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Airspace & Airport Flashcards

(79 cards)

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1
Q
A
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2
Q

Ceiling of Class B can be anywhere between what altitudes?

A

7,000 to 12,500’ MSL

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3
Q

Is there Class A over Hawaii?

A

No.

And Victor airways have no upper limit

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4
Q

When do you need ADS-B Out?

A
  1. Class A, B, C
  2. within 30 nm of Class B from surface to 10,000’ MSL
  3. within lateral boundaries of Class B or C upward to 10,000’ MSL
  4. All Class E at and above 10,000’ MSL within 48 CONUS (excluding at & below 2,500’ AGL)
  5. Class E at and above 3,000’ MSL over Gulf of Mexico from the coastline out to 12 nm
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5
Q

Explain the airspace

A

Class E that goes down to 700’ AGL to accommodate instrument approaches

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6
Q

Explain the airspace

A
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7
Q

What is this?

A
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8
Q

If operating off a VOR when do you need to have DME?

A

operating at or above 24,000’ MSL

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9
Q

What is the maximum speed in Class A?

A

Mach 1

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10
Q

What do Class E transition areas do?

A

Allow ATC to provide service to IFR traffic flying in and out of airports

designed to protect approaching IFR traffic by raising the visibility minimums for any VFR traffic buzzing around

VFR in G = 1 sm/clear of clouds (day)
VFR in E = 3 sm/1000’ ceiling

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11
Q

What must you have in order to accept a visual approach?

A
  1. airport must be VFR
  2. a/c must remain within Class B
  3. maintain the basic cloud clearance
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12
Q

What is a satellite airport?

A

Any other airport within Class C airspace

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13
Q

What must Class D airspace have?

A

Weather reporting

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14
Q

When a Class D tower closes, what makes it revert to either Class E or Class G?

A

depends on the availability of a certified weather observer or automated system

if weather reporting is maintained - Class E

if weather reporting is not available - Class G

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15
Q

What does NFCT mean on a sectional chart?

A

Non Federal Control Tower

controllers who work Class D airports are not FAA employees

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16
Q

Describe the airspace altitude

A

-30 = surface up to but not including that value

usually found at airports under Class B airspace

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17
Q

What must Class E airports have?

A

Weather reporting and communications with ATC to the surface

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18
Q

If you want to depart from a Class E airport and the weather is less than 1000’ and 3 miles visibility what do you require?

A

Special VFR clearance

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19
Q

In order to cancel IFR to an uncontrolled airport…

A
  1. airport must be reporting VFR and a/c maintain basic cloud clearance
  2. crew be in direct communications with ATC
  3. flight must be operated within 10nm of destination airfield OR visual reference with the landing surface is established and can be maintained
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20
Q

What does TRSA stand for and what is it?

A

Terminal Radar Service Area

radar available to assist the tower outside its Class D airspace

can be thought of a Class D with radar coverage

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21
Q

Do TRSA radar and tower function independently?

A

Yes

But treat it like its a Class C airport

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22
Q

Is radio participation in a TRSA mandatory?

A

No. It is voluntary but highly recommended

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23
Q

If a MOA is hot, can IFR traffic be cleared through the MOA?

A

Yes, if IFR separation can be provided by ATC

otherwise ATC will reroute non-participating IFR traffic

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24
Q

How much separation are controllers required to provide IFR traffic from any special use airspace?

A

3 miles

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25
What are the defined dimensions of a Warning Area and what is its purpose?
extending from 3 nm outward from the coast of the US warn pilots of activity that may be hazardous to non-participating a/c
26
List the SUA
Prohibited Area Restricted Area MOA Warning Area Alert Area Controlled Firing Area
27
Define Alert Area Who is responsible of collision avoidance?
may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity participating a/c and a/c transitioning the area are equally responsible
28
Do you need to chart CFAs?
No, they do not cause non-participating a/c to change its flight path activities are suspended immediately when spotter a/c, radar, or ground lookouts indicate an a/c may be approaching the area
29
Sectional charts depict which MTRs? Low Altitude En Route charts depict which MTRs?
Sectional - all MTRs Low Altitude - all MTRs above 1,500' AGL
30
Difference between MTRs with 3 and 4 numbers
3 numbers - include one or more segments above 1,500' AGL 4 numbers - no segment above 1,500' AGL
31
What does SLOP stand for?
Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure
32
What is the DC FRZ and DC SFRA? What is the radius around what?
FRZ - Flight Restricted Zone SFRA - Special Flight Rules Area 30 NM radius of DCA VOR
33
What does ADIZ stand for? What is it?
Air Defense Identification Zone airspace over land or water in which the ready identification, location, and control of all a/c (except DoD/law enforcement) is required in the interest of national security
34
What is DVFR?
Defense Visual Flight Rules flight within an ADIZ conducted by any a/c (except DoD/law enforcement) IAW VFR
35
What flight plans must be filed to fly within an ADIZ?
IFR or DVFR flight plan DVFR flight plan contains time penetrating ADIZ and must depart w/i 5 minutes of est. departure time
36
Where can you find ALD (available landing distance) for LAHSO operations?
in the "special notices" section of the Chart Supplement and on approach charts
37
What is the minimum weather acceptable to receive a LAHSO clearance?
1000' ceiling 3 SM visibility dry runway no tailwind
38
All turns in the traffic pattern must be made in which direction?
Left (unless otherwise indicated) abbreviation RP will be depicted on sectional if turns are to the right
39
Define a straight-in approach
aligned within 30 degrees of the runway centerline at least 5 miles out
40
What is MSAW (at larger airports)
Minimum Safe Altitude Warning -calculates your descent rate -alarm sounds in tower and TRACON and LA (low altitude) flashes in your radar data tag
41
What are the beacon colors for a lighted land airport and military airport?
Lighted Land Airport - white and green (or green alone) Military - 2 white flashes and 1 green
42
Operation of the airport beacon during daylight hours can indicate what?
Ceiling less than 1,000' and/or visibility less than 3 SM
43
What markings do precision runways always have?
side strips touchdown zone markings
44
Describe runway edge lights
Threshold lights - fixed green lights White lights down the edges Yellow lights replace white on last 2,000' or half of the runway, whichever is less, to form a caution zone Threshold End lights - red
45
What are REIL
Runway End Identifier Lights Green flashing lights placed on corners of threshold effective to identify runway when surrounded by other lights
46
Threshold markings
47
Describe the touchdown zone markings
identify the touchdown zone for landing Touchdown zone = first 3,000' 500' increments shorter runways may eliminate one or more pairs
48
What is TDZE
Touchdown Zone Elevation highest elevation in the first 3,000' of runway
49
Describe the aiming point markings
aiming point for landing also called 1000 footers (technically 1020' since threshold markings are 20' from threshold)
50
When are aiming point markings required on a runway?
on 4,200 ft or longer instrumented runways
51
Describe centerline markings
120 ft long with 80 ft gaps vary in width depending on if precision, NP, or visual runways (36" P / 18" NP / 12" V)
52
What is blue arrow called
Threshold Bar marks beginning of runway available when threshold has been relocated or displaced
53
Describe the yellow paint (chevrons, lines, bar)
Yellow Chevrons - unusable for landing, takeoff, and taxi Yellow paint - taxi only Demarcation bar - delineates a runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway, or taxiway that precedes the runway
54
What can you do on a displaced threshold?
takeoff in either direction land from opposite direction CANNOT land in direction of arrows
55
Does a displaced threshold mark the end of a runway?
No
56
What are the 6 airport signs?
Runway Distance Remaining Location Mandatory Instructions Direction Destination Information
57
Runway Distance Remaining may be installed along one or both sides of runway
58
Location Sign no arrow identify a taxiway, or runway location, or ILS critical area
59
Mandatory Instruction denotes entrance to a runway, critical area, or prohibited area
60
Direction identifies the designation of the intersecting taxiway(s) leading out of an intersection accompanied by an arrow indicating the direction of the turn
61
Destination information on locating things such as runways, terminals, cargo areas, and civil aviation areas
62
What type of sign is this and what does the black dot mean?
Destination when two or more destinations have a common taxiing route
63
Information information on such things as areas that cannot be seen from control tower, applicable radio frequencies, and noise abatement procedures
64
How are runway centerline lights placed?
50 ft intervals offset max of 2 ft to either the right or left side of the centerline marking should be on the opposite side of the centerline marking from the major taxi turnoffs
65
What are the colors of the centerline lights?
White until the last 3,000 ft white and red alternating for the next 2,000 ft red for the last 1,000 ft
66
Describe TDZL (Touchdown Zone Lighting)
two rows of light bars at 100' increments on either side of the runway centerline white lights starting 100' beyond threshold and extend to 3,000 ft or midpoint of the runway, whichever is less
67
Pilot controlled lighting Negative symbology means PCL
68
What does the dot indicate?
sequenced flashing lights installed with the approach lighting system
69
What does this mean?
Pilot controlled lighting for whatever A5 is and the dot means there is a sequenced flashing light installed with that system
70
What color are taxiway edge lights and centerline lights?
Edge lights - blue Centerline lights - green
71
What are the 2 components of a Runway Status Lights (RWSL) System?
Runway Entrance Lights (REL) Takeoff Hold Lights (THL)
72
What do REL do? When do REL turn on? (Runway Entrance Lights)
indicate there is high speed traffic on the runway or there is an a/c on final approach Departing a/c - reach 30 kts then lights illuminate Arriving a/c - 1 mile from the threshold
73
How far do THL extend? What do THL do? When do they turn on? (Takeoff Hold Lights)
extend for 1,500 ft provide signal to a/c in takeoff position that it is unsafe to takeoff bc runway is occupied illuminate when another a/c is on the runway or about to enter the runway
74
What are these?
Runway Guard Lights (aka Wig Wags) installed at taxiway/runway intersections flashing yellow lights on either side of the taxiway at the runway holding position marking
75
How do airport operators issue Runway Condition Codes (RCC)?
they use Takeoff and Landing Performance Assessment (TALPA) standards based on the Runway Condition Assessment Matrix (RCAM) and report FICON NOTAMS
76
What does a FICON NOTAM stand for?
Field Condition
77
How are RCCs divided up?
vary for each third of the runway and use Percentage (PRCT) based reporting
78
Can controllers issue multiple runway crossing clearances at the same time?
No...UNLESS the distance between 2 runway centerlines is less than 1000 ft (think parallel runways)
79
What is that?
Runway Half-way Sign reference point to judge takeoff acceleration trends typical takeoff acceleration should allow ac to reach 70% of lift-off speed by the midpoint of the runway

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