75
What is the maximun length of time that a passenger may remain in the transit lounge?
2 days
76
ICAO must be *notified* of any accident involving an aircraft over a certain weight. what is this weight?
>2250kg
77
How often can snowtams & ashtams be released?
every 6 hours
78
what is the legal alcohol limit for aircrew on flying duty?
0.2 promille (20mg/100ml)
79
Who is responsible for producing a structural integrity/corrosion control program?
The state of design
80
At what point is an injury considered serious?
if it leads to 2 days hospitalisation within 7 days | or if there are any injuries to internal organs

EASA facts and figures (14 decks)

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