Air Law & Procedures Flashcards
(191 cards)
1
Q
Flight experience requirements for Instrument rating:
A
- 50hrs PIC cross-country
- 40hrs instrument
- Max 20 in sim
- At least 15hrs with IFR instructor
- One dual cross-country under simulated OR actual IMC of at least 100NM
- With approaches at two different locations on an IFR flight plan
2
Q
Validity of INRAT:
A
Valid for 24 months following flight test.
3
Q
Recency of INRAT:
A
After 12 months after a flight test, the 6-month rule becomes active. Within 6 months following an IFR flight, you must complete:
- 6hrs instrument time
- 6hrs approaches to minimums
- Can be conducted in aircraft or with an approved FTD instructor
4
Q
What does the Designated Airspace Handbook provide?
A
The horizontal and vertical limits of airspace and their respective classifications.
Also provides procedures for operation of an aircraft in an airspace.
5
Q
What are the high level airspaces?
A
Southern Control Area (SCA)
Northern Control Area (NCA)
Arctic Control Area (ACA)
6
Q
What is the Southern Control Area?
A
it is 18,000’ ASL and above and all air traffic is controlled.
7
Q
What is the Northern Control Area?
A
It is FL230 and above, which is controlled. Class G airspace exists between 18,000’ MSL and below FL230.
8
Q
What is the Arctic Control Area?
A
It is FL270 and above, class G airspace exists between 18,000’ MSL and below FL270.
9
Q
What are control zones?
A
Controlled airspace extending from the surface of the earth to 3000’ AAE unless otherwise specified with a radius of 5 NM.
Control zones within TCA have a 7 NM radius and military aerodromes have a 10 NM radius
Control Zones are class B, C, D, or E airspace.
10
Q
What are control area extensions?
A
Controlled airspace of defined dimensions within the Low Level Airspace extending upwards from 2200’ AGL unless otherwise specified.
Is used to separate IFR departures and arrivals
11
Q
What is a transition area?
A
Normally based at 700’ AGL extending to the base of the overlying controlled airspace with a radius of 15NM.
12
Q
Requirements for use of an aerodrome at night:
A
Fixed steady WHITE lights to mark take-off and landing areas. fixed red lights to mark unserviceable areas and the windsock must be lighted.
13
Q
VHF airways vertical profile dimensions:
A
- Base at 2,200’ AGL up to 17,999’ ASL
- From 12,500’ to 18,000’ in B class airspace
14
Q
VHF airway segment VOR to VOR:
A
- 4NM either side of centreline
- 50.8NM
- 4 1/2 degrees
ALWAYS “NM” not “SM”
15
Q
VHF airway segment VOR to NDB:
A
- 4.34NM either side of centreline
- 49.66NM
- 5 degrees
16
Q
Low frequency airways (LF/MF) dimensions:
A
- 4.34NM either side of centreline
- 49.66NM
- 5 degrees
17
Q
Low-level air routes dimensions:
A
Surface up to but not including 18,000’; UNCONTROLLED.
Low-Level Air root; from the ground!
18
Q
To whom are low-level airspaces designated to?
A
En-route traffic.
19
Q
What are the aeronautical information publications?
A
- Canada Air pilot
- Canada Flight Supplement
- Waterdrome Supplement
- A.I.P. Canada\
CAP, CFS, WDS, AIP
20
Q
What is a NOTAMR?
A
A replacing NOTAM.
21
Q
What is a NOTAMC?
A
A cancelling NOTAM.
22
Q
What is a NOTAMJ?
A
RSC/CFRI NOTAM.
23
Q
What is a NOTAMQ?
A
A query/response NOTAM.
24
Q
When intercepted, you should:
A
- Follow instructions from visual signals
- Notify appropriate air traffic services
- Establish radio contact to interceptor on 121.5
- Select mode A Code 7700 on transponder
25
The vertical dimensions of the ADIZ are from:
Surface to FL600.
26
Low-level airways dimensions:
2,200' AGL up to but no including 18,000' ASL
27
What is a sterile cockpit?
Focusing strictly on flying the aircraft with no unnecessary conversation.
28
What is high level airspace?
All airspace from 18,000 feet ASL and above.
29
What is low level airspace?
Is airspace up to but not including 18,000 feet ASL.
30
When may an aircraft exceed the speed limit order?
- Operated within a special flight operations certificate
| - Where the minimum safe speed for the flight configuration is above speed limit
31
What is the lowest "useable" flight level when the altimeter is 29.92" or higher?
FL180.
32
What is the lowest "useable" flight level when the altimeter is 29.91" to 28.92"?
FL190.
33
What is the lowest "useable" flight level when the altimeter is 28.91" to 27.92"?
FL200.
34
What are the requirements to enter class B airspace?
- 2-way radio
- Appropriate navigation equipment
- Transponder and automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment
- IFR or CVFR flight plan
- ATC Clearance
Position reports may be required!
35
What are the requirements to enter class C airspace?
- 2-way radio
- Appropriate navigation equipment
- Transponder and automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment
- Clearance from ATC
36
What are the requirements to enter class D airspace?
- 2-way radio
- Appropriate navigation equipment
- Transponder and automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment
- Clearance from ATC
Only difference from class C airspace is that traffic separation is only given to IFR aircraft!
37
What does class D airspace become when an ATC unit is not in operation?
Class E.
38
What does class C airspace become when an ATC unit is not in operation?
Class E.
39
What are the requirements to enter class E airspace?
- IFR and/or VFR operation is permitted however separation is only provided to IFR aircraft
- Aircraft are required to be equipped with a transponder and automatic pressure altitude equipment to operate in Class E airspace that is specified as transponder airspace
40
May IFR traffic fly through advisory airspace?
No, unless they have specific approval from the operator of the airspace.
41
May IFR traffic fly through class F airspace?
No, unless they have obtained permission from the user agency to enter the airspace, or:
- The aircraft is operating on an Altitude Reservation Approval (ALTRV APVL)
OR
- The aircraft has been cleared for a contact or visual approach
42
What are the transponder airspaces?
Any A, B or C airspace and designated D and E airspace.
Includes all Class E airspace extending upwards from 10,000’ ASL up to and including 12,500’ ASL within radar coverage
43
What shall you squawk in Low Level Controlled Airspace?
With mode A and C, squawk 1000.
44
What shall you squawk in High Level Controlled Airspace?
Mode A and C and squawking code 2000.
45
What is an Airport Control Service?
Is provided by airport control towers to aircraft and vehicles on the maneuvering area of an airport and to aircraft operating in the vicinity of the airport.
46
What is an Area Control Service?
Is provided by ACC’s (area control centres) to IFR and CVFR flights operating within specified control areas.
47
What is a Terminal Control Service?
Is additional service provided by IFR units (ACC's) to VFR aircraft operating within Class C airspace.
Toronto Terminal; talks with CVFR and IFR in controlled airspace.
48
What is alerting service?
Notified appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of Search and Rescue Services, or alerts crash equipment, ambulances, doctors, and any other safety services.
Notifies SAR!
49
What is an altitude reservation service?
Coordinates with ACC’s in providing reserved altitude for specified air operations in controlled and uncontrolled airspace.
ACC allows you to reserve altitude in controlled and uncontrolled airspace.
50
What is an Aircraft Movement Information Service?
Is provided by ACC’s of aircraft movement information for use by air defense units relative to flights operating into or within the Canadian ADIZ.
"aircraft movement, roll em' out!" - Military
51
What do flight service stations provide?
- Navigation aids monitoring service
- NOTAM service
- PIREPs
- Fixed telecommunication service
- Domestic paid air-ground message service (DPAG)
52
What is a Domestic Paid Air-Ground Message Service?
FSS relays Flight Regulatory Messages between aircraft and the aircraft operating agency and vice versa when subscribed to by the agency for an annual cost.
53
When should you call for IFR clearance?
IFR aircraft should call no sooner than 5 minutes before engine start
The call should be directed to “Clearance Delivery”.
54
When shall you pick up IFR clearance on clearance delivery frequency?
IFR clearances should not be obtained more than:
10 min before taxi or 5 min before engine start.
55
When may an ATC unit clear you for an approach upon departure?
1. No other traffic is expected
2. Estimated en route time is less than 25 minutes
3. Distance between airports is 75NM or less
56
When can a SID be cancelled?
When reaching the last/termination fix or if ATC explicitly says "SID cancelled"
57
Where can noise abatement be found?
- CAP gen
| - AIP RAC 7.6.3
58
What is the standard takeoff minima (visibility)?
1/2 statue mile (RVR 2600).
59
With an RVR departure, when is it not possible to use the reported RVR?
When RVR is fluctuation above and below takeoff minimums.
Then you shall refer to the reported visibility.
Then it becomes either PIC or ATC discretion.
60
What is the hierarchy for departures AND arrivals minima's regarding a controlled aerodrome?
1. Reported RVR shall be used
2. Reported ground visibility (METAR, etc.)
3. Tower observation
4. Pilot observation
61
How can you tell localized phenomena is occurring at an aerodrome?
When the RVR is reading less than the reported ground visibility.
62
In terms of departure procedures, what does it ensure?
- Aircraft will cross at least 35ft above departure end of runway
- Climb on runway heading to 400' AAE before turning
- Maintain a climb gradient of at least 200' per NM throughout climb to minimum altitude for en route operations
35ft, 400' AAE, 200' per NM
63
Wat is BPOC?
Before Proceeding On Course
64
How can you depart off a runway where it has not been assessed for IFR operations?
- Experience with the airfield (local)
- Follow VFR navigation charts
- Climb visual to minimum IFR altitude (based on category [A,B,C,D] )
- Fly an approach backwards
65
Gradient calculations:
Groundspeed ÷ 60 = NM / min
ft / min ÷ NM / min = CLIMB GRADIENT
66
What is SPEC VIS regarding a departure?
Climb visual, with SPECified VISibility.
SPEC VIS procedures will tell you how high you need to climb while remaining visual. This does NOT include a gradient requirement.
Visibility is dependent on aircraft category (based on speed).
67
What speed and visibility are category A aircraft?
Up to 90kts and includes all rotary aircraft.
SPEC VIS: 1SM
68
What speed and SPEC VIS are category B aircraft?
91kts to 120kts.
SPEC VIS: 1 1/2 SM
69
What speed and SPEC VIS are category C aircraft?
121kts to 140kts
SPEC VIS: 2SM
70
What speed and SPEC VIS are category D aircraft?
141kts to 165kts
SPEC VIS: 2 SM
71
What are all SPEC VIS minimums regarding category A, B, C, and D aircraft?
1
1 1/2
2
2
72
What speed and SPEC VIS are category D aircraft?
above 165kts.
| SPEC VIS: 2 SM
73
What are the speed intervals in regards to aircraft categories?
91 to 120
121 to 140
141 to 165
165 to ∞
74
When do you have to report to ATC about any true airspeed changes in cruise?
If the TAS changes by more than 5% or if mach number changes by 0.01 or more.
75
What is the MOCA clearance above terrain in non-mountainous regions?
1,000ft.
76
What is the MOCA clearance above terrain in mountain regions 2, 3 and 4?
1,500ft.
77
What is the MOCA clearance above terrain in mountain regions 1 and 5?
2,000ft.
78
What does the MEA provide while flying IFR?
Radar coverage & terrain clearance altitude.
79
What is MRA?
Minimum reception altitude. Published AT waypoints when the MRA is higher than the MEA along the segment.
80
While being vectored by ATC, who has responsibility of terrain clearance?
PIC is relived and ATC assumes responsibility. This is the only time where this happens.
81
When ATC instructs an aircraft to change altitude, its shall be commenced immediately at a rate of:
500fpm piston engine
| 1000fpm by turbine engine
82
What are the restrictions when ATC gives you "1,000' on top" clearance?
- 1,000ft above any fog, haze, smoke, etc.
- Visibility above phenomena is at least 3SM
- Tops are well defined
- Altitude orders (heading) are complied with
- Aircraft will be in class B airspace at or below 12,500 ASL, C D or E class airspace
83
Speed limitations on holds with altitude:
At or below 6,000ft: 200 KIAS
Above 6,000ft up to and including 14,000ft: 230 KIAS
Above 14,000ft: 265 KIAS
Shuttle climbs: 310 KIAS
84
What must you obey when doing a shuttle procedure for obstacle clearance?
Do not exceed 200 KIAS and no more than 1 minute outbound still air time
85
Circling approach minimum distance from field:
Category A: 1.3
Category B: 1.5
Category C: 1.7
Category D: 2.3
86
In a radar environment, under what conditions may you get radar-vectored flight for a visual approach?
- The reported ceiling is at least 500ft above minimum vectoring altitude
- The pilot is in sight of the airport OR
At a controlled aerodrome, the pilot has visual contact with the preceding aircraft from which separation must be maintained
87
What is the H&L on an IFR preferred routing chart?
High and low level airspace; divided by 18,000'.
Low: Surface to 17,999'
High: 18,000' and above
88
Does a published MOCA assure radio coverage at the given altitude?
Yes, but only when within 22 NM of a VOR.
89
Does a published MOCA assure radio coverage at the given altitude?
Yes, but only when within 22 NM of a VOR.
90
What are the fuel requirements for an IFR flight plan?
Fuel to destination, to execute an approach and missed approach, fly to your alternate, then fly for 45 minutes.
For the approach and missed approach, add 15 minutes of fuel.
91
What are the alternate weather minima requirements?
```
HAT = Height Above Decision Height
HAA = Height Above Airport
```
Two more more precision approaches:
400-1 or 200-½ above lowest usable HAT and visibility, whichever is greater
One usable precision approach:
600-2* or 300-1 above lowest usable HAT and visibility, whichever is greater
Non-precision approach only available:
800-2* or 300-1 above lowest usable HAT/HAA and visibility, whichever is greater
No IFR approach available:
Forecast weather must be no lower than 500ft above minimum IFR altitude that will permit a VFR approach and landing
92
What is the standard alternate minima?
*600-2 and 800-2.
93
ALTERNATE MINIMA: Two or more usable precision approaches:
400-1 or 200-½ above lowest usable HAT and visibility, whichever is greater.
94
ALTERNATE MINIMA: One usable precision approach:
600-2* or 300-1 above lowest usable HAT and visibility, whichever is greater.
95
ALTERNATE MINIMA: Non-precision approach only available:
800-2* or 300-1 above lowest usable HAT/HAA and visibility, whichever is greater
96
ALTERNATE MINIMA: No IFR approach available:
Forecast weather must be no lower than 500 feet above minimum IFR altitude that will permit a VFR approach and landing.
97
For helicopters (approach minima):
Ceiling 200 feet above minima for the approach to be flown, and visibility at least 1 SM but never less than the minimum visibility for the approach to be flown.
98
What does an unspecified departure procedure imply?
If IFR departure is "not assessed" it is PIC responsibility for terrain avoidance, no less than 1/2 SM.
99
What is a specified departure procedure?
IFR departures are considered "assessed".
After departure, IFR aircraft will:
- Cross departure end of a runway by 35'
- Climb straight ahead to 400' AAE prior to turning on course
- Maintain a climb gradient of 200' per NM to minimum IFR altitude
100
How do you determine IFR minimum altitude?
It is based off the regions!
1,000 above highest obstacle in non-mountainous regions
1,500 above highest obstacle in mountain region 2, 3 and 4 & within 5NM
2,000 above highest obstacle in mountain regions 1 and 5 & within 5NM
If not along airway/air route, look for AMA (area minimum altitude) on LO chart
101
Explain NADP1:
| Write this out
Closer to the airport!
- Initial climb to 800' AAE (power set, flaps set, climb at V2 + 10 / 20kts)
- At 800' AAE (power reduce, MAINTIAN flaps set, climb V2 + 10 / 20kts)
- At/below 3,000' AAE (climb thrust, flaps retract, climb speed)
- At 3,000' AAE resume normal climb speed
102
Explain NADP2:
| Write this out
Further from the airport!
- Initial climb to 800' AAE (power set, flaps set, climb at V2 + 10 / 20kts)
- At 800' AAE (climb thrust to Vzf; reduce power after flaps up 1 or flaps up)
- Climb to 3,000' AAE at Yzf + 10 /20kts
- At 3,000' resume normal climb
103
What shall a position report include?
a) identification
b) position
c) time over reporting point
d) altitude/flight level
e) type of flight plan/itinerary
f) name of next designated reporting point and ETA UTC
g) Name of the next reporting point along the route
h) any other information requested by ATC
104
What are low visibility operations?
Means operations below RVR 1200 (1/4 SM).
105
What are reduced visibility operations?
Means a plan that calls for specific procedures established by the aerodrome operator and/or ATC when aerodrome visibility is below RVR 2600 (½ SM) down to and including RVR 1200 (¼ SM).
106
What is the standard minimum visibility required for ground operation and take-off at an aerodrome?
RVR 2600 (1/2 SM).
107
What are all SPEC VIS minimums regarding category A, B, C, and D aircraft?
A: 1
B: 1 1/2
C: 2
D: 2
108
For departures at an uncontrolled aerodrome, how do you select which minima to take:
Take the lowest of any of these:
- METAR
- Any RVR
- Pilot observed
109
What is the hierarchy of minima's regarding arrivals at an uncontrolled aerodrome?
1. RVR of runway in use
2. METAR
3. Pilot visibility
110
What are the INRAT privileges?
Fly in IFR conditions and hold a VFR OTT rating.
111
When would you file an IFR itinerary over a flight plan?
If the majority of the flight is taken place outside of controlled airspace or if inadequate radiocommunications
112
When filing an IFR itinerary or flight plan, what changes need to be addressed to an FICS unit?
1. Cruising altitude/flight level
2. Route of flight
3. Destination aerodrome
Where a flight plan is filed, 5% or more of a TAS change
OR
A change in Mach by at least .01
113
What are the types of approaches?
Precision approach (PA)
Non-precision approach (NPA)
Approach with vertical guidance (APV)
114
What are the precision approaches?
1. Instrument Landing System (ILS) - CAT I, II, III
2. Ground Based Augmentation System (GBAS) - based on GPS signals!
3. Precision Approach Radar (PAR)
115
When you are "radar identified", what does this mean?
You are responsible for
116
What is the authorized alternate minima and where can you find the weather information to meet these requirements?
Found by TAF or GFA.
NON-PRECION APPROACH ONLY - 800ft - 2SM
ONE USABLE PRECISION APPROACH - 600ft - 2SM
TWO OR MORE USABLE PRECISION APPROACH - 400ft - 1SM
NO IFR APPROACH AVAILABLE: - No weather below 500ft; VFR apply
117
An aircraft's sensitive pressure altimeter with an alternate static source is legal for IFR flight if the altimeter is within ___ of the TDZE at the departure airport.
20ft
118
Radar environment - heavy following heavy:
4 miles separation
119
Radar environment - light following heavy:
6 miles separation
120
Radar environment - medium following heavy
5 miles separation
121
Radar environment - light following medium:
4 miles separation
122
Maximum Assessed Holding Indicated Airspeeds for Holding Patterns
At or below 6,000ft - 200KIAS
6,000ft to 14,000ft - 230KIAS
Above 14,000ft - 265KIAS
Shuttle Climbs (all) - 310KIAS
123
Categories of aircraft based on speed on approach chart:
```
Speeds are based on how the pilot will maneuver the approach or Vref.
A or copter :up to 90kts
B: 91kts to 120kts
C: 121kts to 140kts
D: 141kts to 165kts
E: above 165kts
```
124
If you meet the standard alternate minima (600-2* and 800-2*) what are permitted to?
Lower minima!
For 600-2*:
700-1 1/2
800-1
For 800-2*:
900-1 1/2
1000-1
125
If there is no airport weather report, What must the condition's meet on the GFA for you to use a particular airport as a IFR alternate?
- No CLOUD below 5000' ASL
- Visibility of not less than 3 SM
- No forecast of cumulonimbus
126
ATC should be advised when you apply cold weather corrections to:
1. FAF crossing altitude
2. Procedure turn altitude
3. Missed approach altitude
127
When you pass the FAF and a new weather report is issued, can you continue? (Approach ban)
Yes, passed the FAF you can continue in to land.
128
What are the approach ban exceptions?
1. If the aircraft is already passed the FAF when a below limit RVR or vis is reported
2. If the VR is fluctuating above and below the approach ban limits
3. The pilot informs ATC that it is a training flight and they plan to conduct a missed approach
129
What happens if the RVR is below minimums but the visibility is above 1/4 mile?
FOR GA ONLY: The approach ban does not apply!
130
A "current altimeter setting" is an altimeter that:
Is useable for up to 90 minutes from the time of observation.
131
A "current altimeter setting" is an altimeter that:
Is useable for up to 90 minutes from the time of observation.
132
RVR reports to a pilot that he should see:
Along the first 3000ft of the runway OR the first 1/3 of the runway
133
Mandatory broadcasts when commencing an approach:
1. Five minutes before commencing the approach
2. Intercepting the final approach TRACK
3. Intercepting the FAF
4. In the event of a missed approach
134
Mandatory broadcasts when commencing an approach:
1. Five minutes before commencing the approach
2. Intercepting the final approach TRACK
3. Intercepting the FAF
4. In the event of a missed approach
135
How are ceiling minima calculated?
They are rounded up based on 20.
```
220ft = 200ft
225ft = 300ft
```
136
A pilot can take credit for a GNSS approach when:
1. A usable approach is served with a traditional NAVAID
2. approach-level RAIM or WAAS integrity will be available at ETA
3. Successful RAIM check is performed once before midpoint of flight AND at least approach-level RAIM is available
4. Only published LNAV minima can be used determining alternate weather minima!
137
If you're filing an alternate on a GNSS overlay approach, what must you take into account?
When applying alternate minima, USE THE LNAV MINIMAS!
138
When an airport has an aerodrome advisory forecast that you wish to use as an alternate, the minima are:
- 500ft above lowest HAT or HAA
| - 3 SM
139
Can you use the PROB30 or PROB40 when determining IFR alternate minima?
Yes, as long as it is not below the minima.
140
Can you use the TEMPO or BECMG in a TAF when determining alternate minima?
Yes, these condition must ALWAYS meet the selected alternate minima.
141
What publications must be carried on board when flying on an IFR flight plan?
- CFS
- CAP
- En-route and terminal charts
142
Closing a flight plan:
Control tower, FSS or RAAS, flight plan is closed automatically
Uncontrolled, the pilot closes the flight plan
143
What changes when you close the IFR flight plan while airborne?
- Termination of all alerting services with SAR
| - Arrival report within 1 hour of the last ETA (flight plan) / Arrival report within 24 hours (flight itinerary)
144
What changes when you cancel IFR in flight?
You are now operating VFR and must follow VFR procedures to close flight plan.
145
Can you file any stops on an IFR flight plan?
No, but you may file a stop on an IFR itinerary, as long as the stops are in uncontrolled airspace.
146
When doesn't the pilot need to readback an IFR clearance?
If a SID is assigned or if received via datalink.
147
Minimum descent altitude (MDA) applies to:
A specified height for a non-precision approach where an aircraft may not descend below until they have visual of the airport.
MDA = NON-PRECISION, you scud run until you see the airport!
148
Decision altitude (DA) applies to:
A specified altitude where a missed approach must be initiated during a precision approach if you don't have visual reference to land.
DA = PRECISION, you are gliding in and need to make a precise decision!
149
What must be considered when the pilot considers a GNSS approach at an alternate aerodrome?
1. Approach-level RAIM or WAAS integrity will be available at ETA (both for destination and alternate)
2. For GPS TSO C129/C129a avionics, the RAIM function must be tested at least once before the midpoint of the flight
3. Where a satellite approach is to be used at both destination and alternate, the must be separated by:
- 100 NM in Canada
- 70 NM for north of 50 degrees in Quebec or Labrador and all of Nunavut
150
Group 1 rating:
Multi engine aircraft OTHER THAN centre-line thrust.
151
Group 2 rating:
Centreline multi-engine aircraft.
152
Group 1 rating:
All multi-engine aircraft, the best one.
153
What is the difference between a movement area and a maneuvering area?
Movement area - ALL parts of an aerodrome used for the movement of aircraft
Maneuvering area - Parts of an airport used for takeoff and landing, including taxiways (everything but aprons)
154
Can you use a displaced threshold for landing?
Yes, you can use it for:
- Taxiing
- Initial takeoff roll
- Landing rollout
- Can use it for touchdown, but pilot must ensure obstacle clearance
155
What are the runway edge light requirements for night operations?
2 parallel rows of white edge lights that are visible for at least 2 NM in all directions, spaced no more than 200ft apart for at least 1400ft (totaling 8 total nights)
156
What does VASIS approach lighting insure in landing?
Safe obstacle clearance to a minimum of 6 to 9 degrees either side of the EXTENDED runway centreline out to 4.1 NM.
Only at certified airports!
Descent using VASIS should not be commenced until aircraft is aligned with centreline.
157
What are the windsock indications?
Windsock 30 degrees below horizon = 6kts or less
Windsock horizonal = 15kts or more
158
During a hold in the standard pressure region, to what do you set your altimeter to?
29.92 until immediately prior to descending below the lowest flight level at which the hold can be conducted at.
159
Low-level controlled airspace consists of:
1. Low-level airways
2. Control area extensions
3. Terminal control areas
4. Control zones
5. Transition areas
160
What are the obstacle clearances on T-routes?
4NM primary (for physical features) plus 2NM secondary (for GPS errors)
T-routes airspace are 10 NM on each side of centreline! They DO NOT splay like an airway!
161
What is the horizontal protection for a published MEA?
10NM each side.
162
What is the horizontal protection for a published MOCA?
6NM each side.
163
What is the difference between a T-route and an L-route?
T is controlled, L is uncontrolled.
BLACK is controlled, GREEN is uncontrolled in all facets of a LO chart.
164
What is RVSM and non-RVSM?
The application of 1,000ft vertical separation between aircraft in cruise, compared to the standard non-RVSM of at least 2,000ft separation.
Comes into effect between FL290 and FL410.
165
What must an aircraft have to be considered RVSM certified?
1. Minimum of 2 primary altitude alerting systems
2. Automatic altitude keeping device (autopilot)
3. Altitude alerting service
166
What is the maximum tolerance between two altimeters on the aircraft?
75ft. If you don't have this you are not RVSM certified.
167
When flying on minimum IFR altitudes in a designated mountain region, pilots should remain _____ above minimum IFR altitude when there are large temperature/pressure variations.
1,000ft.
168
What does cancelling IFR do?
ATC no longer provides IFR separation, aircraft is now VFR and you MUST close the flight plan or itinerary on your own after landing!
169
What do you do if you encounter a communication failure on a vector SID?
On a vector, climb to sector, go director!
170
What do you do if you encounter a communication failure on a vector SID?
On a vector, climb to sector, go director!
171
What is the altitude range of RVSM?
FL290 up to and including FL410.
172
What is the maximum tolerance between two altimeter sources to be RVSM-compliant?
75ft.
173
Minimum vectoring altitudes provide a clearance of _____ft obstacle clearance.
1,000ft.
174
How much clearance does an AMA give you depicted on a LO chart?
1,000ft, and 2,000ft in ALL MOUNTAIN REGIONS.
175
What do DMR altitude clearances apply to?
MOCA, MEA, 100 NM safe. The LO chart altitudes and the very first altitude you see on an approach plate.
176
What clearance does the MSA give you?
1,000ft in all regions.
177
What obstacle clerance do you get with transition altitudes?
1,000ft in all regions.
178
What obstacle clearance are you guaranteed for when being radar vectored?
1,000ft in all regions.
179
What are T-routes?
Low-level FIXED controlled RNAV routes.
Protection Area:
4 NM primary PHYSICAL protection
2 NM secondary GPS protection
MOCA protection represents 6 NM each side
MEA protection represents 10 NM each side
180
What is an L-route?
Uncontrolled, low-level RNAV fixed airway
181
What are approaches governed by?
RVR
182
What are landings governed by?
MDA/DH
183
If a pilot is unsure if a runway is obstructed, what applies?
Circling minima apply!
Remember to round up of the tens column of numbers is over 20.
184
When you descend out of controlled airspace, you are unable to cancel IFR due to not getting VFR requirements. You proceed to descend to the MOCA and ATC will _____
Protect the MEA for 30 minutes.
185
What frequency band does the glideslope and the LOC operate on?
Glideslope: UHF (ULTRA important)
Localizer: VHF (not as important, also falls under the same thing as a VOR, VHF)
186
Localizer and glideslope beam:
1.4 degrees and +/- 5 degrees.
187
What is the zone of entry for holding patterns?
20 degrees.
188
Before taxi, what is the hierarchy at a controlled AND an uncontrolled aerodrome?
Controlled:
RVR for runway in use
METAR
Tower
Pilot
```
Uncontrolled:
RVR for runway in use
METAR
Pilot
(use the lowest of any of these values!!!!!!!! If one of them is bad, YOU CANNOT TAXI!)
```
189
Traffic separation (non-radar environment):
All traffic behind heavy is 2 minutes. Extended to 3 minutes if taking off at an intersection behind heavy.
190
Traffic separation (radar environment):
Heavy following heavy: 4
Medium following heavy: 5
Light following heavy: 6
Light following medium: 4
4,5,6,4 (biggest to smallest)
191
Alternate minima with no TAF:
Assume the GFA:
1,000ft above lowest HAT/HAA
3 SM
No cumulonimbus
