AIR SYSTEMS Flashcards

Question

04 What is the emergency stopping distance?

Answer 1

1500ft on 2 engines, 1800 on 1 engine

Answer 2

24 ft. 5 in high 77 ft. 6 in long and has a wingspan of 85 ft.

Answer 3

4 Airstair door, mid-cabin emergency exit, forward cabin emergency exit, flight compartment hatch. Note the cargo door is not an emergency exit and can't be opened from inside.

Answer 4

It is charged from the pneumatic de-icing system and contains a reservoir sufficient to seal the door 4 times after engine shutdown. You must ensure the aircraft is de-pressurized before completely unlatching. And NEVER stand directly under the door when unlatching.

Answer 5

Main gear has disc brakes, anti-skid brake system and emergency/parking brake system

Answer 6

Gravity dropped, then hand-pumped in locked position.

Answer 7

6, 3 per side.

Answer 8

They provide positive tank venting

Answer 9

F-37 (JP8+100) | Freezes at -47

Answer 10

3 separate hydraulic systems No.1 engine driven No.2 engine driven Emergency hand driven system (hand operated from the cockpit and provides power for emergency landing gear extension)

Answer 11

"Air is bled off the compressors of the engines, for use in: Air Conditioning Pressurization Pneumatic De-icing Bleed air is also available from the APU"

Answer 12

Control panel is located on the overhead panel in the cockpit.

Answer 13

"Once engines are running, bleed air is selected on, and flight compartment, cabin, cargo compartment, and underfloor are sealed. "

Answer 14

"Bleed air is used to de-ice the leading edges of the: wings nacelle intakes horizontal stabilizer vertical stabilizer "

Answer 15

As a student, never reset a CB, inform instructor or pilot.

Answer 16

The right wing. (Port wine is red, red i on the left/port side.)

Answer 17

White, 600 Watt quartz-halogen sealed beam lights

Answer 18

*Airstair Door: And a light to illuminate the entrance *Baggage Compartment: There are lights in the baggage compartment which come on with the switch, or when the baggage door is unlocked. *Cabin Aisle: Four incandescent lights to illuminate the cabin aisle. "*Cabin Overhead: There are five panels of fluorescent lights to illuminate the cabin *Crew Rest Area: Two incandescent lights to illuminate the crew rest area. *Galley Counter: There is an incandescent light over the galley counter. *Galley Overhead: And one over the galley area. *Lavatory Incandescent: The switch for the lavatory lights illuminates the incandescent light, and arms the fluorescent light. *Lavatory Fluorescent: This light comes on when the door is locked. *Wardrobe Overhead: Another light overhead the wardrobe area. *Workstations: There is an array of lighting available at the individual workstations which you will see on your static visit.

Answer 19

115Vac variable

Answer 20

"Prop Blades * Pitot Tubes Static Ports Stall warning transducers Engine intakes Windshields Pilot’s side window Elevator horns *NOTE: Because these can be turned on at the pilot’s discretion, they are considered in the AODs as part of the De-Icing System as well."

Answer 21

"Air Speed Indicator (ASI) Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) Air Data Computer Standby Barometric Altimeter"

Answer 22

"Air Speed Indicator (ASI) DADC"

Answer 23

"Located on the leading edge of each wing Measures the angle of attack"

Answer 24

an electronic device used for the detection and location of objects

Answer 25

RADIO DETECTION AND RANGING

Answer 26

Map Reading & navigation Weather Detection and Avoidance Traffic Detection and Avoidance Altitude (Radalt) Groundspeed and Drift (Doppler) Guidance Systems (homing RADAR on missiles) Target Detection and Homing

Answer 27

Short, strong bursts of radio energy (pulses). Energy is reflected back to the receiver (echo). Time it takes the energy to return can be converted to distance.

Answer 28

Range – due to spreading, return signal may be too weak to be detected by receiving antenna Size – large targets more likely to be detected, small targets may be filtered out, depending on RADAR Shape – right angled objects more conducive to reflecting signal back to receiver Reflecting characteristics – some compounds reflect more readily than others, entire branch of military research is dedicated to researching and developing military assets that generate the least possible RADAR return.

Answer 29

one that reaches peak power very quickly (sharp leading edge), maintains that power throughout the pulse (flat top) and ends abruptly (sharp trailing edge).

Answer 30

sloped trailing edge, sloped leading edge

Answer 31

Sloped tops

Answer 32

To achieve the accuracy the set was designed for, the pulse must have a sharp leading edge. This allows an accurate start of the timing to measure the pulse, and thus, the target's distance

Answer 33

Increase airspeed Increase the camber of the aerofoil

Answer 34

the curvature of an aerofoil or its surface

Answer 35

Fuel is fed into some kind of “engine” where, in burning, its’ chemical energy is changed into thermal energy which is converted into the mechanical work done in propelling the aircraft against the drag.

Answer 36

Turbo-prop

Answer 37

Ram-Jet. Turbo-Jet. Turbo-Fan. Engine/Propeller Combination.

Answer 38

In the free-turbine system, the propeller is connected to what is referred to as a power turbine which “floats” in the high pressure exhaust gases in the turbine section.

Answer 39

Difficult to make propellers work well at high speeds, because of: Rotational speeds Supersonic flow at the blade tips

Answer 40

Coarse Pitch Fine Pitch

Answer 41

Distance in feet a propeller travels forward in one revolution. Angle at which the blade is set governs the pitch

Answer 42

Blade set at a large angle, therefore the blade will travel a greater distance forward per revolution Best suited for high speed cruise develops high cruising speeds at low engine RPM gives good cruise performance and fuel economy

Answer 43

Propeller will revolve at higher speed around its own axis, thereby enabling the engine to develop greater power Best performance during takeoff and landing good take-off and climb performance inefficient both in speed and fuel economy in cruise

Answer 44

Mechanical Hydraulic Electrical

Answer 45

To convert the rotational force (Torque) produced by the engine into a forward push or pull, called thrust, for forward speed.

Answer 46

Designed to move forward in a corkscrew motion. Pushes air backward to create thrust in the opposite direction. Propeller blade cross-section is similar to an airfoil or wing. As it rotates, it produces lift and drag. Forces are designated as thrust and torque

Answer 47

small, large

Answer 48

= PLAN/33000 P = Mean Pressure in lbs. per square inch (psi) L = Length of the stroke in feet A = Area of the piston in square inches N = Number of power strokes per minute 33000 = 1 Horsepower = amount of work to raise 33000 lbs. 1 foot in 1 minute

Answer 49

*Target range, size, shape and reflecting characteristics. *Pulse shape, width and repetition frequency. *Radar power output and receiver sensitivity.

Answer 50

reduce altitude, reduce GAIN. If the dash 8 radar is operated in Linear (degraded) mode, then gain must be manually manipulated. raise antenna tilt, and select sea mode; the Dash‑8 has an automatic sea switch that optimizes return for sea surface.

Answer 51

Ships and boats on the water will look similar to small islands on the radar. Careful use of the topo is required to avoid confusion. Strength of return will vary depending on the composition of the vessel (metal or concrete hull will provide much stronger returns than wooden boats). Sea state will have strong influence on the range at which targets can be detected.

Answer 52

Rivers, if they are wide, will show up dark. The far shore of a river or lake will appear much brighter than the near shore. Narrow rivers may be identified solely by the bright return from the far bank. During the winter, ice may cause clutter on the returns from lakes and rivers but the outlines should be easily identifiable.

Answer 53

Mountains block off the radar echoes and cause a mountain shadow. The shape of this area will change as the aircraft moves past the mountain. The near edge will appear brighter than far edge.

Answer 54

*Buildings are very good reflectors due to their shape and the materials they are made of. *Towns often lined up N-S/E-W creating cardinal effect.

Answer 55

*target size and shape *target composition

Answer 56

Metal, concrete, rock, wood, earth, water, ice

Answer 57

POWER and PRF SPOT SIZE (the resolution of your display) PULSE WIDTH (1 microsecond = 328 yds) (Range Resolution) BEAM WIDTH (Azimuth Resolution) COMBINED ERRORS

Answer 58

1.Check Range Selection count markers and multiply marker value measure to leading edge of target be aware of slant range less than 10 nm at 24,000’ will result in 1 nm or greater error (we want ground range) 2.The TMT cursor will provide range to target in nm, it is controlled by the trackball and is displayed at the bottom left of the RADAR display

Answer 59

31000 lbs.

Answer 60

*The radar “sees” water droplets. *The intensity of the radar return depends on the size of the droplets and their concentration. *The larger the droplet and the greater the concentration, the more intense the return. *Close relationship between turbulence and rain gradient (rain shear). *The greater the change in water content, the more severe the turbulence.

Answer 61

*Beginning of mature stage of thunderstorm when turbulence greatest. *Strong updrafts and downdrafts with rapid changes in wind direction occur. *Depicted on radar scope as sharp edged echo rather than fuzzy one.

Answer 62

*While ice may be a good material for reflection, the shape of hail, density, intensity may give varying levels of returns.

Answer 63

*Edges of the weather return resembling pointed fingers, or hooks may indicate hail, or even tornadoes. *Scalloped edges or rapidly changing edges indicate a developing storm and should be avoided by greater distances.

Answer 64

*5 nm when flying below the freezing level, *10 nm when flying above the freezing level, and *20 nm if flying above 30,000 ft.

Answer 65

Weather (WX) or weather contour (CTR)

Answer 66

*orients display to line of sight (LOS) and sector offset *provides signal processing to show areas of strongest returns within a cell

Answer 67

*Suppresses areas of high precipitation in the display to give a brightly outlined weather display

Answer 68

*For best results, the antenna tilt should be adjusted to a point just above the reception of ground clutter to avoid confusing ground and weather returns. *Radar range should also be adjusted frequently between short to longer ranges to avoid flying into a blind alley.

Answer 69

#1 System (WAIRM) Wing Flaps Anti-skid control valve Inboard roll spoilers Rudder actuator (lower) Main Wheel Brakes

Answer 70

#2 System (LONER) Landing gear Outboard roll spoilers Nose wheel steering Emergency/Park brake Rudder actuator (upper)

Answer 71

electrically driven standby pump

Answer 72

28V DC 1500 AMP

Answer 73

left side of the nose of the aircraft

Answer 74

You always want the battery to be less than the system it is connected to because the output voltage of your generators will fluctuate, and you don’t want the batteries being used unless it is necessary. E.g.. Resort to batteries only if the normal system has failed, not when it is fluctuating normally because of system load….which could be, for example, between 25-29.5 Volts for a 28 V system

Answer 75

generates electrical current through the movement (generally spinning) of either wires through a magnetic field or a magnet near a fixed coil of wires.

Answer 76

the opposite of a generator. Uses current to generate a magnetic field which spins a magnet.

Answer 77

direct current; current that is always moving in the same direction along the wire. (can be fluctuating)

Answer 78

alternating current ; current that changes direction along the wire. (must be fluctuating)

Answer 79

electrical pressure. A measure of the pressure under which electricity flows.

Answer 80

either steps-up (increases) or steps-down (decreases) a given voltage (does not change frequency of AC and cannot change AC to DC or vice versa)

Answer 81

converts DC into AC

Answer 82

converts AC into DC

Answer 83

Located behind the rear pressure bulkhead in the fuselage of the aircraft.

Answer 84

3 for avionics 3 for the search radar 3 NTS inverters

Answer 85

DC – can use the acronym BETS Batteries x 2 24 Volt DC External DC 28 Volt DC cart TRUs x 2 converts 115 Volt AC to 28 Volt DC Starter/Generators x 2 28 Volt DC

Answer 86

AC – can use the acronym GEIA Generators x 2 115 Volt AC External AC 115 Volt AC cart Inverters x 9 converts 28 Volt DC to 115 Volt AC APU x 1 115 Volt AC

Answer 87

a box, tying or breaking of circuits if a loss is detected or a short circuit occurs. This prevents damage to the electrical system.

Answer 88

The AC is on the ground There is no recent history of reported defects with the system or related systems or other evidence of anomalies. There is no other evidence of anomalies with the affected systems; and If a circuit breaker is reset, a record of this action must be made.

Answer 89

The pilot pitot head is located on the port side of the fuselage and supplies the pilot airspeed indicator and the No. 1 DADC The co-pilot pitot head is located on the starboard side of the fuselage and supplies the co-pilot airspeed indicator and the No. 2 DADC

Answer 90

The static heads are located forward and above the pitot heads flush on each side of the nose. Unlike the pitot heads which measure the pressure of the moving air, static ports measure the “still” air pressure (hence their name

Answer 91

*14x42-inch flat plate planar array. *360 degrees rotation capability. *Pitch, roll and hdg from IRU are sent to the Antenna to ensure the Antenna rotational plane remains stationary with changes of AC attitude, up to 20° from horizontal. *Manual Tilt control +/-16°.

Answer 92

The RF energy from the receiver/transmitter is sent to the antenna through a waveguide flange to a waveguide rotary joint in the pedestal and is sent through rigid and flexible plumbing for radiation. Located in the nose (through upper left nose equipment panel). Pressurizes the waveguide and R/T with nitrogen to prevent condensation and arcing at high altitude.*

Answer 93

There are three separate inverters located in the aircraft's nose which provide power for the radar only. These are accessible from the access panel on the Starboard side of the aircraft. The radar power switch is located on the co‑pilot's side console. The radar inverter power switch allows the three radar inverters to power up and supply radar system with 115 V AC Allows inverter DC source from either L Main or R Sec DC bus Besides the three circuit-breakers in the cockpit, there are two 90 amp CB's on the DC contactor panel in the radome. These supply the DC power required by the Radar inverters (only one or other is used dependent on position of inverter switch)

Answer 94

The transmitter generates a RF signal and the receiver processes the returned RF signals for conversion to a video signal. The R/T isolates and monitors faults and key radar parameters. The transmitter frequency is 9310 to 9375 MHz. It has an 80 KW minimum peak signal and 100 KW is typical. The receiver rejects USB. The R/T is located in nose. The waveguide is the conduit that transports the EM wave from the amplifier to the antenna. Due to the high power output of the amplifier (100 Kilo Watts!), the waveguide needs to be pressurized to prevent arcing.

Answer 95

*Power Supply – NTSC power supply (DC pwr) *Navigation Training System Computer (NTSC) *Remote Radar Interface Unit (RRIU) *Synchronizer Processor Converter Unit (SPCU)

Answer 96

* The NTSC is the heart of the NTS. It interfaces with the radar via RRIU and it processes all video data.

Answer 97

*The Remote Radar Interface Unit (RRIU) interfaces the ATS computer with the search radar via a full duplex RS-422 data link. This interface allows the radar to be controlled by operator inputs through an emulated CDU. The RRIU also interfaces the radar with the PCU, allowing pilot-control of the radar when the NTS is not selected

Answer 98

*Synchronizer Processor Converter Unit (SPCU): *Provide overall radar system timing and control, video/signal processing and radar scan conversion. *Supplies the transmitter with command and control signals. *Receives radar video inputs from the receiver. *Contains control/sync circuitry, video signal processing circuitry, and scan converter circuitry.

Answer 99

The 3, 6, 12, 25 mile ranges are narrow pulse, high pulse repetition frequency (PRF) for good target definition and range resolution; 100 and 200 nm are wide pulse, low PRF for long range detection.

Answer 100

50nm narrow pulse, high PRF is for target definition and good target detection at close range by providing more target returns per scan. 50nm wide pulse, low PRF keeps the average power high, provides the time needed to receive returns at longer ranges improving long range target detection capabilities.

Answer 101

3 nm to 50 nm NP = 30 RPM 50 nm WP to 100 nm = 12 RPM 200 nm = 7.5 RPM

Answer 102

This is an indication that the radar SPCU is overheating. The radar system has to be switched off via the radar power switch located on the co-pilot's side panel to prevent any further damage to the radar system. Open the computer cabinet and inspect for smoke or fire.

Answer 103

greater,greater

Answer 104

Provides timing for the entire system. Generates Pulse Repetition Frequency (PRF) and display range markers. Triggers the modulator to release energy. May be a separate unit by itself or it may be included in the transmitter.

Answer 105

Stores energy between pulses. Determines the waveform of the output pulse (shape). Releases pulses of energy when directed by the synchronizer.

Answer 106

Provides RF energy at an extremely high power in very short pulses. Carrier frequency must be extremely high to get many cycles into the short pulse. Power is carried to the antenna by coaxial cable or a waveguide.

Answer 107

Highly directional, usually rotated or moved back and forth between two positions. Normally a rotating planar array which transmits and receives RF energy. Switching device (duplexer) is used to alternate between transmitting and receiving.

Answer 108

Very sensitive super-heterodyne receiver. Superheterodyne receivers reduce the signal frequency by mixing in a signal from a local oscillator to produce the intermediate frequency (IF). This allows better signal isolation (less noise and spurious returns/info) Accepts signals from 1 to 10 MHz. Detects and amplifies weak RF echoes. Changes echoes to video and sends a signal to the indicator.

Answer 109

Visually presents all necessary information to locate the target on the screen. Method of presenting the data, often referred to as a type of scan, depends on the RADAR’s purpose.

Answer 110

‘A’ Scan ‘B’ Scan ‘C’ Scan ‘J’ Scan ‘E’ Scan Plan Position Indicator (PPI) Scan

Answer 111

Mainly used to determine range but rough direction can be obtained by rotating antenna until maximum echo is received is obtained. The pulse travels from left to right across the indicator and Vertical deflections from transmitter pulse represent target returns.

Answer 112

Used to determine range and bearing as well as determine target size. The bearing and range of reflective objects are presented as abscissa and ordinate, respectively.

Answer 113

The echo appears as a bright spot with the azimuth angles as the horizontal coordinates and the elevation angle as the vertical coordinates. Has been used by night fighters to help follow enemy aircraft.

Answer 114

Modification of the A Scan, in which the spot rotates in a circle near the edge of the CRT face. An echo appears as a deflection from the circle. As the distance changes, the deflection moves around the circle like the pointer of the aneroid altimeter. Normally used for radar altimeter

Answer 115

Modification of the B Scan, echo appears as a bright spot with the range as the horizontal coordinates and elevation as vertical. Normally used for precision approach radar (PAR), where A/C must follow a certain angular line to reach the touch-down point on the left of the screen.

Answer 116

Provides range and bearing info Most common for navigation radar Provides a map like picture

Answer 117

The antenna generally is rotated uniformly about the vertical axis so that the searching is accomplished in a horizontal plane. The beam is usually narrow in azimuth and broad in elevation, and large numbers of pulses are transmitted for each rotation of the antenna. When an echo is received, the intensity of the spot is increased, and a bright spot remains at that point on the screen even after the scanning spot has passed. Thus it is possible to produce a map.

Answer 118

2; one in the cockpit and one in the aft cabin

Answer 119

Pilot system Nav trainer system Fire Fighting Portable system

Answer 120

Rack CBs, NTS server, NTS power supply, RRIU, SPCU, Nav Interface Module (NIM)

Answer 121

3 crew O2 bottles, #1 is located behind the copilot on the floor. The second is stored in the emergency equipment stowage compartment by the airstair door. The third system is located next to the baggage compartment door on the front of the aft bulkhead

Answer 122

Max pressure 1800 psi (1248 L) 6 crew: 60 min/person O2 diluted setting 10 min/person O2 100% setting Min dispatch 1300 psi 6 crew: 41 min/person O2 diluted setting 7 min/person O2 100% setting

Answer 123

a pressure demand regulator quick don oxygen mask smoke goggles

Answer 124

Max pressure 1800 PSI. Min 1800 PSI !! Demand or pressure breathing at 55psi at mask Approximately 15 min (310 L) O2 @ 100%

Answer 125

-Max dispatch 1800 psi (987 litres) 2 crew: 140 min/person O2 diluted setting 25 min/person O2 100% setting 3 crew: 90 min/person O2 diluted setting 16 min/person O2 100% setting -Min dispatch 1300 psi (2 crew) 1800 psi (3 crew) 2 crew: 98 min/person O2 diluted setting 17 min/person O2 100% setting

Answer 126

Green Bar is illuminated at the HF control switch.

Answer 127

Reduces background noise / full clockwise.

Answer 128

Press the STO button.

Answer 129

AM. 118.00 to 151.975 MHz

Answer 130

4 2x VHF, 1x UHF, 1xHF

Answer 131

225.000-399.975 MHz, divided into 25 KHz steps.

Answer 132

Audio Control Panel Headset with PTT (press to talk) switch PTT switch mount on the footrest

Answer 133

Control transmission and reception on external radios. Communicate internally on different interphone conferences (ICS - INT, PRI 1, PRI 2). Monitor the aircraft navigation receivers (VOR/ADF). Access the passenger address (PA).

Answer 134

PRI1 , PRI2, and INT INT is available to all positions PRI1 is only available to the pilots, flight engineer, I1, I2, and rest areas. There are two PRI2 conferences allowing each instructor to communicate with their students. Crew at the rest area can select which PRI2 to listen to.

Answer 135

King KHF 950 HF radio Radio control panels -----Located at each student consoles, instructor consoles, and centre console of the flight compartment. Transceiver (Transmitter/Receiver) -----Located in the avionics rack Antenna -----Located in the leading edge of the vertical stabilizer

Answer 136

Frequency Coverage: 2.0 – 29.999 MHz

Answer 137

Take control of HF radio Adjust volume and squelch Set desired frequency – push freq selector knob Rotate freq selector knob until desired digit displayed Push freq selector knob again to switch to next number you wish to change Once desired freq is displayed, select HF on ICS panel, key mic once and wait until “TX” stops flashing (approx 5 sec) Once flashing stops, transmit message

Answer 138

Change the volume setting, put it back to mid range and try again. Recycle Power (Off/On) Have another station take control of the HF, then take control back. Have pilots take control of the HF, then take it back after 1-2 min.

Answer 139

SELECTIVE CALLING When the ground station transmits this code, a light on the SELCAL control panel (located on the centre console) will flash and the crew will get a tone in their headset. This enables you to monitor an HF radio without having to listen to static, or chatter that does not concern your aircraft (e.g. trans-oceanic flights).

Answer 140

Two CDUs, one per radio (VHF1/2), located in the centre console of the flight deck Transceivers for both are located in the avionics rack (in the wardrobe) Antenna Pilots can tune 2 frequencies, one active, one standby

Answer 141

Amplitude modulation (AM) Frequency range: 118.000 to 151.975 MHz Spacing of channels: 25 kHz Line of sight operation (LOS) Low power (not more than 26 watts) Quiet, static free communication Not affected by weather Memory for 9 preset channels Capable of Direction Finding (DF) – Ref AOD Sec 21.1.9

Answer 142

(AM) Amplitude Modulation Frequency range - 225.000 to 399.975 MHz (in 25 KHz steps) Memory for 20 preset channels 28 volt DC Line of sight (LOS) operation Quiet, static free communication Not affected by weather Capable of Direction Finding (DF) – Ref AOD Sec 21.1.9

Answer 143

2 Transceivers – located in cockpit on the centre pedestal, aft of the power levers. 1 main transceiver (for transmission and reception), and 1 Guard receiver (for reception only on 243.000 MHz). 1 Control Head – co-located with transceivers on centre pedestal. Antenna

Answer 144

A navigation aid that uses a computer and motion sensors (accelerometers) to continuously calculate via dead reckoning the position, orientation, and velocity (direction and speed of movement) of a moving object without the need for external references.

Answer 145

Accelerometers Computers Stable platform Control and Display Unit

Answer 146

A basic device for measuring acceleration

Answer 147

Light is used to measure angular rates of motion. A physical interference is created within a RLG using 2 lasers in a common cavity The lasers are fired simultaneously and travel in opposite directions around the cavity but on separate paths (i.e. no interference between beams).

Answer 148

If the RLG is stationary, then the beams should complete the trip around the block in the same time since the optical path for both lasers is the same. The phase relationship between the two beams at the detector (i.e. after beam travel) will be identical to that emitted initially.

Answer 149

The detector will observe an identical interference pattern to that emitted. If, however, there exists angular or azimuthal displacement (rotation) the optical path lengths will be unequal. This simply implies a time difference between the beams for the trip, which can be measured by phase difference and a changing interference pattern.

Answer 150

-3 or 4 mirrors -Anodes and cathodes -a prism -photocell detectors -dither motor -optical paths for laser beams -inert gas

Answer 151

One error which degrades the performance of the RLG is differential path length: Temperature differences between CERVIT cavities of even a fraction of a degree Celsius creates a time/phase difference. Eliminated by using one CERVIT Cavity for both lasers.

Answer 152

A second error that can degrade the RLG is lock in: Non perfect optics within the cavity and mirrors will cause a certain amount of back-scattering. Back-scattered energy will tend to reinforce the beam energy traveling in opposite direction. At low rates of rotation, frequencies are combined, producing a dead zone. This would lead to drift rates of 40 to 50 degrees per hour if left undetected.

Answer 153

Via Mechanical Bias (dithering) -Vibration of the RLG -Any error created by the dithering motion is averaged out and eliminated -dithering will cause two extremes every cycle but the average (right down the middle from both extremes) is the end result while preventing lock in

Answer 154

-Much improved accuracy. -Higher mission completion rate as sensors may be used independently.

Answer 155

-Loss of complete self-containment -Loss of covertness, dependence on external radiation

Answer 156

-Ground referenced hybrid system -GPS-INS hybrid -Doppler-INS hybrid -Celestial-INS hybrid

Answer 157

Low threshold of sensitivity. Wide range of sensitivity. Linear output. High resolution.

Answer 158

In the local level system this means bringing the X and Y accelerometers to a condition where no component of gravity is sensed

Answer 159

True North.

Answer 160

-2 initial position coordinates -LAT/LONG -2 initial velocities - N & E -3 initial orientations - X,Y, and Z gyros -3 orientation rates

Answer 161

-Self Alignment (most popular method -Reference alignment (involving external data source) -Moving alignment (carrier-based aircraft) -In-Flight alignment (ability to align airborne)

Answer 162

-Warm-up – no moving parts for strapdown system, alignment performed by the computer based on inputs from accelerometers and RLGs -Coarse Levelling – accelerometer readings determine initial aircraft attitude -Coarse (azimuth) Alignment -Fine Levelling -Fine Alignment AKA Gyro Compassing

Answer 163

-Inability to accurately resolve True North (issue at latitudes above 70 degrees) -undetectable tilt (prevents initiation of gyro compassing)

Answer 164

-Unbounded errors increase with time. -Bounded errors oscillate about a mean value with time. Bounded errors dominate first, then unbounded errors introduce the greatest errors.

Answer 165

-Initial levelling (platform tilt-computer error) -Accelerometers (acceleration errors) -First integrator errors (velocity errors)

Answer 166

84.4 minutes.

Answer 167

-Levelling gyro drift (produces the largest single error source within an INS) -Initial azimuth misalignment (operator input) -Azimuth gyro drift (Second largest source of total error)

Answer 168

-Inertial Reference Unit (IRU) -Mode Selector Unit (MSU)

Answer 169

-The IRU contains an inertial sensor assembly, microprocessors, power supplies, and aircraft electronic interfaces. -Located under the centre floor of the crew compartment. -Housed on a rack that also serves as the electrical and mechanical interface between the IRU and the aircraft.

Answer 170

-The MSU provides inertial mode selection, status indication, and remote test initiation. -Located in the flight deck centre console.

Answer 171

-The Honeywell IRS is a strap-down, Schuler-tuned inertial reference system that senses movement and attitude through the output of inertial sensors. -Accelerometers and ring laser gyros in the inertial sensor assembly measure accelerations and angular rates of the aircraft. -The microprocessors perform the computations required to provide parameters for the flight control and display instruments.

Answer 172

The IRU receives AC and DC power from the aircraft, and provides switching to primary AC or secondary DC.

Answer 173

-The IRU requires a cooling air supply. Cool air is supplied via the aircraft air conditioning system or the AC/DC blower kits. -A loss of cool air will necessitate shutting off the IRU after a specified time.

Answer 174

-Off -Nav -Align -Attitude

Answer 175

-The IRU aligns its reference axes to the local vertical and computes heading and latitude by measuring horizontal earth rate components. -Completes alignment in a minimum of 2.5 minutes at the equator and a maximum of 10 minutes at 60° to 70° latitude. -At latitudes above 70° additional alignment time may be required.

Answer 176

-In the Nav mode, the IRU supplies inertial position reference for the aircraft and provides outputs via the FMS: Aircraft attitude Body rates Body accelerations True heading Velocity vectors Wind data (requires TAS from DADC) Latitude and Longitude Inertial altitude -The IRS uses the latitude and longitude entered during the Align mode as the starting point for positional computations

Answer 177

-Once rapid levelling has been completed provides valid outputs of : body axis accelerations, attitude rates and angles, vertical velocity, and inertial attitude. -No navigation outputs are provided! -Should be selected in the air under two conditions: When the MSU fault enunciator illuminates, (indicates critical fault & all outputs invalid) After the IRS has temporarily lost all power

Answer 178

-Operator must enter present position via the FMS. -IRU conducts a reasonability test of new position: compares with previous position at last shutdown. -If new position > 1° of the stored value, test is failed. -A correct position may fail test if: new IRU has been installed, aircraft has been moved since last shutdown. -Entering identical co-ordinates twice will override the test.

Answer 179

-Entered latitude must pass system performance test at end of alignment phase. -Latitude entered must be within 30 min of arc of the latitude computed by the IRU during alignment. -If the entered latitude passes the system performance test, alignment is complete and it allows entry into the Nav mode.

Answer 180

Information is fed from the IRU directly to the ATS. The ATS maintains a data base of inertial information, including: True heading True track angle (TMG) Present latitude and longitude Inertial groundspeed Wind velocity (speed and direction) System status

Answer 181

-Standard aircraft IRU operation -IRU data to pilots through FMS -IRU data to Navs through ATS via FMS -Data presented and manipulated in an “Emulated INS”

Answer 182

Light indicates a system malfunction that prevents alignment or when an incorrect latitude (>0.5 degrees) has been inserted by the operator

Answer 183

-Manual -Auto -Remote

Answer 184

Light flashes yellow when the aircraft is 90 seconds from waypoint capture and stops flashing upon waypoint capture.

Answer 185

If this was a real INS, this light would indicate that there is an INS power supply problem. The ATS INS is emulated, so this is not functional.

Answer 186

Navigation and Attitude.

Answer 187

The aircraft IRU.

Answer 188

An abbreviation for Automatic Direction Finding, which is a system in the aircraft.

Answer 189

An ADF receiver, antennae and a bearing indicator (RMI = Remote Magnetic Indicator).

Answer 190

Non-Directional Beacons (NDBs)

Answer 191

-Low/medium frequency radio receiver with directional and fixed antennas. -Receive signals from navigation beacons and commercial radio stations. -Indicates continuous COMPASS bearings to a transmitter which are indicated on a RMI.

Answer 192

-Readings must be corrected for aircraft variation and deviation to give TRUE bearings. -In order to use an ADF true bearing, a protractor must be aligned to the local North of the aircraft. -Subject to interference from atmospheric noise and thunderstorms due to the frequency band.

Answer 193

-The ground wave may be contaminated by sky-waves. -Aircraft electrical fields and structure can also cause interference. -Accuracy: ± 3° is the 402 Sqn accepted standard error (± 30° under poor conditions). -Range: up to 200nm (200kHz) - 50nm (1600kHz) decreases at night (sky-wave contamination).

Answer 194

-Radio compass receiver - avionics rack -Control display unit: #1 pilot side, center avionics pedestal #2 co-pilot side, center avionics pedestal -Antenna assembly - underside of fuselage just forward of main gear -Bearing indicators: pilot, co-pilot, ACSO consoles

Answer 195

190.0 - 1799.0 kHz.

Answer 196

-The ADF needle indicates the relative bearing of the transmitter. The RMI compass rose enables indication of compass bearing to the station. -Receiver audio is sent to the audio integration system. -Absent or muted audio indicates that the selected frequency is too weak for dependable navigation, or that FMS is in Aux Mode.

Answer 197

-Measures the phase difference between two radio signals -Provides radials in degrees oriented to Magnetic, True or Grid North -Frequency range: VHF: 108.00 MHz - 117.95MHz with 50 KHz spacing ILS freqs: 108.10 - 111.95 Localizer (VHF) 330.95 - 334.70 Glideslope (UHF)

Answer 198

-Equipment on the aircraft receives two 30 Hz signals from a VOR ground station. -Measures phase difference between them. -Converts phase difference to a radial which is displayed on a Remote Magnetic Indicator (RMI).

Answer 199

To plot a VOR, the radial is plotted from the VOR with a protractor aligned to the station North (must be found in GPH 205).

Answer 200

VORs are normally aligned to magnetic north in Southern Domestic Airspace and true north in Northern Domestic Airspace.

Answer 201

Very High Frequency Omni-Directional Range (range meaning area not distance).

Answer 202

-Theoretical accuracy ± 2° - 5° -accepted 402 Sqn accuracy ± 2.5°

Answer 203

-Line of sight -Affected by a variety of site effects echoes from hills, buildings magnetic anomalies -80° cone of confusion

Answer 204

Tactical Air Navigation.

Answer 205

-Military, line of sight radio navigation aid -Continuous range and bearing information -Theoretically more accurate than either VOR & ADF

Answer 206

-TACAN operation can be broken down into two parts: Radial (azimuth) calculation DME (distance) calculation -Radial calculation is different than either ADF or VOR methods. -DME calculation is similar to radar ranging (e.g. time the signal takes to go out and back equates to a distance).

Answer 207

-Distance measuring equipment (DME) obtains slant range from the ground station by using an interrogation-response technique. -The airborne equipment calculates range by sending an interrogation pulse and waiting for a reply from the ground station. -The time interval between the interrogation and the response is converted to range.

Answer 208

-Range line of sight (UHF); -Maximum of 252 channels, consists of 126 mode X and 126 mode Y channels. -A cone of confusion can vary from 60º-110º across depending on the ground site; -Bearing accuracy ±3/4; and. -DME is slant range, accurate ±1 nm. -TACANs are normally aligned to magnetic north in Southern Domestic Airspace and true north in Northern Domestic Airspace

Answer 209

-The TACAN antenna is located on the lower forward fuselage; -The TACAN system is located in the secondary avionics rack; and -The NAV/TAC controller located on the Pilot’s side of the glare shield panel.

Answer 210

The needle parks at the 3/9 o’clock position.

Answer 211

-If you tell the pilot to tune up a TACAN channel, the bearing and distance information will be seen. -If you have the pilot tune up a DME channel (from a VOR/DME station) only the distance will be given, no bearing information will be available.

Answer 212

You apply drift for tracking.

Answer 213

Identification and altitude.

Answer 214

Military; 2 digit ident code selected on control unit

Answer 215

Military; 4 digit ident code selected on R/T

Answer 216

Military; Legacy encrypted challenge and reply code

Answer 217

Military; New cryptographically secured challenge and reply code (NOTE: Canada does not have this one)

Answer 218

Civilian; 4 digit ident (squawk code)

Answer 219

Civilian; 4 digit code and pressure altitude from DADC system (squawk code + altitude)

Answer 220

Civilian; 4 digit code and pressure altitude and other pertinent info (squawk code + altitude + requested info)

Answer 221

Operate designated four-digit code ( dial in code)

Answer 222

Engage transponder ident feature (press ident)

Answer 223

Aircraft data not displayed as expected, re-enter the code

Answer 224

Aircraft tagged and tracked

Answer 225

Aircraft no longer under SSR coverage, resume normal position reports

Answer 226

-7500 Hijack -7600 Comm Failure -7700 Emergencies

Answer 227

The Collins TDR-94/94D transponder. Used for missions operated under civil ATC only.

Answer 228

-ATC squawk codes; -modes of operation; -self-test operation; -annunciators; and -self-test diagnostics

Answer 229

-16 million codes - each aircraft has its own unique signature -Can provide ATC with additional requested data from FMS (hdg, speed, etc.) -Can provide DATA LINK -DATA LINK: clearances and routing weather and maps aircrew can acknowledge by the push of a button required in Europe and soon N.A. (civilian) -Integral component of TCAS

Answer 230

-Mode 3/A and C -Mode 1, 2 and 4 Provides military controllers with positive ID of friendly aircraft Codes change as often as operations dictate

Answer 231

-Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) also known as ACAS -ACAS manufactured in the US is called TRAFFIC ALERT AND COLLISION AVOIDANCE SYSTEM (TCAS) -TCAS equipped aircraft interrogate other aircraft with at least mode A (mode A will have bearing only, no altitude) -Directs pilots to take corrective action without the input of ATC

Answer 232

-Requires other aircraft to have at least a Mode C transponder -If the IFF system is selected, the TCAS system will not be operational as the Mode S is put into standby mode -TCAS control panel and the corresponding TCAS display is integrated with the Vertical Speed Indicator -TCAS commanded avoidance maneuvers will most often involve a climb or descent

Answer 233

-Pulse is transmitted from aircraft to ground and is reflected back -Time taken to complete cycle is measured -Time converted to a distance = height -Absolute Altitude displayed in feet -Does not contain temperature and density errors unlike pressure altimeter

Answer 234

-Receiver/transmitter -Indicator -Antenna system most systems have two antennas allows for continuous transmission/ reception

Answer 235

-Operating range - 0 - 2500 feet -Flight Deck: displayed on Electronic Attitude Director Indicators (EADIs) 0 - 2500 feet 10 foot increments above 200 feet, 5 foot increments below 200 feet -Nav Consoles: displayed on Altimeter 0 - 2500 feet 10 foot increments

Answer 236

-Provides a visual, and synthesized aural voice annunciation -GPWS is active whenever aircraft electrical system is powered (i.e. automatic)

Answer 237

-a computer unit (avionics rack) -cockpit speaker and variable attenuator -left and right side PULL UP/GPWS TEST -switch lights (glareshield) -left and right side BELOW G/S (Glide Slope) -cancel switch lights (glareshield) -GPWS flap override switch (pilot side console) -the GPWS fail light (master caution panel)

Answer 238

-Excessive Sink Rate -illumination of PULL UP GPWS TEST switchlights and repetition of aural “SINK RATE” annunciation. -followed by “WHOOP - WHOOP PULL UP” if the rate of descent is not corrected

Answer 239

-Excessive Closure Rate -voice annunciation “TERRAIN - TERRAIN” is repeated and PULL UP GPWS TEST switchlights are illuminated -if closure rate continues “WHOOP - WHOOP PULL UP” annunciation repeats -after the aircraft has been pulled up, the “TERRAIN - TERRAIN” voice message will continue until an additional 300 feet of altitude has been gained

Answer 240

-Excessive Closure Rate on Landing Approach -in approach configuration with either landing gear or flaps extended -altitude gain function is inhibited -“WHOOP - WHOOP PULL UP” annunciation is replaced by “TERRAIN - TERRAIN”

Answer 241

-Altitude Loss after Take-off -Penetration of altitude loss warning threshold provides a repeated voice annunciation “DON’T SINK” and illumination of PULL UP GPWS TEST switchlights

Answer 242

-Proximity to Terrain, Gear Up -activated upon clearing 700 feet AGL after take-off -when warning envelope penetrated below 157 kts IAS with gear up, repeated voice annunciation “TOO LOW - GEAR” is heard and GPWS PULL UP TEST switchlights are illuminated -above 157 kts IAS, voice annunciation “TOO LOW - TERRAIN” is heard and GPWS PULL UP TEST switchlights are illuminated

Answer 243

-Proximity to Terrain, Flaps Up -provides protection when gear is down and flaps not in landing configuration -upon penetration of envelope below 130 kts IAS a “TOO LOW - FLAP” annunciation is repeated and the GPWS PULL UP TEST switchlights are illuminated -above 130 kts IAS a” TOO LOW - TERRAIN” annunciation is repeated and GPWS PULL UP TEST switchlights are illuminated

Answer 244

-Descent Below Glideslope -when aircraft descends below ILS glideslope, the BELOW G/S switchlights are illuminated and the voice annunciation “GLIDESLOPE” is repeated -rate varies as a function of radio altitude and glideslope deviation -may be canceled below 1000 feet by pressing either BELOW G/S switchlight automatically rearmed by climbing above 1000 feet AGL

Answer 245

-Descent Below Radio Altitude DH -aural annunciation “MINIMUMS - MINIMUMS” is given once when aircraft passes through the selected radio altimeter decision height bug setting between the altitudes of 1000 and 50 feet -will not function again until aircraft has descended below 50 feet or climbed above 1000 feet -may be inhibited during VFR approaches by setting DH bug to 0 feet

Answer 246

Poor Goal-Setting Lack of Awareness Failure to Consider The Implications Poor Planning Failure to Act Lack of Knowledge PPFFLL

Answer 247

a troubleshooting methodology to be used whenever a system isn’t operating as advertised. This methodology was designed to minimize the exposure of the crew and aircraft to undue risks and stresses Initial actions Analysis Corrective actions; and Follow-up actions

Answer 248

provide awareness of an actual or suspected equipment malfunction and conduct appropriate first reactions. should inform the crew as soon as possible Any quick reaction or memory items pertaining to the situation shall be carried out *Confirm with instructor if simulated problem If it is a system degradation, considerations must also be made for urgency of the situation vs. degradation before informing the crew

Answer 249

detailed awareness and understanding of the actual or suspected equipment malfunction -scanning mission kit to identify all affected systems -noting all observed malfunctions -noting system status (status, message history, alert area, satellites tracking -confirming switch selection -confirming recent maintenance -consulting publications and checklists to ensure all checklist items were carried out properly -inspecting CBs

Answer 250

attempt a rectification of the malfunction. Actions can include the following but not limited to: >turning system OFF and then ON >resetting/rebooting / reinitializing the system >redoing all initial checklist items for the system >passing control of the system to another crew member

Answer 251

system malfunction cannot be rectified. The crew must make a decision if the flight/mission can continue This will require coordination between the Aircraft Captain (AC) and the Mission Commander (MC/Lead student). Ultimately, the AC is responsible for the safety of flight while the MC is responsible for effective mission completion. 1- Safety of flight 2 - Major mission degradation 3 - Minor mission degradation

Answer 252

1- Safety of flight: The affected system is required for safety of flight, therefore the flight/mission must be aborted and the crew shall RTB or land at the nearest suitable aerodrome (AC’s decision);

Answer 253

2 - The system malfunction is imposing a degradation that makes it impossible to complete the mission, therefore the flight/mission must be aborted and the crew shall RTB (MC’s decision); and

Answer 254

The system malfunction is imposing a degradation that doesn’t make it impossible to complete the mission, therefore the flight/mission will continue (MC’s decision).

Answer 255

Space based radio navigation system that provides location and time information in all weather conditions, anywhere on or near the Earth where there is an unobstructed line of sight to four or more GPS satellites.

Answer 256

Provides highly accurate 3D position Provides velocity vector and time Global coverage Continuous availability Passive service (receiver) Unlimited number of users Somewhat resistant to interference spread spectrum Allows common grid reference

Answer 257

Space Segment Control Segment User Segment

Answer 258

5 unmanned monitoring stations located around the world: Passively monitors the satellites in view and collects range and time data transfer One Master Control Station (MCS) in Colorado Springs (plus two backups one in California and one in Maryland): Collates satellite data from the monitoring stations on the satellite’s clock drift and orbital position. It uses this information to send corrections to the satellites (if necessary) and predict the satellite behaviour over the next few hours.

Answer 259

-Receiver/transmitter -Indicator -Antenna system -most systems have two antennas -allows for continuous transmission/ reception

Answer 260

-Space Segment -Control Segment -User Segment

Answer 261

-A space-based radio navigation system. -Widely used in a large variety of military and civilian applications. -Principle: Measures ranges between the receiver and satellites.

Answer 262

-Final constellation baseline provides 31 satellites for world-wide coverage -6 orbital planes of 4-5 satellites (non-uniform) -6 to 11 satellites are always in view -Orbit period is 12 hours (approximately) -Orbit altitude is approximately 20,200 km

Answer 263

-GPS uses semi-synchronous orbit -2 Satellite orbits for 1 Earth orbit -Satellite advances 4 mins each day WRT local time

Answer 264

-Antenna -Signal processing equipment -Oscillator -Computer

Answer 265

-Civil users and some military -Coarse acquisition (C/A) on L1 frequency -Interim use of L2 frequency for carrier phase -7.8 m error -Civil accuracy degraded further when national (i.e. US) policy dictates

Answer 266

-Military -C/A on L1 and P/Y on L1 and L2 -≤ 5.9 m accuracy -Anti-jam (spread spectrum) and anti-spoof (Y code) all Block IIs -Requires decryption to access full capabilities

Answer 267

-The receiver can reject one position based on its relative position to earth or it has an impossibly high velocity. -We can also use the earth and a Baro altimeter (for altitude) instead of a third satellite.

Answer 268

(i) absolutely resolve the ambiguity due to the two-position possibility and (ii) resolving the errors inherent in the receiver clock.

Answer 269

-MCS controls GPS time using Caesium (Cesium) clocks -Constantly updates the satellites’ clock to the correct time -Clock drift in between updates is predicted and passed to users to allow more accurate positioning -Each satellite has four atomic clocks 2 caesium and 2 rubidium -One nanosecond clock error = one foot position error

Answer 270

-available to all users of GPS -Also known as clear access code or Gold Code -Total of 32 codes assigned to GPS satellites -Each satellite has its own unique C/A code to allow for satellite identification by receivers -C/A code is recycled as satellites are replaced -C/A code is 1,023 bits long (chips) and is transmitted at the rate of 1.023 Megabits/sec -Repeated every millisecond -Provides position accuracy of 13.9 meters 95% of the time -Transmitted on the L1 carrier frequency only

Answer 271

P Code has a 10.23 Mega Bit/sec transmission rate and is broadcast on both L1 and L2 frequencies. This allows greater accuracy in two ways: -the higher bit rate allows for improved sampling and increases accuracy -the fact that it is broadcast on the 2 carrier frequencies allows sophisticated receivers to compare the arrival time of both carriers and correct for atmospheric refraction. Accuracy is less than or equal to 6.6 meters 95% of the time

Answer 272

-US Military can encrypt the P Code which is known as Y Code -P Code requires a much more sophisticated receiver than that required for C/A code -Y Code requires crypto capability Encryption for the P Code is available to US military and limited allies only

Answer 273

Operating frequency = 10.23 MHz Transmitting frequencies: L1 is 154 times 10.23 MHz = 1575.42 MHz L2 is 120 times 10.23 MHz = 1227.6 MHz

Answer 274

-2nd civilian use freq -Improved accuracy of navigation Faster signal acquisition Easy to track signal Enhanced reliability -Acts as a redundant signal in the case of interference -Allows for the removal of atmospheric delay error -GPS Block IIR-M capability

Answer 275

-Transmitted on the same L1 and L2 freqs as the P-Code -M-Code does not require the C/A code to achieve lock unlike the P-Code -Two distinct signals sent from two distinct antenna wide angle antenna high-gain directional antenna which is intended to be aimed at a specific area. -Local signal strength is increased by 20 dB -Makes the signal more difficult to jam -Block IIR-M satellites transmit the earth code portion of the M-Code -Spot beam capability – GPS Block III

Answer 276

-Band reserved exclusively for aviation safety services -Higher Transmission power than L1 or L2C (around 3 dB more) -Improved signal structure for better performance -When used in combination with L1 C/A and L2C, L5 will enable sub-meter accuracy without augmentations

Answer 277

-C/A code modernization with newer capabilities -Implementation provided C/A code to ensure backward compatibility -Assured of 1.5 dB increase in minimum C/A code power to mitigate any noise floor increase -Non-data signal component contains a pilot carrier to improve tracking -Ensures civil interoperability with other systems i.e. Galileo

Answer 278

-Satellites and receivers are synchronized -Generating the same coded signal at the same time -Receiver then compares the received signal to its self-generated signal to come up with a time difference and thus a range -Pseudo-random sequences are repeated every millisecond -Referred to as pseudo-random code (or noise)

Answer 279

-Since GPS signals contain very little information, just timing signals and a Nav message (explained later), they can be sent at a low power and received using a very small antenna. GPS signals are in fact so faint they don’t register above the earth’s inherent background radio noise Since we know the pattern of the receiver pseudo-random code and compare it with the background noise, we can look for areas where both are doing the same thing. -We divide up the signal into time periods (chipping the signal) and marking all the periods that match. From this we can generate a comparison pattern for the satellite signal. -Thus, Pseudo-random codes eliminate the need for large antennas and powerful transmitters. They allow the GPS system to operate with low power and allows for the use of small receiver antennas.

Answer 280

-Contains satellite ephemeris, clock data, almanac, and other information about the satellites and their signals. -Contains the info required by the receiver to perform the operations and computations required to navigate using GPS. -The message is superimposed over the C/A and P codes. -It is divided into 300 bits per sub-frame, 5 sub-frames per frame, and 25 frames per message. Each message is 37, 500 bits long. -At a transmission rate of 50 bps, it takes 750 seconds, 12.5 minutes, to transmit an entire almanac message. -Each 30 second frame begins on the minute or half-minute as indicated by the atomic clock on each satellite.

Answer 281

The predictions/updates of current position of an individual satellite’s orbital position, that is transmitted to the user in the Nav message. Usually updated hourly by the MCS, transmitted to that particular satellite, which then transmits the info about itself to the user.

Answer 282

A catalogue of ephemeris data, for all the satellites, continually updated in the user receiver, as new individual satellite ephemeris data is received. The almanac tells the user where in the sky, the approximate position of each satellite is.

Answer 283

-Initial start-up uses almanac data and/or operator entered position, velocity, and time (incl. date) (PVT). -Chooses the best four satellites within its horizon. -If the receiver does not have PVT or almanac data it goes into a “Searching the Sky” mode.

Answer 284

-Using a preprogrammed sequence the receiver picks a particular satellite and begins searching for its unique C/A code. -The inability to find a satellite also precludes other satellites due to constellation geometry. -Once a particular satellite is found the memory will tell it what others are available. -In multi – channel receivers the GPS looks for many satellites at the same time and chooses the best based on geometry.

Answer 285

-The receiver now knows what C/A codes it will search for. -Estimates the phase shift required for the time difference. -Estimates the Doppler shift required for the relative speeds. -The code and carrier tracking loops now start to lock onto the signals.

Answer 286

The system within a receiver that generates its own signal then tries to match it with that of the incoming signal.

Answer 287

-Phase shift caused by time differences (Code Tracking Loop) -Doppler shifts caused by relative speed changes (Carrier Tracking Loop)

Answer 288

-C/A code search commences at the phase shifted point allowing for the time lag from satellite to receiver. -Allows reception of weak signal and helps to offset gain limits from a relatively small antenna. -Code lock is when the two signals match and is also the point of highest signal to noise ratio. This point is maintained for the remainder of the flight.

Answer 289

-The receiver uses a crystal oscillator to develop a frequency which it adds to the incoming frequency to compensate for Doppler shifts due to motion. -The receiver can now extract the navigation message from the carrier. Any further Doppler shifts equate to relative motion changes.

Answer 290

Pseudo-Ranging A.K.A. Clock Bias

Answer 291

12.5 minutes

Answer 292

Three -User Range Error -Multi-Path Error -Dilution of Precision

Answer 293

-The first error is the measurement of the distance from the satellite to the receiver User Range Error (URE) Also referred as User Equivalent Range Error (UERE) -The second error is induced by having less than perfect fix geometry Dilution of Precision (DoP)

Answer 294

-Satellite Errors Clock drift error should not exceed 2 m 95% of the time -Control Segment Errors Inaccurate ephemeris data gives errors up to 2.5 m 95% of the time (Over 8 hour period) -Receiver errors make up the largest portion of User Range Error. -Atmospheric Modeling is the largest cause of error: (Ionosphere and Troposphere) -Multi-path errors Associated with antenna location, and vehicle dynamics

Answer 295

-P Code up to 6.6m 95% of the time -C/A Code up to 13.9m 95% of the time

Answer 296

-Comes from having a fix geometry of less than 90 degrees. -Airborne we are concerned with 3-dimensional position error. -DOP is considered to be a coefficient of 2.54, 95% of the time.

Answer 297

-P Code DOP times URE is (2.54*6.6)=16.8m 95% of the time -C/A Code DOP times URE is (2.54*13.9)= 35.3m 95% of the time

Answer 298

-Sequential receivers - 1 or more channels. 2 channel receiver is the minimum for P code reception. -Multiplex receivers - one or more channels plus software channels. -Continuous receivers - four or more channels. -Cost comparison: Sequential to Multiplex to Continuous Cheap to expensive and simple to complex

Answer 299

-Ground Reference stations to eliminate GPS errors. -Accuracies to 1m -Used for construction, mapping, surveying, air navigation and any where precise positioning is required.

Answer 300

-LAAS – Local Area Augmentation System Ground based -WAAS – Wide Area Augmentation System Space based

Answer 301

-Used for standard RNAV approaches. -No unique aircraft equipment required. -No specific pilot qualifications. -RAIM checks required. -No specific frequencies required to be dialed up.

Answer 302

-Aircraft must have a WAAS capable FMS (CT-142 is equipped with this). -Both pilots must be qualified to fly a WAAS enabled RNAV (LPV minima) approach. -LPV (Localizer Performance with Vertical Guidance) is the highest precision GPS instrument approach currently available. -Lateral guidance is equivalent to a localizer and uses ground-independent electronic glide path -It’s an approach with vertical guidance (APV) to distinguish it from a precision approach (PA) or non-precision approach (NPA). -Specific channel is required – it should come up when the approach is selected in FMS. Channel is indicated on GPH 200 approach plate in top left corner (example on next slide). -No RAIM check required. -If WAAS system is unavailable, will default to LAAS system

Answer 303

-UNS-1C GPS to Emulated GPS: Aircraft GPS provides GPS Px, time, Satellite information, system status, altitude, G/S, and Ground Track -Inertial Reference Unit to Emulated GPS: TAS, which is supplied to the IRU from the DADC.

Answer 304

-Position and time -Satellite information (How many satellites are visible, how many the GPS is tracking and which satellites they are) -Altitude -Ground track -Ground speed -TAS

Answer 305

-Altitude information no longer available -Lat/Long still valid

Answer 306

-Lat/Long not valid -GPS not usable. Revert to degraded ops

Answer 307

-GPS position become erratic and varies randomly with large errors. -Time on NTS continues to operate

Answer 308

Located on the windshield centre post It provides a back-up in the event of an AHRS failure and provides an independent cross check of the AHRS.

Answer 309

Remote Compass Transmitter - Flux Valve Attitude Heading Reference Unit – AHRU AHRS Control Panel

Answer 310

The Flux Valve detects the magnitude and direction of the earth’s magnetic field (H component), and converts it to electrical information which is used to align the Directional Gyro (DG) in the AHRU.

Answer 311

Remote compasses are located in the wing tips This gives them the maximum separation from the magnetic disturbances created by the aircraft structure and electrical system.

Answer 312

located under the floor, aft of the air-stair door

Answer 313

-system test -system configuration -basic system monitoring

Answer 314

TAS, from the appropriate ADC via the ASCB data bus Magnetic heading information, from the flux valve via the AHRS Control Panel

Answer 315

Flight Instruments: EFIS ADIs & HSIs Pilot/Co-pilot RMI Flight Guidance Computers (Auto-pilot) Air Data Computers Other aircraft systems Advisory Displays FMS

Answer 316

Frequency shift, relative motion

Answer 317

1. FREQUENCY of the transmitted signal (fo). The higher the frequency the greater the shift (directly proportional). 2. RELATIVE VELOCITY between the transmission source and the receiver (V). Note this is RELATIVE velocity, not actual velocity, as both the receiver and transmitter may be moving. (directly proportional). 3. SPEED OF PROPOGATION (C). Sound waves/radio waves ‑ speed of sound/speed of light (inversely proportional). 4. ANGLE between direction of movement and the line of propagation from TX to RX () (directly proportional). The bigger the angle the smaller the doppler shift (cos 90 = 0), (Cos

Answer 318

Uses 3 or 4 beams (two forward and one or two backward). Compares the different readings to determine more accurate groundspeed and drift. Since front and rear beams are compared in the JANUS system, ground speed errors caused by a climb or descent will cancel each other because the front and rear beams will show the opposite error.

Answer 319

In level flight the front beams sense an increase in frequency while the rear beams sense a decrease in frequency. If diagonally opposite beams are compared, the frequency difference is equal to twice the Doppler shift of one beam

Answer 320

The same thing happens with roll, producing very little error. To further reduce errors due to roll, the beams are transmitted in a conical pattern. This pattern reduces the amount of change in the depression angle during small roll movements as well as ensuring the return signal overlap required to compare the beams.

Answer 321

Receiver/Transmitter and Antenna Signal Data Converter (SDC) Emulated Control Display Unit (CDU) Navigation Training System (NTS)

Answer 322

-Determines Doppler shift of received signals -Processes the signals and computes along heading velocity (Vx); across heading velocity (Vy); vertical velocity (Vz) -Converts velocity data into drift angle and groundspeed -Conducts signal to noise checks -Performs system validity checks and sends status signal to Navigation Training System (NTS)

Answer 323

SELF TEST: when system is in self test MEMORY: loss of valid return on two or more beams DPLR MALF: system malfunction during S/T

Answer 324

The NTS generates the software for the Emulated Control Display Unit (CDU).

Answer 325

Antenna radiates RF signals Receiver mixes reflected signal with transmitted frequency and passes difference to SDC SDC converts info to drift and groundspeed and passes it to NTS SDC performs validity checks and sends status to NTS

Answer 326

System info from NTS to all emulated Control Display Units (CDU). Drift and groundspeed displayed in Doppler area of Data Information Display (DID). Mode control signals from CDU sent to NTS which sends them to Doppler hardware via SDC.

Answer 327

Drift: 20 degrees maximum on flag display Ground speed: 25 to 650 kts (666 kts during self test)

Answer 328

28V DC 115V AC 26V AC @ 400 Hz

AIR SYSTEMS Flashcards

(376 cards)