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MATS Part 2 EGKK > AIR - Section 4 > Flashcards

AIR - Section 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the AIR frequency and what spare is available?

A

124.230

Spare frequency available on 134.230

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2
Q

Who should be advised when AIR starts/stops using a non-standard frequency?

A

Redhill ATC
Aircraft via a message added to the ATIS

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3
Q

What priority lines are available to AIR?

A

TC KK INT - labelled “KK INT PTY”
TC KK FIN - labelled “KK FIN PTY”
TC South - labelled “TC STH PTY”

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4
Q

Which calls should be on a priority line?

A

Calls of an urgent operational nature that require an immediate response. The recipient should terminate any other telephone conversation.

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5
Q

When should TC KK FIN priority call AIR?

A
  • Final approach separation is being eroded within 10nm from touchdown
  • Aircraft declaring an emergency within 10nm from touchdown
  • Aircraft which requires a landing immediately after take-off
  • Emergency evacuation of TC when normal notification procedures cannot be followed
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6
Q

When should AIR priority call TC KK FIN?

A
  • Go-around
  • Emergency traffic
  • Emergency separation between departures
  • Landing aircraft inside 2nm not contacted AIR
  • Passing of a landing clearance inside 4nm when SRAs are in progress
  • Emergency evacuation of VCR when normal notification procedures cannot be followed
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7
Q

When should AIR priority call TC South?

A

Any situation AIR believes requires the immediate attention of TC South

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8
Q

What is the maximum range that the ATCOs are permitted to set the ATM?

A

30nm

ATCOs may temporarily extend the range, but it must be reset to range of no more than 30nm

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9
Q

What labels MUST be displayed on the ATM?

A

Callsign
Level (including Mode S)
Ground Speed

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10
Q

What may the ATM be used for at EGKK?

A

LLSC VODMAP TBM

Basic - LLSC - Landing, Longitudinal, SID, Circuit

1) Determine the landing order, spacing and distance from touchdown of arriving aircraft
2) Assist in applying longitudinal separation for departing aircraft
3) Enable the controller to confirm that the initial track of a departing aircraft conforms with the clearance issued
4) Provide information to aircraft on the position of other aircraft in the circuit or carrying out an instrument approach

Advanced - VODMAP - Validate/Verify, Overflying, Departure, Missed, Arriving, Pass

1) Validate SSR and Mode S of departing aircraft and verify Mode C read-outs
2) Monitor overflying aircraft identified by Approach to ensure that they do not conflict with arriving or departing aircraft
3) Establish separation between departing aircraft
4) Establish separation in the event of a missed approach
5) Assist in taking corrective action when the separation between arriving aircraft becomes less than the minima
6) Pass traffic information

TBM - Training, Bandboxed, MATS 2
* The ATCO must have undertaken specified training
* The ATCO is only providing an Air Control Service and a separate GMC is being provided by another ATCO on a separate frequency
* The procedures are detailed in MATS 2

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11
Q

What should the ATCO say when the Selected Level is seen to be at variance with an ATC clearance?

A

“(callsign), check selected level. Cleared level is (correct cleared level)”

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12
Q

What is AFDAS?

A

Approach Funnel Deviation Alert System

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13
Q

What happens on the ATM screen when there is a localiser alert on the AFDAS?

A
  • Aircraft label causing the alert is highlighted in orange on the ATM and in the AFDAS localiser window
  • The boundary of the approach funnel area being crossed changes to red
  • The audible alarm is sounded
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14
Q

What happens on the ATM screen when there is a glidepath alert on the AFDAS?

A
  • The glidepath window is displayed
  • The label of the aircraft causing the alert is highlighted in an orange box on both the main ATM window and in the AFDAS window
  • The lower glidepath limit is coloured red
  • The audible alarm is sounded
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15
Q

What are the ATCO actions in the event of a localiser alert activated at 1nm or less from touchdown?

A

Instruct the aircraft to Go-Around

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16
Q

What are the ATCO actions in the event of a localiser or glidepath alert activated more than 1nm from touchdown?

A
  • Advise the aircraft of their apparent displacement
  • Seek confirmation that the aircraft is aligned with or visual with the correct runway in use

“(callsign) you are left/right of the centreline. Confirm established on the localiser or visual with (runway in use)”

“(callsign) you are below/above the glidepath. Confirm returning to the glidepath or visual with (runway in use)”

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17
Q

What are the ATCO actions in the event that an aircraft is outside the localiser tracking zone at 1nm or less from touchdown, OR the ATCO believes that the aircraft is dangerously positioned on the approach?

A

The aircraft must be instructed to Go-Around

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18
Q

Should AFDAS alerts be recorded in the Watch Log? And who else should be contacted after an AFDAS alert?

A

Yes. Except for Go Arounds or overflights. Pilots should also be contacted for their comments/observations.

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19
Q

What is RIMCAS?

A

Runway Incursion Monitoring and Collision Avoidance System

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20
Q

What is RIMCAS configured to alert against?

A
  • MDS cooperative (transponding) targets
  • Primary targets that enter the runway via a primary detection area
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21
Q

When must ‘Poor Visibility’ be selected on RIMCAS?

A
  • Main Runway Ops - During LVPs
  • Northern Runway operations - When visibility is less than 1500m
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22
Q

Which Arrival RIMCAS alerts are advisory and which are mandatory go arounds?

A

Good Visibility
Stage 1 - Advisory
Stage 2 - Advisory, but ATCOs discretion

Poor Visbility
Stage 1 - Advisory
Stage 2 - Go Around, except when caused by heavy precipitation.

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23
Q

What actions come from Departure RIMCAS alerts?

A

Stage 1 - Advisory, No action.
Stage 2 - Advisory, action up to ATCOs discretion

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24
Q

What is the width of both 08R/26L and 08L/26R?

A

45 Metres

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25
Q

What is the length of 26L/08R?

A

3317 Metres

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26
Q

What is the length of 26R/08L?

A

2561 Metres

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27
Q

At what distance is an aircraft or vehicle considered to have vacated 26L/08R?

A

When every part of the aircraft or vehicle is at least 77.5m from the runway centreline.

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28
Q

When is an aircraft or vehicle defined as fully vacated 26R/08L?

A

When every part of the aircraft or vehicle is at least 60m from the runway centreline.

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29
Q

When can a take-off or landing clearance be issued in anticipation?

A

When the preceding aircraft

  • Has passed the runway edge markings
  • Is continuing in the required direction
  • Has NOT been instructed to stop before the applicable runway holding position
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30
Q

Describe the CGA?

A

Cleared and Graded Area

The area around the runway within which there must be no obstructions, and only frangible items, when aircraft are cleared to land or take-off, in case an aircraft runs off the runway.

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31
Q

What are the two distances used for the CGA?

A

75 Metres from the centreline
and
105 Metres from the centreline

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32
Q

If a vehicle has been cleared to operate inside the CGA, can the runway still be used?

A

No. When a vehicle has been given clearance to operate inside the CGA the runway is to be considered occupied and a runway blocked FDE placed in the runway bay to reflect this.

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33
Q

What must an ATCO ensure before a tug requiring an escort is cleared to tow from Hangar 6 to Y1 in order to facilitate a runway crossing?

A

A Leader Vehicle is at Y1 for the escort

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34
Q

What are the R/T procedures for a Leader Vehicle escorting a towed movement across the runway?

A
  • Leader vehicles will take R/T responsibility
  • Will call AIR for crossing once both are on the correct frequency and the tug driver has been briefed
  • Callsign “Leader X + 1”
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35
Q

Can towed movements cross the runway from any holding point if the tug crew are crossing qualified?

A

No. All towed crossers must use the undershoot or or Charlie. Otherwise an escort must be used.

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36
Q

Can AIR just place one of either the Leader Vehicle or Tug FDE in the runway bay when conducting an escorted crossing?

A

No. Both FDEs are to be placed in the runway bay during the crossing.

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37
Q

Are unescorted crossings allowed during Low Vis Safeguarding and LVPs?

A

Low Visibility Safeguarding - Yes
LVPs - No. All crossings during LVPs shall be under escort.

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38
Q

Are multiple lineups from A and M allowed?

A

Yes if A is instructed to line up first, and M to line up behind.

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39
Q

What are the AIR ATCO actions in the event that an aircraft or vehicle is lost on the manoeuvring area?

A

If RIMCAS is serviceable
* Take-offs and landings may continue.
* Runway inspection should be requested to confirm that the runway is not obstructed.

If RIMCAS is not in use
* It must be assumed that the aircraft or vehicle is on the runway
* No take-offs or landings are to be permitted until it can positively be established that the lost traffic no longer presents a hazard to runway movements.

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40
Q

What are the actions if a RET is unavailable?

A
  • Advise landing aircraft
  • Cancel lead off lights
  • Select the TUBs
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41
Q

What are the actions in the event that GAL issue a short-notice runway closure?

A
  • Stop Runway Movements
  • Advise TC Gatwick and TC GS Airports reason and likely duration
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42
Q

Must ATCOs include the runway designator in RT transmissions involving the runway?

A

Yes.

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43
Q

Should ATCOs include the holding point designator with all RT transmissions involving entering or crossing the runway?

A

Yes.

44
Q

When giving a conditional clearance behind a landing aircraft, what extra piece of information should be given?

A

The distance from touchdown of the arriving aircraft.

45
Q

What should be taken into account when considering a runway change?

A
  • Traffic already at the hold or taxiing out
  • The CTOTs of departing traffic awaiting start
  • Work in progress affected by a runway change
  • FINs Traffic
46
Q

Who makes the final decision regarding the tactical point in the traffic pattern at which the runway change occurs?

A

AIR ATCO after consultation with KK FIN

47
Q

Which aircraft are allowed to make an approach to the non-duty runway?

A

Only aircraft with Flight Category A or aircraft carrying out ILS/AGL flight checks may make an approach to the non-duty runway.

48
Q

What actions should be taken when an emergency aircraft is positioning to land at Gatwick on the non-duty runway?

A
  • Stop all departures
  • KK FIN shall restrict all inbounds when the emergency aircraft is within 20nm from touchdown
49
Q

Through which block on Taxiway Y is a movement considered a runway movement?

A

Block 14. W1 - Y3.

50
Q

What are the only movements allowed through Block 14?

A

Towed aircraft and vehicles only.

51
Q

What are the rules associated with approving crossing through Block 14 on 26L?

A
  • No aircraft can be cleared to land when an aircraft or vehicle is in block 14
  • An undershoot crossing is not permitted when a ‘Heavy’ departs from M or a Code F Alpha
52
Q

What are the rules associated with approving crossing through Block 14 on 08R?

A
  • No aircraft can be cleared to land when an aircraft or vehicle is in block 14
  • No aircraft can depart 08R when an aircraft or vehicle is in block 14
  • ILS Arrivals cannot be within 15nm and on a heading that is closing or maintaining the 08R ILS centreline
  • ILS Arrivals cannot be established on the 08R localiser unless they continue visually
  • In LVPs, nothing can be in Block 14 when a departure is cleared for 08R takeoff until it is overhead the localiser
53
Q

An undershoot crossing of 26L is not permitted when which aircraft are departing?

A
  • ‘Heavy’ from Mike
  • Code F from Mike or Alpha
54
Q

Are emergency vehicles responding to an incident on the southern side allowed to use the undershoot?

A

Yes. Responding emergency vehicles may request to use the undershoot. AIR will initiate go-arounds where necessary to afford AFS priority.

Aircraft on an ILS to 08R outside 4nm without a landing clearance may continue approach providing they are warned of possible ILS fluctuations.

Aircraft on an ILS to 08R within 4nm without a landing clearance must either be requested to switch to a visual approach or be sent around before anything can use block 14.

55
Q

Can aircraft departing from 26L/08R be cleared for takeoff from anywhere on the airfield?

A

No. Aircraft departing from 26L/08R are not to be cleared for take-off until they are south of 26R/08L.

56
Q

If whilst on 08R the ASMGCS is unavailable and AIR is unable to see the thresholds, what action must be taken to ensure aircraft line up with the main?

A

A leader vehicle is to be positioned in the Juliet Pan.

57
Q

Which departures are subject to prior coordination with FIN?

A

WIZAD/TIGER/DAGGA SID
Non-Airways Departures (inc VFR)
NPR Deviation
First departure after a runway change
Departures from a previously closed runway
When required by INT/FIN

58
Q

When should AIR coordinate with the appropriate TC Sector?

A
  • Whenever the AIR controller intends to depart successive aircraft with less than the specified separation
  • Aircraft types not included in the speed group table unless MATS1 separation is applied
59
Q

What shall AIR coordinate with TC SE?

A

Release for destination London TMA Airports (EGLL, EGWU, EGKB, EGSS, EGGW, EGMC & EGLC)

60
Q

What shall AIR coordinate with TC South?

A

Release for Destination Farnborough and Wessex Group Airfields (EGLF, EGHL, EGLK, EGTD, EGTF, EGVO)

61
Q

With whom shall AIR coordinate weather avoidance?

A
  • The appropriate TC outbound sector
  • FIN/INT if it will potentially conflict with their traffic (eg 40deg south of the runway centreline)
62
Q

What separation is required before aircraft are transferred to TC South or INT/FIN?

A

3nm and 1000ft, maintained or increasing

63
Q

When can ‘5 miles in trail’ be used?

A
  • The ATM must be serviceable
  • Pease or LGW radar feed must be selected
  • Subject to wake vortex
    (Not on SAME routes OR Route 4 routes)
64
Q

When a faster aircraft follows a slower aircraft, how does the speed table affect the departure separation?

A

1 minute is added for each speed group

65
Q

When a slower aircraft follows a faster aircraft, how does this affect the departure separation?

A

Separation reduced to 1 minute provided that the following aircraft is 2 groups or more slower than the preceding aircraft.

66
Q

What separation must be applied between a departure to Heathrow/Northolt and a LAM, DVR, MIMFO, ODVIK or FRANE SID? (ie RTO)

A

3 minutes

67
Q

What is the wake turbulence requirement between two Heavy departures at Gatwick?

A

None. Gatwick has a CAA exemption where no wake turbulence separation is required instead of the 4nm or time equivalent stated in MATS Part 1.

68
Q

On 26L which pairs of holding points are considered as ‘same points’ for the purposes of departure separation?

A

Any pair of Mike, Alpha and Bravo
Also Bravo and Charlie

69
Q

On 08R which pairs of holding points are considered as ‘same points’ for the purposes of departure separation?

A

Any pair of Juliet, Golf and Hotel

70
Q

If the departure frequency differs from published, what action should the ATCO take?

A

The non-standard frequency is to be issued by the AIR controller prior to line up.

71
Q

Can a conditional line-up clearance be issued on aircraft at oblique holding points?

A

No. An aircraft cannot be instructed to line up behind another aircraft they cannot see.

72
Q

In accordance with instructions given in MATS Part 1, Section 2, Chapter 1, Paragraph 16, cancellation of a take-off clearance after an aircraft has started its take-off roll should only occur when the aircraft will be in serious and imminent danger should it continue. Why is this?

A

The risks associated with abandoning a take-off increase with speed, especially above 80kts, which is typically achieved by jet aircraft in 300m.

As a guide the distance between Alpha and Bravo is 200m; between Juliet and Hotel is 275m.

73
Q

What action must occur when an aircraft requests deviation from a SID (NPR) for example due to weather?

A

It must be co-ordinated with the relevant TC Sector, and if necessary FIN
It must be recorded on the NPR Deviation Report Form

74
Q

Can AIR take any action that may affect the separation on final approach?

A

No. AIR must coordinate with KK INT/FIN first.

75
Q

What is the minimum radar separation on final approach and it’s exceptions?

A

2.5nm

Except when
* Braking action is less than Good
* Runway is contaminanted
* AIR is unable to observe the runway or holding points visually/electronically

76
Q

Can RSVA be used as a subsitute for wake turbulence separation?

A

No.

77
Q

By which point must all landing aircraft be issued with a landing clearance?

A

Before they cross the start of the concrete (including ‘Land After’ or a conditional landing clearance)

78
Q

What are the requirements for a conditional landing clearance at EGKK?

A

SMOBDL

Separation
Main
Observe
Braking
Day
LVPS

Separation - ATCO can assess separation visually or by ATS surveillance system-derived information

Main - Runway 26L/08R is in use

Observe - Pilot of the next arriving aircraft will be able to observe the relevant traffic clearly and continuously

Braking - There is no evidence that the braking action may be adversely affected

Day - Daytime only

LVPs - LVPs must NOT be in force

Also, any Landing Clearance must be issued before the aircraft reaches the start of the concrete.

79
Q

What is the distance rule for issuing a conditional landing clearance to a landing aircraft following another landing aircraft?

A

By the time the aircraft crosses the threshold, the preceding landing aircraft will have vacated the runway or will be at least 2500m from the threshold (G1/B1)

80
Q

What is the distance rule for issuing a conditional landing clearance to a landing aircraft following a departing aircraft?

A

By the time the aircraft crosses the threshold, the departing aircraft will be airborne and at least 2000m (FR/CR) from the threshold or, if not airborne, will be at least 2500m (G1/B1) from the threshold.

81
Q

What is the distance rule for issuing a conditional landing clearance to a landing aircraft following another landing aircraft if they are both propeller aircraft with MTWA not exceeding 5700kg?

A

By the time the propeller aircraft crosses the threshold, the preceding landing propeller aircraft will have vacated the runway or will be at least 1500m from the threshold (ER/D)

82
Q

On 26L and 08R approximately where are the 1500m, 2000m and 2500m distance minima?

A

26L
1500m - ER
2000m - FR
2500m - G1

08R
1500m - D
2000m - CR
2500m - B1

83
Q

Can a conditional landing clearance be issued subject to a towed movement?

A

No

84
Q

What information should be passed to FIN in the event of a Missed Approach?

A
  • Callsign
  • Missed approach instructions
  • Whether the missed approach was initiated by the pilot or ATC
  • Any other relevant information (e.g. runway blocked)
85
Q

What actions must occur if an inbound aircraft diverts to Gatwick?

A
  • Details recorded in the ATC Watch Log
  • Arrival message sent via AFTN
86
Q

After what time is the AIR controller to inform the Sup if an off-airways inbound aircraft has not turned up?

A

30 minutes

87
Q

Below what met conditions must pilots intending to operate through the ATZ VFR be informed and instructed to specify the type of clearance required?

A

Ground Visibility less than 5km
Cloud Ceiling less than 1500ft

88
Q

Where are the two Gatwick VRPs?

A

North Terminal
Southern Maintenance Hangar

89
Q

What is the standard altitude that VFR aircraft will be routed to the VRPs at?

A

Not Above Altitude 1500ft

90
Q

Which are the squawks available to the AIR ATCO?

A

3764
3765
3766

91
Q

What instructions should the ATCO give to VFR Transit aircraft routing inbound to Redhill after crossing?

A

“Route to Buckland and freecall Redhill Tower 119.605”

92
Q

Can AIR permit an aircraft to fly within the Redhill LFA or buffer when Redhill are open?

A

No. AIR must co-ordinate with Redhill to allow VFR/SVFR aircraft into the Redhill LFA or Buffer.

93
Q

What is AIR to instruct all transit aircraft routing to the north after crossing?

A

“Remain 1nm clear of the Redhill LFA”

94
Q

How should a VFR/SVFR aircraft inbound to Gatwick be treated?

A
  • KK INT/FIN will provide a gap and advise AIR
  • Initially treated as a transit until transferred to the AIR controller
  • In the gap, AIR will clear the aircraft in for an approach with approropriate wake turbulence caution
  • AIR will NOT clear the aircraft to land until established on final, but clx must be given before the start of the concrete
95
Q

When should the runway and approach lighting for 26L/08R be displayed?

A
  • Night
  • Visibility is less than 5km
  • The cloud BASE is less than 700ft
96
Q

Should the RET lights be displayed at all times?

A

Yes when operating on 26L, to minimise the chance of aircraft taking disused RETs. Not necessarily on 08R.

97
Q

What runway edge brilliancy is required for the IRVR to work?

A

At least 10%.

98
Q

What are the Hazard Beacons and when are they required?

A
  • Lights situated on the high ground to the west of Gatwick
  • Required whenever high intensity approach lights are required.
99
Q

What colour are the lead-off lights within the LSA?

A

Alternate Yellow & Green

100
Q

What is the speed of a routine runway inspection?

A

40mph

101
Q

How many runs should a runway inspection be completed in?

A

Preferably 1, however, a maximum of 3 wherever possible.

102
Q

Can a vehicle be visually observed to have vacated?

A

No. A vehicle must report vacated.

103
Q

What must be done for the final section of a routine runway inspection to be run against the flow?

A
  • The vacating aircraft must be notified about the against-flow traffic inspection plan
  • The vacating aircraft clearly be established in the turn off the runway-centreline into the runway exit before the inspection vehicle is instructed to enter the runway
104
Q

When are mandatory runway inspections required?

A

Any Incident involving
* Tyre Failure
* Structural Failure
* Engine Malfunction
* Birds

105
Q

What actions should be taken in the event of a bird strike in the vicinity of the runway?

A

Request urgent runway inspection
Suspend departures
Inform pilots of arriving aircraft and ask if they are able to continue

If additional debris is suspected, suspend all runway movements

MATS Part 2 EGKK (14 decks)

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