Airway management Flashcards

(38 cards)

1
Q

Oropharyngeal airway - features

A

Easy to insert and use
No paralysis required
Ideal for very short procedures
Most often used as bridge to more definitive airway

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2
Q

Laryngeal mask features

A

Widely used
Very easy to insert
Device sits in pharynx and aligns to cover the airway
Poor control against reflux of gastric contents
Paralysis not usually required
Commonly used for wide range of anaesthetic uses, especially in day surgery
Not suitable for high pressure ventilation (small amount of PEEP often possible)

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3
Q

Tracheostomy features

A

Reduces the work of breathing (and dead space)
May be useful in slow weaning
Percutaneous tracheostomy widely used in ITU
Dries secretions, humidified air usually required

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4
Q

Endotracheal tube features

A

Provides optimal control of the airway once cuff inflated
May be used for long or short term ventilation
Errors in insertion may result in oesophageal intubation (therefore end tidal CO2 usually measured)
Paralysis often required
Higher ventilation pressures can be used

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5
Q

ASA I definition and example

A

Normal healthy patient

Healthy, non-smoker, no or minimal alcohol use

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6
Q

ASA II definition and example

A

A patient with mild systemic disease
Mild diseases only without substantive functional limitations. Examples include (but not limited to): current smoker, social alcohol drinker, pregnancy, obesity (BMI 30 - 40), well-controlled Diabetes Mellitus/Hypertension, mild lung disease

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7
Q

ASA III definition and example

A

A patient with severe systemic disease
Substantive function limitations. One or more moderate to severe diseases.
Poorly controlled Diabetes mellitus/ hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity (DMI >40), active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse.
Implanted pacemaker

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8
Q

ASA IV definition and example

A

Patient with severe systemic disease - constant threat to life
recent (< 3 months) of Myocardial infarction, Cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischaemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis

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9
Q

ASA V definition and example

A

Moribund patient not expected to survive without operation
Ruptured AAA, massive trauma, intra-cranial bleed with mass effect
Ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology or multiple organ/ system dysfunction

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10
Q

Propofol specificities

A

GABA receptor agonist
Rapid onset of anaesthesia
Pain on IV injection
Rapidly metabolised with little accumulation of metabolites
Proven anti emetic properties
Moderate myocardial depression
Widely used especially for maintaining sedation on ITU, total IV anaesthesia and for daycase surgery

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11
Q

Sodium thiopentone specific features

A
Extremely rapid onset of action making it the agent of choice for rapid sequence of induction
Marked myocardial depression may occur
Metabolites build up quickly
Unsuitable for maintenance infusion
Little analgesic effects
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12
Q

Ketamine features

A
  • NMDA receptor antagonist
  • May be used for induction of anaesthesia
  • Has moderate to strong analgesic properties
  • Produces little myocardial depression making it a suitable agent for anaesthesia in those who are haemodynamically unstable
    May induce state of dissociative anaesthesia resulting in nightmares
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13
Q

Etomidate features

A

Has favorable cardiac safety profile with very little haemodynamic instability
No analgesic properties
Unsuitable for maintaining sedation as prolonged (and even brief) use may result in adrenal suppression
Post operative vomiting is common

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14
Q

Which surgeries only need group and save due to unlikely chance of transfusion

A

Hysterectomy (simple), appendicectomy, thyroidectomy, elective lower segment caesarean section, laparoscopic cholecystectomy

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15
Q

Which surgeries are likely to need tranfusion so need to cross-match 2 units

A

Salpingectomy for ruptured ectopic pregnancy, total hip replacement

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16
Q

Which surgeries definitely need tranfusion and so 4-6 units of blood need to be cross-matched?

A

Total gastrectomy, oophorectomy, oesophagectomy

Elective AAA repair, cystectomy, hepatectomy

17
Q

Inhaled anaesthetic example

18
Q

Halothane side-effects

A

Hepatotoxicity, myocardial depression malignant hyperthermia

19
Q

Intravenous anaesthetics example

20
Q

Adverse effects of thiopental

A

Laryngospasm and highly lipid soluble so quickly affects the brain

21
Q

Why is malignant hyperthermia often seen following administration of anaesthetic agents?

A

characterised by hyperpyrexia and muscle rigidity
cause by excessive release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle
associated with defects in a gene on chromosome 19 encoding the ryanodine receptor, which controls Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion
neuroleptic malignant syndrome may have a similar aetiology

22
Q

Causative agents of malignant hyperthermia

A

halothane
suxamethonium
other drugs: antipsychotics (neuroleptic malignant syndrome)

23
Q

Ix for malignant hyperthermia

A

CK raised

contracture tests with halothane and caffeine

24
Q

Management of malignant hyperthermia

A

dantrolene - prevents Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

25
Three main muscle relaxants
Suxamethonium, Atracurium, vecuronium, Pancuronium
26
Which is the most commonly used DEPOLARISING neuromuscular blocker
Suxamethonium - fastest onset and shorter duration of action of all muscle relaxants Produces generalised muscular contraction prior to paralysis
27
Features of atracurium (moa, duration of action, where is it excreted)
Non depolarising neuromuscular blocking drug Duration of action usually 30-45 minutes Generalised histamine release on administration may produce facial flushing, tachycardia and hypotension Not excreted by liver or kidney, broken down in tissues by hydrolysis Reversed by neostigmine
28
Vecuronium MOA, duration of action, degraded by liver an kidney and effects
Non depolarising neuromuscular blocking drug Duration of action approximately 30 - 40 minutes Degraded by liver and kidney and effects prolonged in organ dysfunction Effects may be reversed by neostigmine
29
Pancuronium moa, onset of action, duration of action
Non depolarising neuromuscular blocker Onset of action approximately 2-3 minutes Duration of action up to 2 hours Effects may be partially reversed with drugs such as neostigmine
30
Which type of airway management is used for patients having seizures
Nasopharyngeal airway | OPA may not work
31
What is the main contraindication to inserting an OPA
Contraindication is base of skull fractures
32
MOA of depolarising neuromuscular blocking drugs
Binds to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors resulting in persistent depolarization of the motor end plate
33
Examples of depolarising neuromuscular blocking drugs
Succinylcholine- suxamethonium
34
Adverse effects of succinylcholine
Malignant hyperthermia | Hyperkalaemia (normally transient)
35
Contraindications for succinylcholine
Suxamethonium is contraindicated for patients with penetrating eye injuries or acute narrow angle glaucoma, as suxamethonium increases intra-ocular pressure
36
MOA of non-depolarising neuromuscular drugs
Competitive antagonist of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
37
Examples of non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking drugs
Tubcurarine, atracurium, vecuronium, pancuronium
38
Adverse effects of non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking drugs
Hypotension