Air ops Flashcards
(104 cards)
1
Q
What is the Air Operations regulation number?
A
965/2012
2
Q
What is a performance class B aircraft?
A
An aeroplane powered by propeller engines with a maximum passenger seating configuration of nine or fewer and a MTOM of 5700kg.
3
Q
For the purpose of passenger classification, how old is an adult?
A
12 years or above
4
Q
What age is an infant?
A
2 years or less
5
Q
What is NVIS?
A
Night vision imaging system, when the proportion of Visual Flight Rules performed at night is undertaken by a crew member wearing night vision goggles
6
Q
What is a CAT 1 approach?
A
A decision height of no lower than 200ft and a runway visual range not less that 550 m.
7
Q
What is a CAT 2 approach?
A
A decision height of between 200ft and 100ft and a runway visual range of not less than 300m
8
Q
Which aircraft does PART-OPS cover?
A
All aircraft except tilt-rotor, airships and UAVs.
9
Q
What is annex 1 of 965/2012?
A
IR-OPS or AIR-OPS or PART-OPS
10
Q
From when was 965/2012 applicable?
A
28th October 2012
11
Q
What does IR-OPS replace?
A
EU-OPS (reg 859/2008)
12
Q
List the 5 annexes of IR-OPS.
A
- Definitions
- Authority requirements
- Organisation req’s
- CAT
- Specific approvals
13
Q
Which PART are AOC’s under?
A
PART-OPS
14
Q
Which ICAO annex do AOC’s come under?
A
Annex 6
15
Q
What eight things must an operator have to obtain an AOC?
A
- Sufficient personnel
- Airworthy aircraft
- Operations manual
- Quality system
- Accountable staff
- Carriers liability insurance
- Sufficient finances
- Ground Infrastructure
16
Q
Who issues AOC’s?
A
The Competent authority
17
Q
When must a Flight Data Monitoring program be used?
A
When operating aeroplanes with a MTOM of more than 27000kgs.
18
Q
How is flight data obtained from the aircraft’s digital systems?
A
By a Flight Data Acquisition unit (FDAU)
19
Q
What did Quick Access Recorders previously consist of, and what are they now?
A
Previously tape or optical disk.
Today more often memory cards or wireless.
20
Q
How long is Flight Data Recorder recycle time?
A
25/50 hrs
21
Q
Can an operator amend their MEL?
A
As long as it is approved by the competent authority.
22
Q
What does HEMS stand for?
A
Helicopter Emergency Medical Service
23
Q
What does HHO stand for?
A
Helicopter Hoist Operations
24
Q
What is the minimum age for technical crew members in commercial air transport?
A
18 years
25
When passengers are on board or embarking/disembarking, the aircraft shall not be refuelled or defuelled with what?
Avgas or wife-cut type fuel
26
What should an aircraft commander do if they encounter an intensity of icing conditions for which the aircraft is not certified?
Exit the conditions without delay, by a change of level and/or route, and if necessary by declaring an emergency to ATC
27
Can a commander commence a flight if there are ice deposits on the control surfaces?
A commander shall only commence takeoff if the aircraft is clear of any deposit that might adversely affect the performance or controllability of the aircraft.
28
Where are the loading, centre of gravity and mass limitations specified?
Aircraft Flight Manual, and Operations manual
29
Who is responsible for establishing initial entry in to service reweighing and CofG.
The operator
30
How often must an operator establish aircraft masses of individual aircraft?
Every four years
31
How often must an operator establish aircraft fleet masses?
Every nine years
32
The interval between two fleet mass evaluations should not exceed what?
48 months
33
How often should fleet values be updated?
At least at the end of each evaluation
34
What is included in the dry operating mass?
- Crew and crew baggage, -Catering and removable passenger service equipment
- Tank water and lavatory chemicals
35
What is the standard weight of crew baggage?
85kg for technical/flight crew
| 75kg for cabin crew
36
How many spare electrical fuses should an operator carry?
Enough to ensure complete circuit protection plus 10% more of each Rating, or three of each Rating, which ever is the most.
37
What additional lighting should aeroplanes operated at night have?
Navigation/Position lights
Landing lights
Lights to conform to the international regulations for preventing collisions at sea, if the aircraft is operated as a seaplane.
38
Where are aeroplane lighting requirements specified?
OPS-CAT
39
What is the rule regarding equipment to clear windshields during precipitation?
Aeroplanes with a MTOM of more than 5700kgs shall be equipped at each pilots station with a means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation.
40
What does MOPSC stand for?
Maximum operational passenger seating configuration
41
Which aircraft should be equipped with an altitude alerting system?
Turbo props with a MCTOM of more than 5700kgs or having a MOPSC of nine or more, and turbo jet Aircraft
42
Which aircraft shall be equipped with ACAS II?
Turbine powered with a MCTOM of 5700kgs or MOPSC of more than 19
43
Which aeroplanes should be equipped with a CVR?
MTOM of 5700kg and
Multi engine turbine powered aeroplanes of 5700kg or less with a MOPSC of more than nine, and first issued with a CofA on or after 1st Jan 1990.
44
How long should a CVR be capable of retaining data?
The preceding two hours (when the CofA has been issued on or after 1st April 1998, or
The preceding 30 minutes for aeroplanes issued with a CofA before 1st April 1998
45
What should the CVR record with reference to a timescale?
Conversations between crew members and with air traffic control, as well as the aural environment of the flight crew compartment.
46
When should the CVR start and finish recording?
Prior to the aeroplane moving under it's own power, and should continue to record until the aircraft is no longer capable of moving under it's own power.
47
Which aircraft should have a DFDR?
- Aeroplanes with a MCTOM of more than 5700kgs and first issued with a CofA on or after 1st June 1990
- Turbine engine aeroplanes with a MCTOM of more than 5700kgs and first issued with a CofA before June 1990
- Multi-engine turbine powered aeroplanes with a MTOM of 5700kgs or less, with a MOPSC of more than nine and first issued with a CofA on or after 1st April 1998.
48
Which data shall an FDR record?
Technical flight data including temperature, speed, altitude, and trajectory.
49
How long should an FDR be capable of retaining data?
At least the preceding 25 hours
50
When should an FDR start and finish recording?
The FDR should start recording before the aircraft is capable of moving under it's own power, and finish after the aircraft is capable of moving under it's own power.
51
In case of aeroplanes issues with a CofA on or after 1st April 1998, what should the FDR do?
Start and finish recording automatically
52
How does an Underwater locator beacon work, and for how long?
It emits ultrasonic pulses on immersion for up to 90 days.
53
How long can an FDR last underwater?
1 month at a depth of 6,000 metres.
54
How long should Data Link recorders retain recordings?
At least 2 hours
55
How many first aid kits should aircraft have?
```
0-100: 1
101-200: 2
201-300: 3
301-400: 4
401-500: 5
500+: 6
```
56
When should an aircraft have an EMK?
When it has a MOPSC of 30 or more and is flying more than 60 minutes from an aerodrome which has qualified medical assistance.
57
What aircraft are required to carry oxygen for passengers?
Aircraft which are pressurised and flying above 2500ft
58
What mass flow rate should first aid oxygen produce?
At least 4 litres per minute
59
What average flow rate should cabin oxygen have?
At least 3 litres/minute
60
Following a depressurisation, oxygen supplies should be sufficient for what percentage of passengers?
At least 2% but no less than one person
61
How many fire extinguishers should each flight deck and galley have?
At least 1
62
How many fire extinguishers should aeroplanes have?
```
7-30;1
31-60;2
61-200;3
201-300;4
301-400;5
401-500;6
501-600;7
601+; 8
```
63
Which aeroplanes should be equipped with a crash axe or crow bar?
Aeroplanes with a MCTOM of 5700 or above, and MOPSC of more than nine.
64
Which aircraft should have a means for the crew and passengers to reach the ground safely in an emergency?
Ones whose sill heights are more than 1.83m (6ft) above the ground
65
How many megaphones should an aircraft be equipped with?
61-99; 1
| 100+; 2
66
An ELT of any type, shall be capable of transmitting on which two frequencies simultaneously?
121.5 MHz and 406MHz
67
Seaplanes operating over water shall be equipped with what?
A sea anchor and equipment to facilitate mooring and manoeuvring,
And equipment for making sound signals as prescribed in the International regulations for preventing collisions at sea.
68
Aircraft operating under IFR or at night shall be equipped with a transmit button located where?
On the manual pitch and roll control for each flight crew member
69
What is the aeronautical emergency frequency?
121.5MHz
70
What are RVSM operations?
Reduced Vertical Separation minimum of 300m or 1000ft between aircraft.
71
Which aircraft are required to carry oxygen for passengers?
Aircraft which are pressurised and fly above 2500ft
72
What is the average passenger oxygen flow rate required to be?
At least 3 litres per minute
73
What mass flow rate should first aid oxygen produce?
4 litres per minute
74
Between which flight levels do RVSM operations apply?
FL290 and FL410 (29,000ft and 41,000ft)
75
How many altitude measurement systems are RVSM aircraft required to have?
Two independent systems
76
What 4 equipment requirements are there for RVSM aircraft?
- Two independent altitude measuring systems
- An altitude awareness system
- An automatic altitude control system
- A Secondary surveillance Radar transponder
77
What height keeping errors shall an operator report to the competent authority?
- Total Vertical Error of +/-90m (300ft)
- Altimetry system Error of +/-75m (245ft)
- Assigned Altitude Deviation of +/-90m (300ft)
78
How long does an RVSM approved operator have, to report height keeping errors to the competent authority?
72 hours
79
Which areas of the aircraft skin are RVSM critical areas?
Around the static vents
80
What is Hard Time Maintenance?
All components must be taken out of service when they reach a specified age
81
What is On condition maintenance?
Appliances and parts are periodically inspected/checked against a physical standard, to determine whether they can stay In service.
82
What is condition monitoring?
When operating levels are monitored i.e. Oil consumption, and compared with Upper and lower limits. Condition monitoring is not considered preventative maintenance.
83
What is the MRBR?
Maintenance Review board Report, which is the initial minimum scheduled maintenance requirements prepared by the TC holder
84
What is the MPD?
Maintenance planning document, which contains all the MRB requirements plus mandatory scheduled maintenance requirements, which may only be changed with permission from the competent authority.
85
How often is a C-check scheduled?
Every 12-20 months
86
What does decision height mean?
The wheel height above the runway elevation by which a go around must be initiated, unless a safe landing can be carried out.
87
Engine and propeller log book requirements are covered where?
Schedule 6 of the ANO
88
An Operators ETOPS approval will lapse if they cease Extended Range Operations for how long?
13 months
89
For what period of time must a load sheet be kept?
6 months
90
Commission regulation 965/2012 applies to which aircraft?
Commercial air transport operations with helicopters and aeroplanes
91
When is a permit flight release certificate issued?
Before an aircraft is test flown with a permit to fly
92
Air navigation regulations are written by whom?
CAP 393 (The ANO) is written by The Privy Council
93
What is the period of validity for a Certificate of Fitness for Flight?
Max 7 days
94
The excess ILS deviation Light is what colour?
Amber and flashing
95
How many frequencies must an ELT be capable of transmitting on?
2 frequencies
96
For how long is a permit to fly valid?
12 months
97
To what stage of flight is a noise certificate applicable?
Takeoff and Landing
98
What is the variable load?
The weight of the crew, their baggage and equipment relevant to the role
99
Can State aircraft such as those operated by customs and police services fly internationally?
Only with prior permission from the foreign state's NAA
100
Under which regulation is the MEL approved?
965/2012
101
When does an aircraft not require a noise certificate?
When flying under A and B conditions
102
How many times must the nationality and registration marks appear on an aircraft?
4 times
103
From how many sources, should independent and reliable electrical power be supplied, for an ETOPS aircraft?
3
104
What are the schedules of the ANO for?
To explain in more detail parts of the articles
