AKT Flashcards
(289 cards)
1
Q
120mg oral morphine daily dose is equivalent to __mg in a subcut driver
A
60
2
Q
BNF antibiotic guidelines: mastitis
A
Flucloxacillin
2
Q
Prediabetic obese class II patients should be considered for which medication
A
Liraglutide
3
Q
BNF antibiotic guidelines: dental abscess
A
Amoxicillin
4
Q
Arteriolar narrowing + tortuosity, silver wiring, AV nipping, cotton wool exudates, flame and blot haemorrhages are features of
A
Hypertensive retinopathy
5
Q
How long is Mirena licensed for use as part of HRT?
A
4 years
6
Q
_____ may be used in patients with stress incontinence who don’t respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and decline surgical intervention
A
Duloxetine
7
Q
Statistical test that compares two sets of observations on a single sample, e.g. a ‘before’ and ‘after’ test on the same population following an intervention
A
Wilcoxson signed-rank test
8
Q
Attendance Allowance is a benefit paid to help with personal care due to physical or mental disability to those aged over ___
A
65
9
Q
UKMEC 3 for COCP if BMI is over ___
A
35
10
Q
Absolute risk reduction =
A
Experimental event rate - Control event rate
11
Q
Emergency treatment for acute angle closure glaucoma in primary care is topical ______
A
pilocarpine
12
Q
Are strawberry naevi present at birth?
A
No
13
Q
Metformin is contraindicated in those with eGFR <___
A
30
14
Q
____________ is the only test recommended for H. pylori post-eradication therapy
A
Urea breath test
15
Q
Palsy results in ptosis, down and out eye, dilated, fixed pupil - which nerve?
A
Oculomotor CN III
16
Q
Palsy results in defective downward gaze - vertical diplopia - which nerve?
A
Trochlear CN IV
17
Q
Palsy results in loss of corneal reflex, deviation of jaw to weak side, loss of facial sensation, paralysis of mastication muscles - which nerve?
A
Trigeminal CN V
18
Q
Palsy results in defective abduction - horizontal diplopia - which nerve?
A
Abducens CN VI
19
Q
Lesion results in flaccid paralysis of upper + lower face, loss of corneal reflex, loss of taste, hyperacusis - which nerve?
A
Facial CN VII
20
Q
Lesion results in hypersensitive carotid sinus reflex, loss of gag reflex - which nerve?
A
Glossopharyngeal CN IX
21
Q
Lesion results in uvula deviating away from site of lesion, loss of gag reflex - which nerve?
A
Vagus CN X
22
Q
Lesion results in weakness turning head to contralateral side - which nerve?
A
CN XI accessory
23
Q
Lesion results in tongue deviating towards side of lesion - which nerve?
A
CN XII hypoglossal
24
Specificity =
TN / (TN + FP)
25
In a woman who has an undiagnosed breast mass continuing the combined hormonal contraceptive pill is classified as UKMEC ___
2
26
If angina is not controlled with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting _____ should be added
CCB e.g. amlodipine
27
What is the first sign of puberty in boys?
Increase in testicular volume
28
Impaired fasting glycaemia (IFG) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level between ___ mmol/l and ___ mmol/l
6.1, 6.9
29
_______ is a good first line anti-emetic for intracranial causes of nausea and vomiting
Cyclizine
30
Most appropriate study design to investigate an infectious outbreak - ___________
Case control study
31
Type _ error - the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true
I
32
Likelihood ratio for a positive test result =
Sensitivity / (1 - specificity)
33
Best test to measure correlation in parametric (normally distributed) data
Pearson's coefficient
34
Best test to measure correlation in non-parametric data
Spearman's coefficient
35
Of the SSRIs, ______ has the highest incidence of discontinuation symptoms
Paroxetine
36
A 21 day progesterone of over ____nmol/l is generally considered to be indicative of ovulation
30
37
Vaccines needed pre-dialysis x3
Pneumococcal, influenza, hepatitis B
38
Positive predictive value =
True positives / (True positives + false positives)
39
Which antibiotic commonly used for treating UTIs may cause peripheral neuropathy?
Nitrofurantoin
40
If the COCP is started within the first __ days of the cycle there is no need for additional contraception
5
41
Impaired glucose tolerance: OGTT 2 hour value between
7.8 and 11
42
Positive likelihood ratio =
Sensitivity / (1 - specificity)
43
Sensitivity =
TP / TP + FN
44
Specificity =
TN / TN + FP
45
Which drug is used for prophylaxis of cluster headaches?
Verapamil
46
Sensory loss over anterior thigh
Weak hip flexion, knee extension and hip adduction
Reduced knee reflex
Positive femoral stretch test
Which nerve root is being compressed?
L3
47
Sensory loss anterior aspect of knee and medial malleolus
Weak knee extension and hip adduction
Reduced knee reflex
Positive femoral stretch test
Which nerve root is being compressed?
L4
48
Sensory loss dorsum of foot
Weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion
Reflexes intact
Positive sciatic nerve stretch test
Which nerve root is being compressed?
L5
49
Sensory loss posterolateral aspect of leg and lateral aspect of foot
Weakness in plantar flexion of foot
Reduced ankle reflex
Positive sciatic nerve stretch test
Which nerve root is being compressed?
S1
50
Number needed to treat =
1 / Absolute risk reduction
51
A haemoglobin cut-off of ___ g/L should be used in the first trimester to determine if iron supplementation should be taken
110
52
What type of study is this?
Participants randomly allocated to intervention or control group (e.g. standard treatment or placebo)
Practical or ethical problems may limit use
RCT
53
What type of study is this?
Observational and prospective. Two (or more) are selected according to their exposure to a particular agent (e.g. medicine, toxin) and followed up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome.
The usual outcome measure is the relative risk.
Examples include Framingham Heart Study
Cohort study
54
What type of study is this?
Observational and retrospective. Patients with a particular condition (cases) are identified and matched with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition.
The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio.
Inexpensive, produce quick results
Useful for studying rare conditions
Prone to confounding
Case-control study
55
What type of study is this?
Provide a 'snapshot', sometimes called prevalence studies
Provide weak evidence of cause and effect
Cross-sectional study
56
The most common organism causing infective exacerbations of COPD is ____________
H influenzae
57
Urea breath test: no antibiotics in past ___ weeks, no antisecretory drugs in past ___ weeks
Abx: 4 weeks
Antisecretory: 2 weeks
58
RA Drug associated with myelosuppression, liver cirrhosis, pneumonitis
Methotrexate
59
RA drug associated with rashes, oligospermia, Heinz body anaemia, ILD
Sulfasalazine
60
RA drug associated with liver impairment, ILD, hypertension
Leflunomide
61
RA drug associated with retinopathy, corneal deposits
Hydroxychloroquine
62
RA drug associated with proteinuria
Gold
63
RA drug associated with proteinuria, exacerbations of myaesthenia gravis
Penicillinamine
64
RA drug associated with demyelination, reactivation of TB
Etanercept
65
RA drug associated with reactivation of TB x 2
Infliximab, adalimumab
66
RA drug commonly associated with infusion reactions
Rituximab
67
75mg of oral morphine is equivalent to ___ mg of subcut oxycodone
25
68
NNT =
1 / ARR
69
Statistical significance test that compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data
Mann-Whitney U test
70
What is the medical exemption certificate code?
FP92A
71
Fitness to fly after uncoplicated MI
7-10 days
72
Fitness to fly after complicated MI
4-6 weeks
73
Fitness to fly after CABG
10-14 days
74
Fitness to fly after PCI
3 days
75
Fitness to fly after stroke
10 days, but if stable 3 days
76
Fitness to fly after successful drainage of pneumothorax
CAA: 2 weeks
BTS: 1 week post-check X ray
77
Fitness to fly after abdominal surgery
10 days
78
Fitness to fly after laparoscopic surgery
24 hours
79
Fitness to fly after colonoscopy
24 hours
80
Fitness to fly after application of plaster cast
24 hours if flight <2h
48 h if flight >2h
81
Drug monitoring: Amiodarone
TFT, U&E, LFT, CXR prior to treatment
TFT, LFT every 6 months
82
Drug monitoring: Methotrexate
FBC, LFT, U&E before starting treatment
Weekly until therapy stabilised
Once stabilised, every 2-3 months
83
Drug monitoring: Azathioprine
FBC, LFT before treatment
FBC weekly for first 4 weeks
FBC, LFT every 3 months
84
Drug monitoring: Lithium
TFT, U&E pre treatment & 6 monthly
Lithium levels weekly until stabilised then every 3 months
85
Drug monitoring: Sodium valproate
LFT, FBC before treatment
LFT 'periodically' during first 6 months
86
Glitazones
LFT before treatment & 'regularly' during treatment
87
Statistical test used to compare proportions or percentages e.g. compares the percentage of patients who improved following 2 different interventions
Chi-squared test
88
Dermatome landmarks: Posterior half of the skull
C2
89
Dermatome landmarks: High turtleneck shift
C3
90
Dermatome landmarks: Low-collar shirt
C4
91
Dermatome landmarks: Ventral axial line of upper limb
C5
92
Dermatome landmarks: Thumb + index finger
C6
93
Dermatome landmarks: Middle finger + palm
C7
94
Dermatome landmarks: Ring + little finger
C8
95
Dermatome landmarks: Nipples
T4
96
Dermatome landmarks: inframammary fold
T5
97
Dermatome landmarks: Xiphoid process
T6
98
Dermatome landmarks: Umbilicus
T10
99
Dermatome landmarks: Inguinal ligament
L1
100
Dermatome landmarks: Knee caps
L4
101
Dermatome landmarks: Big toe, dorsum of foot (except lateral aspect)
L5
102
Dermatome landmarks: Lateral foot, little toe
S1
103
Dermatome landmarks: Genitalia
S2, S3
104
Residual weakness after ___ months in Bell's palsy is an indication for referral to plastics
6
105
Gestational diabetes - insulin should be commenced if fasting glucose level is >= ___ mmol/l at the time of diagnosis
7
106
ECG changes in V1-V4
Anteroseptal - LAD
107
ECG changes in II, III, aVF
Inferior - RCA
108
ECG changes in V1-V6, I, aVL
Anterolateral - proximal LAD
109
ECG changes in I, aVL +/- V5-V6
LCx
110
A second drug should be added in type 2 diabetes mellitus if the HbA1c is > __ mmol/mol
58
111
Which antibiotics may worsen seizure control in epilepsy patients?
Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin
112
_______ and _______ are the most important antiepileptic drugs to prescribe by brand
Phenytoin & carbamazepine
113
Epilepsy treatment: Generalised tonic clonic seizures
M: Sodium valproate
F: lamotrigine or levetiracetam
114
Epilepsy treatment: focal seizures
1st line: lamotrigine or levetiracetam
2nd line: carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine or zonisamide
115
Epilepsy treatment: absence seizures
1st line: ethosuximide
2nd line: M: valproate. F: lamotrigine or levetiracetam.
116
Epilepsy treatment: Myoclonic seizures
M: sodium valproate
F: levetiracetam
117
Epilepsy treatment: tonic or atonic seizures
M: sodium valproate
F: lamotrigine
118
1st line for thrush in non-pregnant women
PO fluconazole
119
3x causes of increased nuchal translucency
- Down's syndrome
- Congenital heart defects
- Abdominal wall defects
120
After using Ellaone (ulipristal), quick starting the COCP should begin after ___ days and barrier contraception used for ___ days
5, 7
121
Immunisations: At birth
BCG if risk factors
122
Immunisations: 2 months
6 in 1 vaccine
Oral rotavirus vaccine
Men B
123
Immunisations: 3 months
6 in 1 vaccine
Oral rotavirus vaccine
PCV
124
Immunisations: 4 months
6 in 1 vaccine
Men B
125
Immunisations: 12-13 months
Hib/Men C
MMR
PCV
Men B
126
Immunisations: 2-8 years
Annual flu vaccine
127
Immunisations: 3-4 years
4 in 1 (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio)
MMR
128
Immunisations: 12-13 years
HPV
129
Immunisations: 13-18 years
3 in 1 (tetanus, diphtheria, polio)
Men ACWY
130
What is in the 6 in 1 vaccine?
Diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib, Hep B
131
Adverse effects of TB drugs:
potent liver enzyme inducer
hepatitis, orange secretions
flu-like symptoms
Rifampicin
132
Adverse effects of TB drugs:
peripheral neuropathy: prevent with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)
hepatitis, agranulocytosis
liver enzyme inhibitor
Isoniazid
133
Adverse effects of TB drugs:
hyperuricaemia causing gout
arthralgia, myalgia
hepatitis
Pyrazinamide
134
Adverse effects of TB drugs:
optic neuritis: check visual acuity before and during treatment
Ethambutol
135
School exclusion: Scarlet fever
24 hours after starting antibiotics
136
School exclusion: Whooping cough
2 days after starting antibiotics, or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no abx
137
School exclusion: Measles
4 days from onset of rash
138
School exclusion: Rubella
5 days from onset of rash
139
School exclusion: Chickenpox
Until all lesions crusted over
140
School exclusion: Mumps
5 days from onset of swollen glands
141
School exclusion: Impetigo
48 h after starting antibiotic treatment, or until lesions are crusted and healed
142
School exclusion: Scabies
Until treated
143
________ is a tropical disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. It causes painful genital ulcers associated with unilateral, painful inguinal lymph node enlargement. The ulcers typically have a sharply defined, ragged, undermined border.
Chancroid
144
Standard error of the mean =
standard deviation / square root (sample size)
145
For patients taking leflunomide, effective contraception is required for at least ______ in women and _______ in men after stopping
2 years in women
3 months in men
146
Kallman's syndrome - LH and FSH and testosterone levels
LH & FSH low-normal
Testosterone low
147
Klinefelter's syndrome - LH & FSH levels
Raised
148
Which virus is the trigger for erythema multiforme in over 50% of cases?
HSV
149
Relative risk reduction =
(CER - EER) / CER
150
DVLA: cardiovascular disorders - elective angioplasty
1 week off driving
151
DVLA: cardiovascular disorders - CABG
4 weeks off driving
152
DVLA: cardiovascular disorders - ACS
4 weeks off
1 week if successfully treated by angioplasty
153
DVLA: cardiovascular disorders - angina
Stop if symptoms occur at rest/wheel
154
DVLA: cardiovascular disorders - PPM insertion
1 week off driving
155
DVLA: cardiovascular disorders - ICD insertion
If prophylactic, no driving for 1 month
If already had sustained ventricular arrhythmia, no driving for 6 months
Permanent ban for group 2 drivers
156
DVLA: cardiovascular disorders - catheter ablation for arrhythmia (successful)
2 days off
157
DVLA: cardiovascular disorders - AAA of 6cm +
Notify DVLA, needs annual review.
If 6.5cm + - no driving
158
DVLA: cardiovascular disorders - heart transplant
No driving for 6 weeks
159
Those with a positive family history of glaucoma should be screened annually from aged __ years
40
160
The Hba1c target for patients on a drug which may cause hypoglycaemia (eg sulfonylurea) is ___ mmol/mol
53
161
DVLA rules for alcohol misuse
6 months
162
DVLA rules for cannabis, amphetamines, ecstasy, LSD - persistent use or dependency
6 months
162
DVLA rules for alcohol dependency
1 year
163
DVLA rules for heroin, cocaine, methadone - persistent use or dependency
1 year
164
Cyclophosphamide adverse effects x3
Haemorrhagic cystitis
Myelosuppression
Transitional cell carcinoma
165
Bleomycin adverse effect x1
Lung fibrosis
166
Doxorubicin adverse effect x 1
Cardiomyopathy
167
Methotrexate adverse effects x 4
Myelosuppression
Mucositis
Liver fibrosis
Lung fibrosis
168
5-FU adverse effects x 3
Myelosuppression
Mucositis
Dermatitis
169
6-mercaptopurine adverse effect x 1
Myelosuppression
170
Cytaribine adverse effect x 2
Myelosuppression
Ataxia
171
Vincristine adverse effects x 2
Peripheral neuropathy (reversible)
Paralytic ileus
172
Vinblastine adverse effect x 1
Myelosuppression
173
Docetaxel adverse effect x 1
Neutropaenia
174
Irinotecan adverse effect x 1
Myelosuppression
175
Cisplatin adverse effects x 3
Ototoxicity
Peripheral neuropathy
Hypomagnesaemia
176
Hydroxyurea adverse effect x 1
Myelosuppression
177
Cannabis and lysergide are examples of schedule ___ drugs
1
178
Diamorphine, morphine, pethidine, amphetamine and cocaine are examples of schedule ___ drugs
2
179
Barbiturates, buprenorphine, midazolam, temazepam, tramadol, gabapentin, pregabalin are all examples of schedule __ drugs
3
180
Benzodiazepines (except midazolam and temazepam) and zolpidem, zopiclone are examples of schedule ___ drugs
4(1)
181
Androgenic and anabolic steroids, hCG and somatropin are examples of schedule ___ drugs
4(2)
182
Schedule __ includes preparations which because of their strength are exempt from the vast majority of CD requirements other than retention of invoices e.g. codeine, pholcodine, oramorph 10mg/5mL
5
183
A prescription for controlled drugs in schedules 2, 3 and 4 is valid for ____ days
28
184
Malaria prophylaxis - which drug?
SE: GI upset
Start 1-2 days before travel
Stop 7 days after travel
Atovaquone + Proguanil (Malarone)
185
Malaria prophylaxis - which drug?
SE: headache
Taken weekly, CI in epilepsy
Start 1 week before travel
Stop 4 weeks after travel
Chloroquine
186
Malaria prophylaxis - which drug?
SE: photosensitivity, oesophagitis
Start 1-2 days before travel
Stop 4 weeks after travel
Doxycycline
187
Malaria prophylaxis - which drug?
SE: Dizziness, neuropsychiatric disturbance
Taken weekly. CI in epilepsy.
Start 2-3 weeks before travel
End 4 weeks after travel
Mefloquine (Lariam)
188
Management of warfarin: high INR
5.0-8.0, no bleeding
Withhold 1 or 2 doses of warfarin
Reduce subsequent maintenance dose
189
Management of warfarin: high INR
INR 5.0-8.0, minor bleeding
Stop warfarin
Give IV vitamin K 1-3mg
Restart when INR <5.0
190
Management of warfarin: high INR
INR >8.0, no bleeding
Stop warfarin
Give vitamin K 1-5mg by mouth, using the intravenous preparation orally
Repeat dose of vitamin K if INR still too high after 24 hours
Restart when INR < 5.0
191
Management of warfarin: high INR
INR >8, minor bleeding
Stop warfarin
Give intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg
Repeat dose of vitamin K if INR still too high after 24 hours
Restart warfarin when INR < 5.0
192
Management of warfarin: high INR
Major bleeding
Stop warfarin
Give intravenous vitamin K 5mg
Prothrombin complex concentrate - if not available then FFP
193
Treatment of latent TB
6 months isoniazid
194
Type __ error - the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false
II
195
Patients with clinical signs of heart failure and raised BNP greater than _____ pg/ml should have an echo within 2 weeks
400
196
Flashes of light (photopsia) - in the peripheral field of vision
Floaters, often on the temporal side of the central vision
Typical presentation of..
Posterior vitreous detachment
197
Dense shadow that starts peripherally progresses towards the central vision
A veil or curtain over the field of vision
Straight lines appear curved
Central visual loss
Typical presentation of....
Retinal detachment
198
Large bleeds cause sudden visual loss
Moderate bleeds may be described as numerous dark spots
Small bleeds may cause floaters
Typical presentation of....
Vitreous haemorrhage
199
Drug used to treat cognitive symptoms in mild to moderate Alzheimer's dementia
Rivastigmine
200
Emergency IM Benzylpenicillin dose: < 1 year
300mg
201
Emergency IM Benzylpenicillin dose: 1-10 years
600mg
202
Emergency IM Benzylpenicillin dose: >10 years
1200mg
203
Which personality disorder?
Hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted
Unwarranted tendency to questions the loyalty of friends
Reluctance to confide in others
Preoccupation with conspirational beliefs and hidden meaning
Unwarranted tendency to perceive attacks on their character
Paranoid
204
Which personality disorder?
Indifference to praise and criticism
Preference for solitary activities
Lack of interest in sexual interactions
Lack of desire for companionship
Emotional coldness
Few interests
Few friends or confidants other than family
Schizoid
205
Which personality disorder?
Ideas of reference (differ from delusions in that some insight is retained)
Odd beliefs and magical thinking
Unusual perceptual disturbances
Paranoid ideation and suspiciousness
Odd, eccentric behaviour
Lack of close friends other than family members
Inappropriate affect
Odd speech without being incoherent
Schizotypal
206
Positive HCV RNA indicates
Acute infection
207
In hepatitis B, ______ is the first marker to appear and causes the production of anti-HBs
HBsAg
208
In hepatitis B, _____ normally implies acute disease (present for 1-6 months)
HBsAg
209
In hepatitis B, if _______ is present for > 6 months this implies chronic disease
HBsAg
210
In hepatitis B, _______ implies immunity (either exposure or immunisation). It is negative in chronic disease
Anti-HBs
211
In hepatitis B, _______ implies previous (or current) infection, it appears during acute or recent hep B and is present for about 6 months
Anti-HBc
212
In hepatitis B, ______ results from breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells and is therefore a marker of infectivity
HbeAg
213
NICE guidelines suggest referring to a nephrologist from primary care if eGFR falls below ____ or progressively by > ____ in a year
30, 15
214
If an LNG-IUS is inserted on day ____-____ of cycle no additional contraception required
1-7
215
IM adrenaline dose for anaphylaxis: <6m
100-150 micrograms (0.1-0.15mL 1 in 1000)
216
IM adrenaline dose for anaphylaxis: 6m-6y
150 micrograms (0.15mL 1 in 1000)
217
IM adrenaline dose for anaphylaxis: 6-12 years
300micrograms (0.3mL 1 in 1000)
218
IM adrenaline dose for anaphylaxis: >12 years
500 micrograms (0.5mL 1 in 1000)
219
Form completed when life expectancy is <12 months, allows fast-track benefit payments
SR1
220
First line treatment for Parkinson's disease if the motor symptoms are not affecting the quality of life
dopamine agonist (non-ergot derived e.g. ropirinole), levodopa or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitor
221
60mg of subcutaneous diamorphine is equivalent to ______mg of oral morphine
180 mg
222
COCP: If two pills are missed, between days_____ of the cycle, no emergency contraception is required, as long as the previous 7 days of COCP have been taken correctly
8-14
223
An induction-maintenance regime of oral _______should be considered for recurrent vaginal candidiasis
fluconazole
224
75mg oral morphine is equivalent to __mg oral oxycodone
50
225
Patients with acute severe hyponatraemia (serum sodium concentration of less than ___ mmol/L) should be urgently admitted to hospital
125
226
Consultation models:
initiating the session
gathering information
building the relationship
giving information, explaining and planning
closing the session
Calgary Cambridge
227
Consultation models:
exploring both the disease and the illness experience
understanding the whole person
finding common ground
incorporating prevention and health promotion
enhancing the doctor-patient relationship
being realistic (with time and resources)
Stewart - patient centred clinical method
228
Consultation models:
define the reason for the patient's attendance (ideas, concerns and expectations)
consider other problems
with the patient, choose an appropriate action for each problem
achieve a shared understanding of the problems with the patient
involve the patient in the management and encourage him/her to accept appropriate responsibility
use time and resources appropriately
establish or maintain a relationship with the patient which helps to achieve the other tasks
Pendleton
229
Consultation models:
interviewing and history-taking
physical examination
diagnosis and problem-solving
patient management
relating to patients
anticipatory care
record keeping
Fraser
230
Consultation models:
connecting
summarising
handing over
safety netting
housekeeping
Neighbour
231
Consultation models:
the consultation is a meeting between two experts
doctors are experts in medicine
patients are experts in their own illnesses
shared understanding is the aim
doctors should seek to understand the patient's beliefs
doctors should address explanations in terms of the patient's belief system
Tuckett
232
Consultation models:
management of presenting problems
management of continuing problems
modification of help-seeking behaviour
opportunistic health promotion
Stott and Davis
233
A period of ___ weeks is typically used to assess response to treatment in patients with mild-moderate flares of ulcerative colitis
4
234
Data types:
Observed values can be put into set categories which have no particular order or hierarchy. You can count but not order or measure this data (for example birthplace)
Nominal
235
Data types:
Observed values can be put into set categories which themselves can be ordered (for example NYHA classification of heart failure symptoms)
Ordinal
236
Data types:
Observed values are confined to a certain values, usually a finite number of whole numbers (for example the number of asthma exacerbations in a year)
Discrete
237
Data types:
Data can take any value with certain range (for example weight)
Continuous
238
Data types:
Data may take one of two values (for example gender)
Binomial
239
Data types:
A measurement where the difference between two values is meaningful, such that equal differences between values correspond to real differences between the quantities that the scale measures (for example temperature)
Interval
240
Childhood infections:
Fever initially
Itchy, rash starting on head/trunk before spreading. Initially macular then papular then vesicular
Systemic upset is usually mild
Chickenpox
241
Childhood infections:
Prodrome: irritable, conjunctivitis, fever
Koplik spots: white spots ('grain of salt') on buccal mucosa
Rash: starts behind ears then to whole body, discrete maculopapular rash becoming blotchy & confluent
Measles
242
Childhood infections:
Rash: pink maculopapular, initially on face before spreading to whole body, usually fades by the 3-5 day
Lymphadenopathy: suboccipital and postauricular
Rubella
243
Patients cannot drive for __ months following a first unprovoked or isolated seizure if brain imaging and EEG normal
6
244
DVLA: established epilepsy/multiple unprovoked seizures
may qualify for a license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months
245
DVLA: withdrawal of epilepsy medication
Should not drive whilst anti-epileptics are being withdrawn and for 6 months after last dose
246
DVLA: simple faint
No restrictions
247
DVLA: single episode syncope, explained and treated
4 weeks off
248
DVLA: single episode syncope, unexplained
6 months off
249
DVLA: 2 or more episodes of unexplained syncope
12 months off
250
DVLA: craniotomy
1 year off
251
DVLA: multiple TIAs over a short period
3 months off, inform DVLA
252
1st line treatment for chlamydia
7 day course of doxycycline
253
Type of burn:
Red and painful, dry, no blisters
Superficial epidermal
254
Type of burn:
Pale pink, painful, blistered, slow capillary refill
Partial thickness - superficial dermal
255
Type of burn:
Typically white but may have patches of non-blanching erythema. Reduced sensation, painful to deep pressure.
Partial thickness - deep dermal
256
Type of burn: white 'waxy'/brown 'leathery'/black. No blisters. No pain.
Full thickness
257
Type of ovarian pathology most commonly associted with Meig's syndrome
Fibroma
258
Which laxative should be avoided in IBS?
Lactulose
259
LTOT is indicated for COPD patients with PaO2 < ____kPa when stable.
This cut off is extended to <___kPa when one of the following is present:
- secondary polycythaemia
- pulmonary hypertension
- peripheral oedema
7.3, 8
260
A normal ABPI is between ____ and ____
0.9, 1.2
261
How potent is the steroid cream?
Hydrocortisone 0.5-2.5%
Mild
262
How potent is the steroid cream?
Betamethasone valerate 0.025% (Betnovate RD)
Clobetasone butyrate 0.05% (Eumovate)e
Moderate
263
How potent is the steroid cream?
Fluticasone propionate 0.05% (Cutivate)
Betamethasone valerate 0.1% (Betnovate)
Potent
264
How potent is the steroid cream?
Clobetasol propionate 0.05% (Dermovate)
Very potent
265
First line drugs for restless legs
Dopamine agonists e.g. pramipexole, ropinirole
266
______________ can be prescribed for 7 days during an acute attack of Meniere's diseas
Prochlorperazine
267
Aim for a __ week break in between courses of topical corticosteroids in patients with psoriasis
4
268
Haemophilia A affects which clotting factor?
VIII
269
Haemophilia B affects which clotting factor?
IX
270
First line insulin for adults with T2DM
Isophane insulin
271
A recurrent episode of C. difficile within ___ weeks of symptom resolution should be treated with oral fidaxomicin
12
272
2 doses of the hep A vaccine can confer immunity for ___ years
20
273
The most common post-surgical complication seen in cataract surgery is ______
posterior capsular thickening
274
NICE recommends a 2-step approach to TB diagnosis, with a Mantoux test followed by ________ if Mantoux is positive
interferon gamma assay
275
What 2 blood tests should be started before starting isotretinoin?
LFTs, lipids
276
MODY with symptoms - 1st line drug is
gliclazide (or other sulfonylureas)
277
Management for essential tremor if beta blockers are contraindicated
primidone
278
Osteomalacia causes calcium to be _____ and ALP to be ______
low, high
279
Patients with severe hypercalcaemia (>____) should have same day admission to hospital
3.5
280
The optimal time to check urate is _-_ weeks after an acute attack of gout resolves
2-4
281
In paget's disease, calcium is _____ whilst ALP is ______
normal, raised
282
Peak flow variability over ____% suggests a diagnosis of asthma
20
283
3x antibiotic options for acute rhinosinusitis
Phenoxymethylpenicillin, doxycycline, clarithromycin
284
codeine should not be used for children under the age of ___ for any reason
12
285
a gynae referral should be made for patients with suspected premature ovarian failure under the age of ___
40
286
people can fly if their Hb is over __
80
287
