Airframe Oral Flashcards
(279 cards)
1
Q
FIRE PROTECTION:
Where are carbon monoxide detectors normally used?
A
In aircraft cabins and cockpits.
2
Q
FIRE PROTECTION:
What are indications of excess carbon monoxide fumes when using CO testers?
A
For chemical tabs, the tab changes color due to chemical reaction. More sophisticated detectors provide a digital output in parts per million of carbon monoxide present or illuminate a light and/or an audible alarm sounds.
3
Q
FIRE PROTECTION:
How does a light refraction type (photoelectric) smoke detector warn of possible fire?
A
Smoke in the air will cause the photoelectric cell to conduct an electric current.
4
Q
FIRE PROTECTION:
How may a photoelectric smoke detector be checked?
A
By the use of a switch in the test circuit.
5
Q
FIRE PROTECTION:
Name two types of smoke detection instruments used in aircraft.
A
Light Refraction (Photoelectric) and Ionization
6
Q
FIRE PROTECTION:
How are thermal switch units wired?
A
Parallel with each other and in series with the light.
7
Q
FIRE PROTECTION:
How are Fenwal sensing elements wired?
A
Connected in series to a control unit.
8
Q
FIRE PROTECTION:
How is a thermocouple fire warning system different from a thermal switch system?
A
A thermal switch system works at a specified temperature whereas the thermocouple system depends on a rate of temperature rise.
9
Q
FIRE PROTECTION:
What does a continuous loop detection system consist of?
A
One or more wires embedded in a special ceramic core that changes its resistance with a change in temperature.
10
Q
FIRE PROTECTION:
What are two types of installed fire extinguishing systems?
A
Carbon dioxide (CO2) and Halogenated Hydrocarbons.
11
Q
FIRE PROTECTION:
What type of extinguishing agent is usually found in a high-rate-of-discharge system?
A
Halogenated hydrocarbon type agents (Halons).
12
Q
FIRE PROTECTION:
What procedure is used to check a fire extinguisher container for pressure?
A
A chart must be used for determining minimum and maximum gauge reading based on temperature.
13
Q
FIRE PROTECTION:
What protection is provided for a fire extinguisher bottle in case of a temperature rise in excess of set limits?
A
The agent dumps overboard ejecting a red thermal discharge indicator (disk).
14
Q
FIRE PROTECTION:
What is the purpose of the yellow disk in a fire extinguisher system?
A
It indicates a normal system discharge.
15
Q
FIRE PROTECTION:
What indications may be caused by kinks and sharp bends bends in the sensing elements of fire detection system?
A
False fire warnings, caused by a short.
16
Q
FIRE PROTECTION:
How is the service life of a discharge cartridge calculated?
A
From the manufacturers date stamp of the face of the cartridge.
17
Q
ICE AND RAIN:
What are two methods of inflating pneumatic de-icer boots?
A
An engine-driven vacuum pump and bleed air from a turbine-engine compressor.
18
Q
ICE AND RAIN:
How are de-icer boots attached to the leading edges of wing and tail surfaces?
A
Bonding; fairing strips and screws, or a combination of both.
19
Q
ICE AND RAIN:
What is the function of the oil separator used in some de-icer boot systems?
A
In a wet-type air pump, it is used to remove entrained oil from output air before it is sent through the boot system.
20
Q
ICE AND RAIN:
What must be accomplished to a de-icer boot prior to a cold patch repair?
A
Relieve the installed tension.
21
Q
ICE AND RAIN:
What normally keeps de-icer boots held down in flight?
A
Suction is supplied to the boots during flight.
22
Q
ICE AND RAIN:
What methods are used to supply heat for thermal anti-icing systems?
A
Turbine compressor hot air, engine exhaust heat exchangers, and ram air heated by a combustion heater.
23
Q
ICE AND RAIN:
How is the temperature maintained in a thermal anti-icing system?
A
By mixing heated air with ambient (cold) air.
24
Q
ICE AND RAIN:
What happens to the thermal anti-icing airflow after is has heated a leading edge surface?
A
The airflow is exhausted to the atmosphere.
25
ICE AND RAIN:
How can an electrically heated pitot tube with an ammeter installed in the system be checked for operation?
It can be verified by noting the current consumption when the heater is turned on.
26
ICE AND RAIN:
Name at least two methods used to remove rain from a windshield?
Wipers, pneumatic (jet blast), chemical rain repellent, and windshields treated with hydrophobic surface seal coating.
27
ICE AND RAIN:
What powers windshield wiper systems?
Electrical and hydraulic power.
28
ICE AND RAIN:
What are the two inherent problems associated with windshield wipers, when operated in flight?
Aerodynamic forces reduce blade pressure; and failure to achieve fast enough wiper oscillations.
29
ICE AND RAIN:
How does a pneumatic rain removal system work?
The air blast breaks the rain drops into small particles that are then blown away.
30
ICE AND RAIN:
Why is a windshield rain repellent system not operated when the windshield is dry?
Heavy undiluted repellent will restrict window visibility.
31
ICE AND RAIN:
What is the purpose of the electronic timer in a pneumatic de-icer boot system?
It controls the operating sequence and time intervals.
32
POSITION AND WARNING:
What types of landing gear warnings are provided for retractable landing gear systems?
A horn or some other aural device and a red warning light.
33
POSITION AND WARNING
When does an aural device operate in a landing gear warning system?
When the throttle is retarded and the landing gear is not down and locked.
34
POSITION AND WARNING
What is the purpose of a Mach warning system?
It provides an aural warning that aircraft speed limits have been exceeded.
35
POSITION AND WARNING
How does a takeoff aural warning differ from a landing gear aural warning?
The aural horn for takeoff is intermittent and continuous for landing.
36
POSITION AND WARNING
Name at least two items that may cause a takeoff warning horn to operate in a typical transport jet aircraft.
Speed brakes, flaps, stabilizer, and auxiliary power exhaust door not in their takeoff positions
37
POSITION AND WARNING
When is the time to check landing gear switches, lights, and warning horns or buzzers for proper operation?
During a gear retraction check
38
POSITION AND WARNING
What retractable landing gear positions must be indicated?
Secured in the up position and secured in the down position.
39
POSITION AND WARNING
Where are the procedures located for checking and adjusting landing gear switches?
The aircraft manufacturer’s manual.
40
POSITION AND WARNING
What other aircraft system may activate the landing gear warning system?
The wing flaps system
41
POSITION AND WARNING
What is the reason for a master caution warning system in aircraft?
To draw the attention of the crew to a critical situation in addition to an annunciation that describes the problem.
42
POSITION AND WARNING
What system is used to indicate battery over temperature?
A warning light.
43
POSITION AND WARNING
What is the purpose of the annunciator system?
To display current conditions and to notify of unsatisfactory conditions.
44
POSITION AND WARNING
What is the source of the anti-skid warning system signal?
The anti-skid control unit.
45
AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS
What type of circuit breaker should not be used in aircraft?
Automatic reset-type circuit breakers
46
AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS
When should a switch be derated from its nominal rating?
When used with high rush-in circuits, inductive circuits, and direct current motors
47
AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS
Where is the white position/navigation light mounted?
On the tail, visible from the rear
48
AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS
What color is a left wingtip position light?
Red
49
AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS
What factors are considered when selecting wire size for electrical power?
Allowable power loss, permissible voltage drop, and current carrying ability
50
AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS
When do D.C. motors draw several times their rated current?
When starting
51
AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS
How long should bonding jumper wires be?
As short as practicable
52
AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS
What hardware is used to make bonding or grounding connections to a structured of dissimilar material?
A washer of suitable material should be used so that corrosion will occur on the washer
53
AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS
What should be done to a conduit end when fittings are not used?
It should be deburred to prevent wire insulation damage
54
AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS
What size electrical conduit should be used?
Twenty-five percent larger that the maximum diameter of the wire bundle
55
AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS
When is a circuit breaker designed to open?
When an overload or circuit fault exists
56
AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS
What controls the output voltage of an alternator?
A Generator Control Unit (GCU)
57
AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS
How many terminal lugs can be put on a single terminal strip in an aircraft?
Four
58
AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS
How can a particular wire in a bundle be identified?
By the identification code on the wire
59
AIRCRAFT FUEL SYSTEMS
What is the purpose of a fuel jettisoning (dump) system?
To reduce the weight of the aircraft to a specified landing weight
60
AIRCRAFT FUEL SYSTEMS
When would a fuel jettingsin system be required for small aircraft?
It is required when the maximum takeoff weight exceeds the maximum landing weight
61
AIRCRAFT FUEL SYSTEM
What are two types of fuel tanks?
A bladder-type fuel tank and an integral fuel tank
62
AIRCRAFT FUEL SYSTEMS
What supports the weight of fuel in a bladder-type fuel cell?
The structure of the cavity that the cell fits into
63
AIRCRAFT FUEL SYSTEMS
What is wet wing-type construction?
Integral fuel tanks
64
AIRCRAFT FUEL SYSTEMS
What indicators could be used to determine when there may be danger of ice crystals forming in the fuel of a turbine-powered aircraft?
Fuel temperature or a differential pressure type indicators
65
AIRCRAFT FUEL SYSTEMS
What is an electrical operated fuel tank shutoff valve in transit light?
A light that indicates when the valve is in motion
66
AIRCRAFT FUEL SYSTEMS
What is the pressure fueling system sometimes referred to?
Single-point fueling system
67
AIRCRAFT FUEL SYSTEM
What method may be used to check a fuel tank for leaks after a weld has been performed?
The tank is pressurized with 1/2 to 3 psi air pressure and a soapy solution is added to detect any leaks
68
AIRCRAFT FUEL SYSTEM
What should be done with old gaskets and seals when replacing fuel system components?
They should be removed and replaced with new ones
69
AIRCRAFT FUEL SYSTEM
What are four types of fuel quantity gauges in use today?
Sight glass, mechanical, electrical, and electronic
70
AIRCRAFT FUEL SYSTEM
What is the purpose of fuel tank internal baffles?
To resist fuel surging caused by changes in the attitude of the aircraft
71
AIRCRARFT FUEL SYSTEM
Why should you wait a period of time after fueling before checking fuel sumps?
To allow time for water and sediment to settle to the drain point
72
COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION
What are three basic autopilot components?
Sensing elements (Gyros); Output elements (Servos); Command elements (Flight Controller); Computing elements 9
Computer and Amplifier)
73
COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION
What are sensing elements of an autopilot system?
A directional gyro, turn-and-bank gyro, attitude gyro, and attitude control
74
COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION
What are actuating (output) elements of an autopilot system?
Servos that operate the control surfaces
75
COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION
What is the most common communication system in use?
Very high frequency (VHF) system
76
COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION
How often does the ATC transponder require certification?
Every 24 calendar months
77
COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION
What are the components of a typical airborne VOR system in use?
A receiver, visual indicator, frequency selector, antennas, and power supply
78
COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION
Why are two antennas or a single multi-element antenna usually required for an ILS system?
One for localizer, and one for the glide slope receivers
79
COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION
What information does a glide slope radio beam provide?
Vertical guidance for correct angle of descent
80
COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION
What is a DME?
Distance measuring equipment
81
COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION
What is VOR equipment used for?
Navigation
82
COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION
Where should DME antennas be located?
On the lower surface of the aircraft fuselage, centerline
83
COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION
Wha is an ADF?
An automatic direction finder
84
COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION
What powers an emergency locator transmitter (ELT)?
A self-contained battery
85
COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION
What is on method used to monitor the output signal during an ELT test?
A VHF communications receiver tuned to 121.5 MHz
86
COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION
How may the determination be made to replace or recharge the batteries in an ELT even though the set operates?
The expiration date for replacing or for recharging is marked on the outside of the transmitter and enter in the aircraft maintenance record
87
COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION
How does bonding help reduce radio interference?
By providing a low-impedance ground return
88
COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION
What time of day should you perform the maintenance tests if an installed ELT?
The test should be conducted during the first 5 minutes after the hour; at any other time they should be coordinated with the nearest Control Tower of Flight Service Station
89
AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS
What is used as a reference for range marking instruments?
Aircraft specification or type certificate data sheets, and flight manuals
90
AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS
What does a yellow arc on an instrument dial indicate?
Caution
91
AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS
Why are slippage marks used on instrument glass covers?
To indicate glass rotational in the bezel
92
AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS
When range markings are placed on an instrument glass, what precaution must be taken?
The glass must be marked for slippage indication
93
AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS
What can be used to static check a manifold pressure indicator?
Current atmospheric pressure.
94
AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEM
What indication errors may be found in altimeters?
Scale, hysteresis, and installation.
95
AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS
What flight instruments are usually connected to a pitot-static system?
Rate of climb, airspeed, and altimeter.
96
AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS
What is required after replacement of components connected to a pitot-static system?
A leak test.
97
AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS
What methods are used to drive turn-and-bank/ slip indicators?
Vacuum, air pressure, or electricity.
98
AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS
What causes an electric-driven gyro rotor to tilt when the aircraft is turned?
Gyroscopic precession.
99
AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEM
What is a synchro-type remote indicating system?
A system that transmits information from one point to another point (flap position).
100
AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEM
What does a tachometer indicate?
Crankshaft or main turbine rotor speed.
101
AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEM
Where does an electrical resistance temperature indicator receive a signal?
From a temperature-sensitive element.
102
AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEM
What type of indicating system is a turbine engine exhaust gas temperature system?
A thermocouple type system.
103
AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEM
What is the meaning of swinging a compass?
Correcting for deviations by adjusting the compensating magnets.
104
AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS
Name at least two items that should be looked for during an inspection of a magnetic compass?
(1) Security of attachment. (2) Correct readings at various headings. (3) The bowl should be filled with liquid and not contain any bubbles or discoloration. (4) The scale should be readable. (5) Moving parts should work easily.
105
CABIN ATMOSPHERE CONTROL
What are the two groups of independent cabin compressors?
Positive-displacement and centrifugal.
106
CABIN ATMOSPHERE CONTROL
What is the principal control of a pressurization system?
An outflow valve.
107
CABIN ATMOSPHERE CONTROL
What method is used by some turbine-powered aircraft for pressurization?
Bleed air from the turbine-engine compressor.
108
CABIN ATMOSPHERE CONTROL
What is a roots blower?
An engine-driven compressor.
109
CABIN ATMOSPHERE CONTROL
What pressurization control unit will change the position of an outflow valve?
The cabin pressure controller.
110
CABIN ATMOSPHERE CONTROL
What is the function of ventilating air in a combustion heater?
It is the air that is warmed and sent into the cabin.
111
CABIN ATMOSPHERE CONTROL
What components are used in an air-cycle cooling system?
An expansion turbine, air-to-air heat exchanger, and various valves.
112
CABIN ATMOSPHERE CONTROL
What causes a temperature drop in an air-cycle cooling system?
The compressed air performs the work of turning a turbine, and it undergoes a pressure and temperature drop.
113
CABIN ATMOSPHERE CONTROL
How does a water separator remove moisture from the air?
The moist air passes through vanes that swirl the air and the droplets are collected and drained.
114
CABIN ATMOSPHERE CONTROL
What is vapor-cycle cooling?
A closed system in which a refrigerant is circulated through tubing and a variety of components to remove heat from the aircraft.
115
CABIN ATMOSPHERE CONTROL
What components are in a vapor-cycle cooling system?
A receiver-dryer, evaporator, compressor, condenser, and expansion valve.
116
CABIN ATMOSPHERE CONTROL
How does a continuous-flow oxygen system operate?
Oxygen flows from a charged cylinder through a high-pressure line to a reducing valve and to mask outlets.
117
CABIN ATMOSPHERE CONTROL
How does a basic pressure-demand oxygen system operate?
Oxygen flows from a charged cylinder to a pressure-demand regulator, adjustable by each crew member.
118
CABIN ATMOSPHERE CONTROL
What must be accomplished if an oxygen system has been open to the atmosphere for 2 hours or more?
The system must be purged to remove moisture.
119
CABIN ATMOSPHERE CONTROL
What is used to purge oxygen lines of moisture?
Dry nitrogen, dry air, or oxygen.
120
CABIN ATMOSPHERE CONTROL
Why is oil added to a vapor-cycle Freon system?
To seal and lubricate the compressor.
121
CABIN ATMOSPHERE CONTROL
What safety precautions should be observed when servicing oxygen systems?
Clean, grease-free tools, clothing, and hands; No smoking or open flames within 50 feet; Do Not use adhesive tape of any kind.
122
HYDRAULIC AND PNEUMATIC POWER
What are three types of hydraulic fluids?
Minerals, Polyalphaolefins, and Phosphate esters.
123
HYDRAULIC AND PNEUMATIC POWER
What color is mineral based hydraulic fluid?
Red.
124
HYDRAULIC AND PNEUMATIC POWER
What happens to plastic resins, vinyl compositions, lacquers, and oil based paints if exposed to a phosphate ester based hydraulic fluid such as Skydrol?
The material will be damaged, softened, and/or peeled.
125
HYDRAULIC AND PNEUMATIC POWER
What feature is built into a hydraulic pump-driven system to prevent engine damage in the event of pump seizure or overload?
A shear section in the pump-drive shaft.
126
HYDRAULIC AND PNEUMATIC POWER
What precautions should be taken to minimize contamination during replacement of a hydraulic unit?
All lines should be plugged or capped after disconnecting.
127
HYDRAULIC AND PNEUMATIC POWER
What would cause a hydraulic filter to go into open bypass, allowing unfiltered fluid into the system?
A clogged filter.
128
HYDRAULIC AND PNEUMATIC POWER
How does a gear-type power pump operate?
Two meshed gears revolve in a housing and are driven by a power unit. Fluid is trapped and pressurized as the gears turn.
129
HYDRAULIC AND PNEUMATIC POWER
What are two types of engine-driven hydraulic pumps?
Constant-delivery and Variable delivery.
130
HYDRAULIC AND PNEUMATIC POWER
What is the purpose of a pressure regulator?
To manage the output of the pump to maintain system pressure and allow the pump to turn without resistance (unloading).
131
HYDRAULIC AND PNEUMATIC POWER
What is used in some hydraulic systems to supplement the power pump when several units are operated at the same time?
An accumulator.
132
HYDRAULIC AND PNEUMATIC POWER
What are the different types of accumulators?
Spherical and Cylindrical.
133
HYDRAULIC AND PNEUMATIC POWER
For what purposes are pneumatic systems used in some aircraft?
To operate brakes, doors, drive pumps, and engine starting.
134
HYDRAULIC AND PNEUMATIC POWER
What are sources of pneumatic power?
Storage bottles, vane-type pumps, and turbine engine compressors.
135
HYDRAULIC AND PNEUMATIC POWER
What happens to excessive pressure in a pneumatic system?
A relief valve will bleed it into the atmosphere.
136
HYDRAULIC AND PNEUMATIC POWER
What is the purpose of restrictors that are used in aircraft pneumatic systems?
To control the rate of airflow.
137
HYDRAULIC AND PNEUMATIC POWER
Why should a pneumatic system be purged periodically?
To remove contamination and moisture.
138
HYDRAULIC AND PNEUMATIC POWER
What must be accomplished with any accumulator prior to disassembling?
Make sure the air or preload has been discharged.
139
LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS
What is used to inflate a landing gear shock strut?
Dry air or nitrogen.
140
LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS
What is the purpose of main landing gear torque links?
They keep the landing gear pointed in a straight ahead direction.
141
LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS
What power sources are normally used to retract landing gear systems?
Hydraulic or electrical.
142
LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS
What type of nose wheel steering is provided on small aircraft?
A simple system consisting of mechanical linkage hooked to the rudder pedals.
143
LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS
What unit prevents nose wheel vibration?
A shimmy damper.
144
LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS
What are some types of brake actuating systems?
Independent, booster, and power control.
145
LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS
What is the purpose of power brake debooster cylinders?
They reduce the pressure to the brakes and increase the volume of fluid flow.
146
LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS
What must be accomplished before inspecting a wheel brake system for hydraulic leaks?
Pressurize the system.
147
LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS
What prevents a split wheel from leaking air through the inner and outer mating surfaces, or the wheel assembly?
A rubber packing between the two assemblies.
148
LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS
What is the most necessary maintenance function for safe, long, aircraft tire service?
Proper inflation.
149
LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS
What are the effects of under inflation on tires?
Rapid or uneven wear near the edge of the tread, and creep or slip when the brakes are applied.
150
LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS
When should a landing gear retraction check be accomplished?
During an annual inspection (or other inspections), when landing gear components have been replaced, and after hard landings.
151
LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS
What is the indication of excessive heating of a wheel bearing?
Discoloration; bluish tint to the metal surface.
152
LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS
What is the purpose of an anti-skid system?
To bring a fast moving aircraft to a stop during ground roll without tire skidding.
153
LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS
What is the purpose of a wheel fusible plug?
To relieve air pressure to prevent tire blowout.
154
LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS
What are some methods of bleeding brakes?
Gravity and pressure methods.
155
LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS
What methods are used for transmitting cockpit control movements to a steering control unit in large aircraft?
Mechanical, electrical, and hydraulic.
156
LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS
What prevents a nose landing gear from being retracted with the nose wheel out of the center position?
Nosewheel centering internal cams or external track.
157
AIRFRAME INSPECTION
In accordance with 14 CFR 65.85, 65.87, what type of inspection may a certificated Airframe and Powerplant mechanic sign off?
A 100-hour inspection.
158
AIRFRAME INSPECTION
When may a mechanic perform an annual inspection?
When the mechanic holds an Inspection Authorization.
159
AIRFRAME INSPECTION
When must an annual inspection be performed, if required, for a particular aircraft?
Within the preceding 12 calendar months.
160
AIRFRAME INSPECTION
What may be used as a checklist for 100-hour inspections?
Any checklist which meets the minimum standards of part 43, appendix D.
161
AIRFRAME INSPECTION
Where is the list of information that is required for aircraft records after completion of 100-hour inspections?
Part 43.
162
AIRFRAME INSPECTION
Who may supervise a progressive inspection?
In repair stations, or the aircraft manufacturer.
163
AIRFRAME INSPECTION
When is a 100-hour inspection required on an aircraft operating under part 91 (General Operating and Flight Rules)?
When an aircraft is used for carrying persons for hire, or when an aircraft is used for flight instruction for hire which that person provides.
164
AIRFRAME INSPECTION
When is the first 100-hour inspection due after discontinuance of a progressive inspection program?
100 hours after the last complete inspection of the progressive program.
165
AIRFRAME INSPECTION
Does an aircraft under a progressive inspection program need a 100-hour inspection if it is used for flight instruction for hire?
No.
166
AIRFRAME INSPECTION
How can an aircraft that is due an annual inspection be flown to a base for inspection?
If a special flight permit has been issued for the aircraft.
167
AIRFRAME INSPECTION
What kind of certificate must an individual (not a repair station) have to conduct a complete 100-hour inspection on an aircraft and approve it for return to service?
A mechanic certificate with Airframe and Powerplant ratings.
168
AIRFRAME INSPECTION
Where would you find the operating conditions that make a 100-hour inspection mandatory?
14 CFR part 91.
169
AIRFRAME INSPECTION
Where would you find the recommended statement for recording the approval or disapproval for return to service of an aircraft after a 100-hour or annual inspection?
14 CFR part 43.
170
AIRFRAME INSPECTION
Where should you obtain the necessary information to work on electrical equipment?
From the manufacturers maintenance manual or instructions for continued airworthiness.
171
AIRFRAME INSPECTION
Who must approve for return to service radio equipment installations made in accordance with supplemental type certificate data?
The holder of an Inspection Authorization.
172
AIRFRAME INSPECTION
Can an aircraft that is required by section 91.409 to have a 100-hour inspection be flown beyond the inspection requirement?
Yes, if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be accomplished, but not to exceed 10 flight hours.
173
AIRFRAME INSPECTION
How do you determine when the next 100-hour inspection is due if the owner, en route to your maintenance facility, exceeded the 100-hour inspection by 2 hours?
This 2 hours must be included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service.
174
AIRFRAME INSPECTION
If the owner or operator of an aircraft desires to use a progressive inspection program, who must they submit a written request to?
The FAA Flight Standards District Office having jurisdiction over the area in which the applicant is located.
175
AIRFRAME INSPECTION
Is an engine run-up on turbine powered aircraft required as part of the 100-hour inspection?
Yes.
176
ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING
What is a servo tab?
Used primarily on the large main control surfaces. They aid in moving the control surface and holding it in the desired position. Only the servo tab moves in response to movement by the pilot of the primary flight controls.
177
ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING
What is a balanced trim tab?
Designed to move in the opposite direction of the primary flight control. Thus, aerodynamic forces acting on the tab assist in moving the primary control surface.
178
ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING
What is a spring tab?
It is an auxiliary control that aids in moving the primary control surface by keeping a direct proportion of deflection to the aerodynamic load imposed on the surface.
179
ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING
Name four high-lift devices.
Leading edge flaps, slots, slats, and trailing edge flaps.
180
ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING
What are three mechanical methods used to actuate flight control systems?
Cable, push-pull, and torque tube.
181
ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING
What is the purpose of a rotorcraft cyclic pitch control?
It changes the pitch of each main rotor blade during a cycle of rotation.
182
ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING
What is the purpose of the rotorcraft collective pitch control?
It varies the lift of the main rotor(s) blade(s) simultaneously.
183
ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING
What unit compensates for helicopter main rotor torque?
An auxiliary or tail rotor.
184
ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING
What controls a helicopter tail rotor?
Foot pedals.
185
ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING
What flight control surfaces are considered the primary group?
Ailerons, Elevators, and Rudder.
186
ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING
What flight controls are included in the auxiliary group?
Wing flaps, spoilers, speed brakes, leading edge flaps, and slots.
187
ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING
What are the three axes of an aircraft?
Vertical, Lateral, Longitudinal.
188
ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING
Where does breakage of control cables occur most frequently?
Where cables pass over pulleys and through fairleads.
189
ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING
What items must be known before using a typical cable rigging chart?
The size of the cable and ambient air temperature.
190
ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING
What are cable tension regulators?
They are mechanical devices that automatically maintain cable tension.
191
ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING
What is a cable fairlead?
A cable guide.
192
ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING
What is the purpose of vortex generators?
To provide for boundary layer air control.
193
ASSEMBLY AND RIGGING
What tools are primarily used to check control surface travel?
Protractors, rigging fixtures, contour templates, and rulers.
194
WELDING
What is the preferred method of welding magnesium?
Gas shielded arc weld.
195
WELDING
What is a safety hazard associated with welding magnesium?
If ignited, it is extremely hard to extinguish.
196
WELDING
What must be done in the weld zone to successfully weld titanium?
The weld zone must be shielded with an inert gas.
197
WELDING
Why is it necessary to use flux in all silver soldering?
To have the base metal chemically clean without the slightest film of oxide.
198
WELDING
What type of flame is used for silver soldering?
A soft neutral or slightly reducing flame.
199
WELDING
What type of repair could be made for a dented steel tube cluster joint?
Weld a formed steel patch plate over the dented area.
200
WELDING
What are three general types of welding?
Gas, Electric arc, and Electric resistance.
201
WELDING
How is a soft flame obtained without reducing thermal output?
By using a larger tip and adjusting the pressures.
202
WELDING
What is the most extensively used method of welding aluminum?
Gas shielded arc welding.
203
WELDING
What valve should be turned off first when extinguishing a torch?
The acetylene to allow gas in the tip to burn out.
204
WELDING
What procedure will control expansion when welding a joint?
Tack welding at intervals along the joint.
205
WELDING
What safety precaution should be taken when gas welding has been completed?
Turn off the valves and relieve all pressure.
206
WELDING
What must be done with heat-treated aluminum alloys after a welding repair has been made?
They must be reheat treated.
207
WELDING
What is the result of insufficient penetration?
A low strength weld.
208
WELDING
What is gas shielded arc welding?
A gas is used as a shield around the arc to prevent the atmosphere from contaminating the weld.
209
WELDING
What does the size of the torch tip opening determine?
The amount of heat, not the temperature.
210
SHEET METAL AND NON-METALLICS
What is done with the rivet head stem when a self-plugging (friction lock) rivet is installed?
It is drawn up into the rivet shank forming a plug in the hollow center of the rivet and continues until the excess portion of the stem breaks off at the groove.
211
SHEET METAL AND NON-METALLICS
Give an example of a self-plugging mechanical lock rivet.
CherryLOCK, CherryMAX, CherrySST, Huck, Huck-Clinch, or HuckMAX.
212
SHEET METAL AND NON-METALLICS
Describe the correct dimensions on a properly formed rivet head.
1-1/2 times the diameter wide, 1/2 times the diameter tall.
213
SHEET METAL AND NON-METALLICS
What is bonded honeycomb construction?
Two relatively thin, parallel face sheets bonded to and separated by a relatively thick, lightweight core.
214
SHEET METAL AND NON-METALLICS
Name two core materials used in special applications of bonded honeycomb construction?
Kraft paper, Thermoplastics, Aluminum steel, Titanium, Aramid paper, Fiberglass, Carbon, or Ceramics.
215
SHEET METAL AND NON-METALLICS
Name two causes of delamination or debond of a honeycomb construction.
(1) Matrix cracks. (2) High or low-energy impacts. (3) Subjected to repeated loading. (4) Liquid ingression. (5) Manufacturing/ production flaws [nonadhesion, poor fastener installation, improper hole-drillling, etc.,]
216
SHEET METAL AND NON-METALLICS
What is a potting compound repair used for in bonded honeycomb?
Hole filling.
217
SHEET METAL AND NON-METALLICS
What is done with the damaged area in bonded honeycomb?
The damaged area must be removed.
218
SHEET METAL AND NON-METALLICS
What will cause crazing in transparent plastic panels/ windshields?
Stress, improper handling, and harmful cleaning solvents.
219
SHEET METAL AND NON-METALLICS
What should be done to twist drills that are to be used for drilling completely through Plexiglass?
Drill must be free from nicks and burrs that would affect the surface finish. Grind the drill with an included angle of 150 degrees. The rake and angle should be zero in order to scrape, and not cut.
220
SHEET METAL AND NON-METALLICS
What calculation must be made when bending sheet metal?
Bend allowance and setback.
221
SHEET METAL AND NON-METALLICS
What must be done when two bends intersect?
Relief holes are drilled at the intersection.
222
SHEET METAL AND NON-METALLICS
What methods are used in forming sheet metal?
Shrinking, stretching, bumping, crimping, and folding.
223
SHEET METAL AND NON-METALLICS
What factors are used to determine setback?
The radius of the bend and the thickness of the material.
224
SHEET METAL AND NON-METALLICS
What is the purpose of lightning holes cut in rib sections?
To reduce weight.
225
SHEET METAL AND NON-METALLICS
What is joggle?
It is the offset formed on a part to allow clearance for a sheet or another mating part.
226
SHEET METAL AND NON-METALLICS
How do you determine the total length of a solid rivet for installation?
Grip length plus 1.5 times the shank diameter.
227
SHEET METAL AND NON-METALLICS
How do you determine the proper material to be used for a repair of an all metal aircraft?
Use the same type and thickness of the material that was used in the original structure.
228
SHEET METAL AND NON-METALLICS
What is the single row spacing and edge distance for protruding head rivets?
Edge distance is two times the diameter; spacing is three times the diameter.
229
SHEET METAL AND NON-METALLICS
Describe rivet head markings for A, B, D, AD, and DD rivets.
A: no marking (Plain 1100)
B: marked with a raised cross (5056)
D: marked with a raised dot (Tit 2024)
AD: marked with a dimple (2117)
DD: marked with a double dash (2017)
230
SHEET METAL AND NON-METALLICS
Describe the criteria for replacement of a 2024 rivet with a 2117 rivet for general repairs.
For 5/32 or less diameter, use the next larger size rivet (2117) assuming that spacing and edge distance meet minimum requirements.
231
AIRCRAFT FINISHES
What are the common types of paint used on aircraft?
Primers, enamels, lacquers, and multi-part finishing formulas (epoxies).
232
AIRCRAFT FINISHES
What is used with zinc chromate primer if it is too thick and needs to be thinned?
Toluene.
233
AIRCRAFT FINISHES
What are two types of dope used for aircraft finishes?
Nitrate and Butyrate.
234
AIRCRAFT FINISHES
What is the purpose of zinc chromate primer?
It serves as a corrosion resistant covering and base coat for protective topcoats.
235
AIRCRAFT FINISHES
Many of the solvents and thinners used in modern finishing systems are toxic; what health safety precaution should the mechanic observe?
Some form of respirator or mask must be worn when spraying.
236
AIRCRAFT FINISHES
What are three methods of applying paint?
Dipping, brushing, and spraying.
237
AIRCRAFT FINISHES
What paint system is compatible with epoxy topcoats?
Any paint system in good condition.
238
AIRCRAFT FINISHES
What is the cause of spray dust?
Incorrect spray gun setting of air pressure, paint flow; or spray pattern, or spray gun being held too far from the surface; or material being improperly thinned; or the wrong reducers being used with the finish coats.
239
AIRCRAFT FINISHES
What may cause spray paint sags and runs?
Applying too much paint to an area; or too much reducer in the paint (too thin; or incorrect spray gun setting or air-paint mixture)
240
AIRCRAFT FINISHES
What causes orange peel spray mottle?
Not enough reducer (too thick) or the wrong type reducer for the ambient temperature; or material not uniformly mixed; or forced drying method too quick; or too little flash time between coats; or ambient temperature is too hot or too cold.
241
AIRCRAFT FINISHES
What is blushing paint finish?
A dull milky haze that appears in a paint finish.
242
AIRCRAFT FINISHES
What will cause a blushing paint finish?
It occurs when moisture is trapped in the paint. Usually due to moisture in the air supply, adverse humidity, or changes in temperature.
243
AIRCRAFT FINISHES
What could be the result of applying a coat of dope when the temperature of the dope room is too high?
Pinholes in the dope film.
244
AIRCRAFT FINISHES
What areas must be protected from damage when using paint remover/ stripper?
All window material, vents and static ports, rubber seals and tires, and composite components that may be affected by the chemicals.
245
AIRCRAFT FINISHES
How can a mechanic determine if the control surfaces need to be checked for balance after painting?
Refer to the manufacturers service manual and/or contact the manufacturer.
246
AIRCRAFT COVERINGS
What two types of fabric are used for covering aircraft?
Organic and Polyester (synthetic).
247
AIRCRAFT COVERINGS
What are the organic fibers used for covering aircraft?
Cotton and Linen.
248
AIRCRAFT COVERINGS
What determines the quality and strength requirements for fabric covered aircraft?
The original manufacturer by the never-exceed speed and wing loading.
249
AIRCRAFT COVERINGS
What is the fabric warp?
The direction along the length of fabric.
250
AIRCRAFT COVERINGS
What is the purpose of reinforcing tape?
Most commonly used on rib caps after the fabric covering is installed to protect and strengthen the area for attaching the fabric to the ribs.
251
AIRCRAFT COVERINGS
What should be done to a structure that will be covered with doped fabric?
Dope proof it with a protective coating of an approved primer, or varnish if it is a wood structure. Cover sharp edges, metal seams, the heads of rivets, and any other feature that might cut or wear through with anti-chafe tape.
252
AIRCRAFT COVERINGS
What is one advantage of the envelope method of covering wings?
Saves time by using precut and pre-sewn envelopes; or, envelopes must be sewn with approved machine sewing thread, edge distance, fabric fold, etc,; or, envelopes are slid into position, oriented with the seams in the proper place.
253
AIRCRAFT COVERINGS
How are ventilation and drainage hole edges reinforced?
With plastic, or aluminum grommets.
254
AIRCRAFT COVERINGS
What methods are used to check the condition of doped fabric?
A test strip, punch tester, or when results are marginal, a laboratory test is needed.
255
AIRCRAFT COVERINGS
What is the maximum permissible deterioration for used aircraft fabric?
30 percent of the original fabric strength.
256
AIRCRAFT COVERINGS
What is fabric selvage edge?
An edge of cloth woven to prevent raveling.
257
AIRCRAFT COVERINGS
What rib lace spacing is used when the original spacing is unknown?
Use the chart in AC 43.13-1B.
258
AIRCRAFT COVERINGS
What is a tie-off knot?
A modified seine knot is normally used on all stitches other than the starting stitch.
259
WOOD STRUCTURES
What forms of wood, other than solid wood, are used in aircraft?
Laminated and plywood.
260
WOOD STRUCTURES
What is a laminated wood assembly?
Two or more layers glued together with the grain of all layers approximately parallel.
261
WOOD STRUCTURES
How is aircraft plywood constructed?
It is usually made of an odd number of thin plies, or veneers, with the grain of each layer placed 90 degrees with the adjacent ply or plies.
262
WOOD STRUCTURES
What species of wood is used as a standard for strength properties?
Spruce.
263
WOOD STRUCTURES
How would you inspect wood for rot?
Inspect for a dark discoloration of the wood surface or gray stains along the grain.
264
WOOD STRUCTURES
What types of glues are used in aircraft wood structure repair?
Casein glue, plastic resin glue, resorcinol glue, and epoxy adhesives.
265
WOOD STRUCTURES
What effects do room temperature have on gluing wood structures using resin glue?
Curing time as well as joint strength.
266
WOOD STRUCTURES
When are mineral streaks acceptable?
If inspection fails to reveal any decay.
267
WOOD STRUCTURES
Are hard knots acceptable?
Yes, within specified limitations.
268
WOOD STRUCTURES
Why is compression wood not acceptable?
It is very detrimental to strength.
269
WOOD STRUCTURES
Why is it necessary to examine all stains and discoloration carefully?
To determine whether or not they are harmless, or preliminary, or advanced decay.
270
WOOD STRUCTURES
Why are light steel bushings sometimes used in wooden structures?
To prevent crushing the wood when the bolts are tightened.
271
WOOD STRUCTURES
What are the results of insufficient gluing pressure?
Thick glue lines and a weak joint.
272
WOOD STRUCTURES
What methods are used to apply pressure to wood glue joints?
Clamps, elastic straps, weight, vacuum bags, brads, nails, screws, or the use of electric and hydraulic power presses.
273
WOOD STRUCTURES
What type of joint is generally used in splicing structural members?
A scarf joint.
274
WOOD STRUCTURES
Why does the strength of a beveled scarf joint depend on the accuracy of the beveled cut?
The effective glue area will be reduced if both beveled cuts are not the same.
275
WOOD STRUCTURES
Always splice and reinforce plywood webs with what type of wood?
The same type of plywood as the original.
276
WOOD STRUCTURES
What method will prevent a patch and a plywood pressure plate from adhering together due to extruding glue from the patch?
The use of waxed paper between the patch and pressure plate.
277
WOOD STRUCTURES
What areas of a wood spar may not be spliced?
Under a wing attachment, landing gear, engine mount, and lift strut fitting.
278
WOOD STRUCTURES
What is the maximum number of splices that should be made to any one spar?
Two.
279
WOOD STRUCTURES
What is the minimum temperature for curing wood joints with resin glue?
70 degrees F.
