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1
Q

methenamine silver stain is used primarily to visualize

A

pneumocystic carinii

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2
Q

elevated cold agglutinins are associated with

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae

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3
Q

Positive Quellung reaction and optochin-sensitive organism?

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

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4
Q

The most common agent causing pneumonia and bronchitis in children < 1yr is

A

RSV

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5
Q

The appropriate treatment for RSV is

A

ribaviron

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6
Q

Skin test positive reactions are mediated by _______, and are a

A

T cells (CD4+ Th cell, memory cell -> effector cell, release cytokine -> macrophage activation); delayed Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

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7
Q

CD4+ Th1 cells are important in directing the immune response against

A

fungi and intracellular pathogens

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8
Q

CD4+ Th1 cells release ___________ which causes

A

IFN-gamma; macrophage activation

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9
Q

alpha-hemolytic agent of LRTI

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

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10
Q

cause of a widened mediastinum

A

bacillus anthracis

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11
Q

the only human pathogen with a polypeptide capsule

A

bacillus anthracis

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12
Q

Facultative intracellular AFB`

A

nocardiae, mycobacterium

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13
Q

cell wall-less and lack peptidoglycan

A

mycoplasma and ureaplasma

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14
Q

Most common cause of croup

A

Parainfluenza virus

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15
Q

Most common cause of bronchitis in neonates

A

bacterial - streptococcus agalctiae

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16
Q

Most common cause of adult acute bronchitis

A

viral - influenza virus

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17
Q

Most common cause of acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis

A

Haemophilus influenza (NTHi), followed by moraxella and s. pneumoniae

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18
Q

Guillain Barre syndrome may result from a complication due to what agent/s

A

influenza virus, chlamydia

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19
Q

Chlamydia psittaci exposure is associated with

A

poultry exposure

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20
Q

In tuberculosis infections, the principle form of defense to fight off infection is

A

CMI, leading to a granuloma formation

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21
Q

Fever, SOB, bilateral infiltrates, and “hat-shaped” organisms visible on silver stain within the foamy alveolar exudate, this patient most likely has

A

pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

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22
Q

Agent with GPC, encapsulated, lancet-shaped, diplococci

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

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23
Q

Agent described by budding yeast and pseudohyphae

A

candida albicans

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24
Q

Agent described as mold with nonseptate hyphae

A

Mucor

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25
Uncontrolled diabetic with chronic sinusitis, a likely agent is
Mucor
26
Agent describe as mold with septate hyphae
Aspergillosis
27
Alcohol, ARD, lobar consolidation of left lower lung, a likely agent is
klebsiella pneumoniae
28
Alcoholic, exposure to contaminated air conditioner
legionella
29
Most common cause of pneumonia in young adults
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
30
What agent is associated with empyema formation
staphylococcus aureus
31
Barking cough with hoarseness in a young child, the likely agent is
Croup - parainfluenza virus (paramyxovirus family)
32
Common agent of STDs
Chlamydia trachomatis
33
Agents that are OBLIGATE aerobes
MTB, Nocardia, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
34
Agents that are OBLIGATE anaerobes
Actinomyces
35
Encapsulated agents of LRTI
Streptococcus pneumoniae, HiB, Klebsiella
36
Catalase positive agents of LRTI
Staph aureus, pseudomonas aeruginosa, aspergillus
37
Prevnar vs pneumovax
``` Pneumovax: 23-valent polysaccharide vaccine, no class switching or memory Prevnar: 7/13-valent, conjugated vaccine for memory and Ig switching ```
38
Blue-green sputum or colony
pseudomonas aeruginosa
39
Protein A
staph. aureus; prevents opsonization and phagocytosis by binding Fc of IgG
40
Exotoxin A
C. diptheriae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa; inactivates elongation factor 2
41
Whooping cough agent
Bordetella pertussis
42
Green ring around colonies on blood agar indicates
alpha-hemolytic bacteria, streptococcus pneumoniae
43
Clear ring around colonies on blood agar likely indicates
beta-hemolytic bacteria, staphylococcus aureus
44
Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of
MOPS: Meningitis, Otitis media, Pneumonia, Sinusitis
45
"Rusty" sputum likely indicates
Streptococcus pneumoniae
46
Woolsorter's disease
pulmonary anthrax
47
Cord factor is associated with what agent
MTB
48
Fermentors
Klebsiella
49
Epiglottitis primary agent
Haemophilus influenzae
50
Legionnaires Disease
severe pneumonia, GI, and CNS symptoms
51
Charcoal yeast extract culture, think
Legionella
52
Agent associated with burn wounds
pseudomonas aeruginosa
53
Pneumonia in Cystic Fibrosis patients is likely due to
pseudomonas aeruginosa
54
Red currant jelly sputum
Klebsiella
55
Elementary Bodies and Reticulate Bodies
Reticulate bodies are actively replicating form in Chlamydia
56
Cytoplasmic inclusions on Giemsa Stain
Chlamydia
57
Outbreaks of pneumonia in military recruits
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
58
Diabetic with pneumonia, likely agents
klebsiella or mucor
59
Mississippi-Ohio river valley + bird/bat droppings
Histoplasa capsulatum
60
Spherule is pathognomonic for
Coccidiodomycosis
61
facultative intracellular Fungus
Histoplasma capsulatum
62
thick-walled large yeast cells
Blastomycosis dermatiditis
63
SW US, construction, summer
Coccidiodomycosis
64
Central US (chicago) near lakes and rivers
Blastomycosis dermatiditis
65
Hyphae with Acute angle branching
Aspergillosis
66
Irregular, broad, nonseptate hyphae
Mucor
67
History of Asthma or CF
Aspergillus -> allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
68
History of properly treated TB
Aspergillomas -> fungal ball
69
Immunocompromised + interstitial pneumonia with disc-shaped yeast
pneumocystis jiroveci
70
Oval yeast in macrophages
Histoplasma capsulatum
71
Ground glass attenuation or CT halo
invasive aspergillosis
72
end stage AIDS patient with Tuberculosis like disease
MAC (mycobacterium avium complex)
73
Severely neutropenic patient is likely to get
aspergillus, candida
74
Mycolic acids
Mycobacterium (MTB), basis of INH therapy
75
Amphotericin is a __________ and works by
anti-fungal, binds ergosterols -> leaky cell membrane -> cell death
76
Influenza A and B treatment
zanamivir, oseltamivir
77
CMV treatment
ganciclovir
78
Top 5 agents causing VAP
S. aureus, s. pneumoniae, HiB, p. aeruginosa, acinetobacter
79
Atelectasis, how can you tell on a Xray
loss of airspace, anatomy shift toward, crowding of ribs, elevated diaphragm
80
Sputum sample requirements
>25 neutrophils, <10-25 epithelial cells
81
Staining for fungal agents involves
KOH
82
Parasitic form of fungus
yeast or spherule
83
Infectious form of fungus
generally mold -> spores
84
What would be more effective in a flu outbreak?
not vaccine, since incubation is shorter than immune response; oseltamivir and zanamivir
85
Pneumolysin
virulant factor of streptococcus pneumoniae
86
bile/deoxycholate soluble
streptococcus pneumoniae
87
Grows on MacConkey agar
acinetobacter baumanii
88
abx resistant islands found in
acinetobacter baumanii
89
Wounded soldiers
Acinetobacter baumanii
90
Pyocyanin
pseudomonas aeruginosa
91
Abscesses on CT show clear
air-fluid level
92
_____________ destroy conidia, __________ destroy hyphae
macrophages; PMN
93
Fe overload state predisposes a pt to
aspergillosis and mucormycoses
94
Histoplasmin
CF test with mycelial Ag
95
Estrogen binding protein
Coccidioides
96
unilateral abdominal LAD
DMAC in AIDS pt
97
Common agent in AECB/COPD
Hib
98
Common agent in secondary bacterial inf in fluenza
Hib
99
Common bacterial agent found in tracheitis
Hib
100
Primary agent of pharyngitis
ADV
101
Top 3 most common causes of LRTI in children
RSV, PIV, and ADV
102
Pharyngoconjunctival fever
pharyngitis in summer, + periauricular LAD + conjunctivitis
103
Pertussis treatment
Macrolides
104
Vaccines that reduce carriage for pneumonia
Prenvar, Hib, pertussis
105
Hyperinflation, atelectasis, hilar adenopathy, parahilar peribronchial infiltrates are diagnostic for
viral pneumonia

Microbiology Exam 3 (5 decks)

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