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AIRWAYS EXAM 1 > AIRWAY INFECTIONS, BURNS, RELATED BONE AND JOINT DISEASES > Flashcards

AIRWAY INFECTIONS, BURNS, RELATED BONE AND JOINT DISEASES Flashcards

1
Q

name 4 upper airway infections common in children

A

acute epiglottitis

croup

laryngotracheobronchitis

tonsilitis

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2
Q

what tool would be used for surgery on a peritonsillar abscess?

A

mcivor mouth gag

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3
Q

what would be the airway management plan for a pt with pertonsillar abscess?

A

general/anode oett

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4
Q

definition: spasm of the jaw muscles, causing the mouth to remain tightly closed

A

trismus

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5
Q

what are two complications related to peritonsillar abscess?

A

partial airway obstruction

trismus

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6
Q

what tools should be available for intubation for peritonsillar abscess surgery?

A

anode ett

+/- FFOB

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7
Q

definition: connective tissue infection that occurs on the floor of the mouth under the tongue

A

ludwig’s angina

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8
Q

what is the best course of airway management for Ludwig’s angina?

A

FFOB NETT sedation

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9
Q

what is the appropriate induction plan for Ludwig’s angina?

A

IV after intubation complete & confirmed

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10
Q

what is the most appropriate post-op airway management for ludwig’s angina?

A

patient will remain intubated

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11
Q

what is the appropriate emergence plan for ludwig’s angina?

A

sedation with propofol infustion

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12
Q

definition: (greek - ankhon) strangling

A

angina

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13
Q

what is the appropriate induction plan for a case of pediatric acute epiglottitis?

A

single-breath sevoflurane induction

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14
Q

appropriate postop airway management for pediatric epiglottitis?

A

patient will remain intubated

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15
Q

appropriate emergence plan for pediatric acute epiglottitis?

A

complete sedation with possible nmb

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16
Q

what are the symptoms that present with pediatric acute epiglottitis?

A

fever, drooling, difficulty swallowing

sitting upright, leaning forward, drooling

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17
Q

how does resolution of acute epiglottitis appear?

A

decreased WBC, fever abates, air leak develops

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18
Q

what airway complications present with retropharyngeal abscess?

A

partial airway obstruction

limited nasopharyngeal access

infection limits topical pharyngeal anesthesia

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19
Q

what is the major airway management periop risk associated with surgery for chronoic recurrent tonsillitis?

A

postop hemorrhage

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20
Q

what is the male:female ratio of thermal injury?

A

69:31

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21
Q

what is the survival rate of thermal injuries?

A

96.6%

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22
Q

how many burn centers are there in the US?

A

62 (in 29 states)

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23
Q

what are the two major types of burns?

A

fire/flame

scalds

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24
Q

where do most thermal injuries occur?

A

72% – home

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25
Q

what is the percentage of burn patients that have inhalational injury?

A

33% of burn pts have inhalational injuries

26
Q

name four types of inhalational injuries

A

hot, dry gases

steam

toxic/ chemical/ irritating gases

smoke

27
Q

how should the assessment of airway injury be approached?

A

current vs projected status

28
Q

how should the assessment of the cardiovascular effects be conducted?

A

current vs. projected cardiovascular effects

29
Q

what is the primary goal of airway management of thermal/chemical injuries?

A

maintain airway patency and oxygenate

30
Q

what are the related pathophysiologies related to fire-thermal injuries?

A

CO poisoning

CN poisoning

aspiration

31
Q

what would be included in current status airway assessment of thermal injury if airway directly involved?

A

facial, oral, nasal burns

singed nasal hairs

32
Q

what would be included in projected status of airway assessment of thermal injuries if airway directly involved?

A

laryngeal edema – rapid loss of airway patency

33
Q

why is tracheostomy contraindicated in thermal injury pts?

A

risk of wound and mediastinal infection

34
Q

at what pressure at which air leak is audible is discontinuation of airway support acceptable/unacceptable?

A

5-10cmH2O – acceptable

> 20cmH2O – unacceptable

35
Q

definition: released by cellulosic conflagration: denatures protein; produces pulmonary edema (10ppm)

A

acrolein

36
Q

released by polyurethane conflagration

A

CN

37
Q

released by fires and incomplete combustion

A

CO

38
Q

released by PVC conflagration; severe mucosal burns in airway

A

HCl

39
Q

what is the goal of initial burn treatment?

A

debridement and burn dressing changes

40
Q

what is the goal of long-term burn treatment?

A

plastic/ other surgeries

41
Q

definition: immobility

A

ankylosis

42
Q

definition: inflammation of joint

A

arthritis

43
Q

definition: pertaining to vertebra(e) or spine

A

spondyl(o)-

44
Q

definition: vertebral inflammation

A

spondylitis

45
Q

definition: partial displacement of a joint

A

subluxation

46
Q

definition: cervical vertebral fusion + short neck + low hairline; C-spine: 2-7 vertebrae

A

kippel-feil syndrome

47
Q

definition: small posterior fossa, caudal displacement, hydrocephalus

A

arnold-chiari malformation

48
Q

definition: inflammatory, multiple organ disease; C-spine, TMJ, cricoarytenoid joint; progressive and devastating

A

juevenile rheumatoid arthritis

49
Q

definition: an extremely short individual with disproportionate body parts

A

dwarfism

50
Q

what type of dwarfism is autosomal dominant; development disorder with decreased proliferation of growth plate cartilage

A

achonddroplastic dwarfism

51
Q

what is the airway complication most often observed in pts with achondroplastic dwarfism?

A

cervical instability – due to premature fusion of bones at base of skull

52
Q

definition: synovial inflammation and granulation with insidious onset progressing to cartilaginous destruction; presents with morning stiffness

A

polyarthropy

53
Q

how does rheumatic arthritis affect lower c-spine?

A

decreased flexion

54
Q

how does rheumatic arthritis affect atlanto-occipital joint?

A

decrease extension

55
Q

how does rheumatic arthritis affect TMJ movement?

A

decreased rotation/gliding – decreased mouth opening

56
Q

how does rheumatic arthritis affect cricoarytenoid joints?

A

decreased rotation/gliding – hoarseness/ stridor/ dyspnea

57
Q

also known as marie-strumpell disease, a progressive arthritis of spine and pelvis; a flexion deformity of the spine with fixed cervical spine

A

ankylosing spondylitis – spondyloarthropathy

58
Q

degenerative joint disease of TMJ presents how?

A

degeneration of articular cartilage – limited inflammation and pain with use

59
Q

degenerative joint disease of the cervical spine presents how?

A

limited movement, pain, paresthesias, motor involvement

60
Q

definition: grating, crackling or popping sounds between bone and cartilage or fractured parts of bone

A

crepitus

61
Q
A

AIRWAYS EXAM 1 (6 decks)

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