AKI Flashcards
(242 cards)
A 65-year-old male patient with a baseline serum creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL is admitted with acute kidney injury. His current serum creatinine is 2.9 mg/dL, and his urine output has been 0.4 mL/kg/h for the past 14 hours. According to the staging system in Table 310-1, what is the severity of his AKI?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Not classifiable
Answer: B (Stage 2)
Explanation: The patient meets Stage 2 criteria: serum creatinine is 2.0–2.9 times baseline (2.9 mg/dL vs. 1.0 mg/dL) and urine output is <0.5 mL/kg/h for ≥12 hours.
A 12-year-old patient with acute kidney injury has an eGFR of 30 mL/min per 1.73 m². According to Table 310-1, which of the following statements is correct?
A. The patient meets Stage 3 criteria due to eGFR <35 mL/min per 1.73 m².
B. The patient meets Stage 2 criteria because serum creatinine is not provided.
C. The patient does not meet AKI criteria because eGFR is not used for staging in adults.
D. The patient must have anuria for ≥12 hours to qualify for Stage 3.
Answer: A (The patient meets Stage 3 criteria due to eGFR <35 mL/min per 1.73 m².)
Explanation: For patients <18 years, a decrease in eGFR to <35 mL/min per 1.73 m² qualifies as Stage 3 AKI, per the table.
Which of the following scenarios would classify a patient as having Stage 1 AKI based on Table 310-1?
A. Serum creatinine increases from 1.2 mg/dL to 1.6 mg/dL, and urine output is 0.4 mL/kg/h for 8 hours.
B. Serum creatinine increases from 1.8 mg/dL to 3.6 mg/dL, and urine output is 0.2 mL/kg/h for 24 hours.
C. Serum creatinine is 4.5 mg/dL (newly elevated), and the patient is anuric for 6 hours.
D. Serum creatinine is 2.5 times baseline, and urine output is 0.3 mL/kg/h for 18 hours.
Answer: A (Serum creatinine increases from 1.2 mg/dL to 1.6 mg/dL, and urine output is 0.4 mL/kg/h for 8 hours.)
Explanation: This meets Stage 1 criteria: creatinine increase ≥0.3 mg/dL (0.4 mg/dL) OR 1.5–1.9 times baseline, and urine output <0.5 mL/kg/h for 6–12 hours.
What is the myogenic reflex in relation to the afferent arteriole?
It leads to dilation in the setting of low perfusion pressure, maintaining glomerular perfusion.
This reflex is a response to changes in blood pressure within the renal arterioles.
Which vasodilator substances are synthesized intrarenally in response to low renal perfusion pressure?
Prostaglandins (prostacyclin, prostaglandin E2), kallikrein, kinins, and possibly nitric oxide (NO).
These substances help in regulating blood flow within the kidneys.
What is tubuloglomerular feedback?
A mechanism where decreases in solute delivery to the macula densa elicit dilation of the afferent arteriole to maintain glomerular perfusion.
The macula densa are specialized cells located in the distal tubule.
What role does nitric oxide (NO) play in tubuloglomerular feedback?
It mediates the dilation of the afferent arteriole in response to decreased solute delivery.
NO is a key signaling molecule in various physiological processes.
What is the limit of renal autoregulation during systemic hypotension?
Renal autoregulation usually fails once systolic blood pressure falls below 80 mmHg.
This indicates a critical threshold for maintaining glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
True or False: Autoregulation mechanisms can always maintain GFR regardless of systemic blood pressure.
False.
There are limits to these counterregulatory mechanisms.
A 72-year-old patient with heart failure is admitted with worsening renal function. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, and his serum creatinine has risen from 1.2 mg/dL to 1.8 mg/dL over 48 hours. Urinalysis shows no casts or cellular debris. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism contributing to his acute kidney injury?
A. Direct tubular toxicity from nephrotoxic medications
B. Glomerular inflammation due to immune complex deposition
C. Reduced intraglomerular hydrostatic pressure from decreased renal perfusion
D. Obstructive uropathy from bladder outlet obstruction
Answer: C (Reduced intraglomerular hydrostatic pressure from decreased renal perfusion)
Explanation: The patient’s presentation (hypotension, elevated creatinine without active sediment) is classic for prerenal azotemia, where reduced renal perfusion leads to decreased glomerular filtration. This is reversible with restoration of blood flow.
A 55-year-old woman with osteoarthritis develops acute kidney injury after starting high-dose ibuprofen for chronic back pain. Her serum creatinine increases from 0.9 mg/dL to 1.4 mg/dL. Which of the following best explains the pathophysiology of her AKI?
A. NSAIDs inhibit angiotensin II, reducing efferent arteriolar constriction.
B. NSAIDs block prostaglandin-mediated afferent arteriolar vasodilation.
C. NSAIDs cause direct tubular necrosis due to oxidative stress.
D. NSAIDs induce glomerular capillary inflammation.
Answer: B (NSAIDs block prostaglandin-mediated afferent arteriolar vasodilation.)
Explanation: NSAIDs impair renal autoregulation by inhibiting prostaglandins, which normally dilate the afferent arteriole to maintain glomerular perfusion. This reduces intraglomerular pressure and GFR, leading to prerenal azotemia.
Which of the following clinical scenarios is most likely to progress from prerenal azotemia to acute tubular necrosis (ATN)?
A. A patient with mild dehydration who receives IV fluids within 6 hours.
B. A patient with septic shock and prolonged hypotension (>12 hours).
C. A patient with nephrotic syndrome and heavy proteinuria.
D. A patient with unilateral renal artery stenosis.
Answer: B (A patient with septic shock and prolonged hypotension (>12 hours).)
Explanation: Prolonged renal hypoperfusion (e.g., from severe hypotension) can lead to ischemic tubular necrosis, transitioning from reversible prerenal azotemia to intrinsic AKI (ATN).
What factors determine the robustness of the autoregulatory response and the risk of prerenal azotemia?
Atherosclerosis, long-standing hypertension, and older age
These factors lead to hyalinosis and myointimal hyperplasia, resulting in structural narrowing of intrarenal arterioles.
What is the effect of CKD on renal afferent vasodilation?
It may operate at maximal capacity to maximize GFR in response to reduced functional renal mass
This is a compensatory mechanism due to the loss of renal function.
How do NSAIDs affect renal function?
They inhibit renal prostaglandin production, limiting renal afferent vasodilation
This can reduce the kidney’s ability to increase blood flow in response to low perfusion.
What is the role of ACE inhibitors and ARBs in renal function?
They limit renal efferent vasoconstriction
This effect is important in maintaining GFR, especially in cases of renal artery stenosis.
In which patients is the effect of ACE inhibitors and ARBs particularly pronounced?
Patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis or unilateral renal artery stenosis
This is critical when there is a solitary functioning kidney.
What is the risk associated with the combined use of NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors or ARBs?
It poses a particularly high risk for developing prerenal azotemia
This combination can severely impair the autoregulatory mechanisms of the kidneys.
Fill in the blank: Atherosclerosis, long-standing hypertension, and older age can lead to ______.
hyalinosis and myointimal hyperplasia
A 68-year-old man with a history of hypertension and coronary artery disease presents with oliguria and a serum creatinine increase from 1.1 mg/dL to 2.3 mg/dL over 48 hours. He was recently started on lisinopril and ibuprofen for back pain. Which of the following is the most likely contributing mechanism to his AKI?
A. Acute tubular necrosis from rhabdomyolysis
B. Postrenal obstruction due to benign prostatic hyperplasia
C. Prerenal azotemia from impaired renal autoregulation
D. Glomerulonephritis secondary to immune complex deposition
Answer: C (Prerenal azotemia from impaired renal autoregulation)
Explanation: The combination of ACE-I (lisinopril) and NSAIDs (ibuprofen) disrupts renal autoregulation by reducing efferent arteriolar constriction (ACE-I) and blocking compensatory afferent vasodilation (NSAIDs), leading to decreased GFR. This is a classic prerenal azotemia scenario.
A 45-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) develops AKI with hematuria, proteinuria, and red blood cell casts on urinalysis. Her blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her AKI?
A. Prerenal azotemia from hypovolemia
B. Intrinsic AKI due to acute glomerulonephritis
C. Postrenal obstruction from nephrolithiasis
D. Tubular injury from aminoglycoside toxicity
Answer: B (Intrinsic AKI due to acute glomerulonephritis)
Explanation: The findings of hematuria, proteinuria, and RBC casts point to glomerular inflammation, likely lupus nephritis, a form of intrinsic AKI. Hypertension further supports glomerular pathology
A 60-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer presents with anuria and a serum creatinine of 5.8 mg/dL (baseline 1.0 mg/dL). Renal ultrasound reveals bilateral hydronephrosis. Which of the following is the most urgent intervention?
A. Intravenous fluids to restore renal perfusion
B. High-dose glucocorticoids for vasculitis
C. Relief of bladder outlet obstruction with a Foley catheter
D. Discontinuation of NSAIDs
Answer: C (Relief of bladder outlet obstruction with a Foley catheter)
Explanation: Anuria + bilateral hydronephrosis indicates postrenal AKI from obstruction (e.g., prostate cancer compressing the urethra). Immediate catheterization is required to restore urine flow.
What hemodynamic profile do individuals with advanced liver disease exhibit?
A profile resembling prerenal azotemia in the setting of total-body volume overload
This is characterized by reduced systemic vascular resistance due to primary arterial vasodilation in the splanchnic circulation.
What activates vasoconstrictor responses in advanced liver disease?
Primary arterial vasodilation in the splanchnic circulation
This results in a hemodynamic profile similar to hypovolemia.