All Chapters Flashcards

(276 cards)

1
Q

<p>Who is responsible for the safety and health of all military and civilian personnel in a command?</p>

A

<p>Commanding Officer</p>

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2
Q

<p>What best describes the definition of hazard?</p>

A

<p>Any real or potential condition that can cause injury, illness, or death to personnel; damage to or loss of equipment or property; degradation of mission capability or impact to mission accomplishment; or damage to the environment. </p>

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3
Q

<p>How many steps are there for ORM?</p>

A

<p>5</p>

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4
Q

<p>How many principles of ORM are there?</p>

A

<p>4</p>

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5
Q

<p>A GFCI is required for use on power tools?</p>

A

<p>True</p>

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6
Q

<p>Which best describes a Near Mishap?</p>

A

<p>When injury or damages were avoided merely by chance or circumstance. </p>

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7
Q

<p>Which best describes a Category III hazard?</p>

A

<p>May cause minor injury, minor occupational illness, or minor property damage. </p>

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8
Q

<p>The degree of hazard is expressed by a numerical code: 1 through...</p>

A

<p>5</p>

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9
Q

<p>The Safety Officer enforces the Commanding Officer's safety policies and procedures.</p>

A

<p>True</p>

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10
Q

<p>What command did SW2 Robert D. Stethem belong to?</p>

A

<p>UCT1</p>

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11
Q

<p>What two navy ships are named in honor of Seabees?</p>

A

<p>USS Shields/USS Stethem</p>

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12
Q

<p>What date was Pearl Harbor attacked by the Japanese Empire?</p>

A

<p>December 7, 1941</p>

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13
Q

<p>How many United States Navy ships have been named after Seabees?</p>

A

<p>2</p>

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14
Q

<p>During what two operations did Seabees construct troop bed down facilities, storage areas, EPW camps, and hundreds of miles of roads?</p>

A

<p>Operation Desert Shield and Operation Desert Storm </p>

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15
Q

<p>On which date were the Seabees officially given their name?</p>

A

<p>March 5, 1942</p>

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16
Q

<p>Which of the following qualities do NOT represent characteristics of the Naval Forces?</p>

A

<p>Fearlessness </p>

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17
Q

<p>What rates are merged together to form an EQCM?</p>

A

<p>EO, CM</p>

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18
Q

<p>What rates are merged together to form a CUCM?</p>

A

<p>EA, BU, SW</p>

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19
Q

<p>Which location was the first home of the Seabees?</p>

A

<p>Davisville, RI</p>

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20
Q

<p>What best describes the definition of risk?</p>

A

<p>An expression of possible loss, adverse outcome, or negative consequence such as injury, illness in terms of probability and severity. </p>

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21
Q

<p>When netting a 463L pallet, which way do the hooks face and how many D-rings does the pallet have?</p>

A

<p>Inboard, 22.</p>

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22
Q

<p>What is the allowable cabin load for the C-130 aircraft?</p>

A

<p>25,000 lbs</p>

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23
Q

<p>What is the allowable cabin load for the C-141 aircraft?</p>

A

<p>50,000 lbs</p>

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24
Q

<p>What is the allowable cabin load for the C-17 aircraft?</p>

A

<p>90,000 lbs</p>

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25

What is the allowable cabin load for the C-5 aircraft?

150,000 lbs

26

In a convoy what is the maintenance officer responsible for?

Maintenance of equipment on a convoy, repairing breakdowns, towing equipment.

27

What are the three color classifications of convoy routes?

Red, Green, Yellow

28

What are sixcons used for?

Water, Fuel

29

What does MHE stand for?

Material Handling Equipment

30

What does WHE stand for?

Weight Handling Equipment

31

What colors are the background of the organic and augment equipment decals?

Red/White

32

What is an SF-91 used for?

Accident report

33

A vehicle must be in what condition code to be in live storage?

A5

34

What plan or order gives the authority to initiate supply personnel and administrative procedures required by a move?

Execution order

35

Which OPNAV forms is for unsafe/unhealthful working condition reporting?

OPNAV 5100/11

36

Which safety equipment are worn at all times at all construction sites, shop spaces, warehouses, storage yards, industrial areas and other areas designated by the safety officer?

Steel toed shoes and hard hats

37

Which shop operations have the highest potential for eye hazards?

Cutting or welding metals

38

Which form is used as a requisition and consumption reporting document for procuring non-NSN material?

NAVSUP 1250-2

39

What is the frequency range of the AN/PRC-119?

30-87.975 Mhz in 25 Khz steps

40

How many crypto fills can a AN/CZY-10 hold in its memory?

1000 keys

41

What replaced the AN/CZY-10 Data Transfer Device (DTD)?

AN/PYQ-10 Simple Key Loader (SKL)

42

While monitoring the battalion tactical net, you notice that someone is using your call sign. What is the correct procedure you should follow?

Call gingerbread on that particular net

43

What is the least secure method of communication?

Radio

44

While transmitting from your station to another, the receiving station responds with "Beadwindow." What is your response?

Roger out

45

BAMCIS

```

Begin planning Arrange recon Make recon Complete the plan Issue the order Supervise

```
46

SMEAC

```

Situation Mission Execution Admin and Logistics Command and Signal

```
47

KOCOA

```

Key the terrain Observation and Fields of Fire Cover and Concealment Obstacles Avenues of Approach

```
48

SALUTE

```

Size Activity Location Uniform Time Equipment

```
49

HASS

Higher Adjacent Support Subordinate

50

METT-TC

```

Mission Enemy Terrain Troops Available Civilian and Legal Considerations

```
51

SAFE

Security Assignment of Automatic Weapons Fields of Fire Entrenchment

52

CESE

Civil Engineer Support Equipment

53

ADDRAC

```

Alert Direction Description Range Action Command

```
54

JSLIST

```

Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit Technology

```
55

ROWPU

```

Reverse Osmosis Water Purification Unit

```
56

SPOT

Situation Position Observation Time

57

NAAK

Nerve Agent Antidote Kit

58

ICAM

Improved Chemical Agent Monitor

59

ELCAS

Elevated Causeway System

60

RRDF

Roll on Roll off Discharge Facility

61

DRAW-D

```

Defend Reenforce Attack Withdraw Delay

```
62

FPF

Final Protective Fire

63

FPL

Final Protective Line

64

PDF

Principal Direction of Fire

65

BSC

Beach Support Command

66

TOC

Tactical Operation Command

67

MTVR

Modular Tactical Vest

68

SLLS

Stop Look Listen Smell

69

LP/OP

Listening Post/Observation Post

70

FITCAL

```

Feel Inspect Tighten Clean Adjust Lubricate

```
71

OPDS

Offshore Petroleum Discharge System

72

ABLTS

```

Amphibious Bulk Liquid Transfer System

```
73

FIG

Flanking Interlocking Grazing

74

MOPP

Mission Oriented Protective Posture

75

How many pressure points are there and what are they?

22. (11 on the left, 11 on the right) 1) Superficial Temporal 2) Facial 3) Carotid 4) Subclavian 5) Axillary 6) Brachial 7) Radial 8) Femoral 9) Popliteal 10) Posterior Tibial 11) Dorsal Pedal

76

In the acronym KOCOA, what best descirbes "Observations and Fields of Fire" with respect to the enemy?

Possible enemy machine gun emplacements and wide open areas that would be likely used as ambush points

77

What is the formula for calculating TM for a two axel vehicle?

(W1 x D1) + (W2 x D2)

78

How many P4OG pontoons make up the width of the ELCAS roadway?

Three

79

What degree or angle is the beach ramp set at?

7.5 Degrees

80

How long will a JSLIST suit protect you in a contaminated environment?

24 hours

81

What describes MOPP Level 1?

Over garment worn/boots, mask, gloves carry

82

Who was the only Seabee to earn the medal of honor?

CM3 Marvin Shields

83

How do you determine your pace count?

Walk 100 meters, count every left step taken

84

What is the color of the tip of ammo that designates tracer rounds?

Red/Orange

85

What's the minimum dimensions of each piece of dunnage when used with the 463L pallet?

4" x 4" x 88"

86

What acronym aids leaders in the initial 6 step planning process?

BAMCIS

87

What Sea State can the Causeway Ferry survive in?

SS4

88

What is the M16 Point Target?

550 M

89

What is the M16 Area Target?

800 M

90

What is MOPP Level 0?

IPE available for immediate donning, protective mask with filter available

91

What is the treatment for deeply embedded white phosphorous?

Place a soaked dressing

92

True or false: There are only 5 categories of HAZMAT

False. There are six.

93

Navy owned property that costs $5,000 or more and has a useful life expectancy of two or more years is referred to as_______property?

Plant

94

On topographical maps, what does the color green indicate?

Vegetation

95

On what date were the Seabees officially given their name?

March 5, 1942

96

What is the acronym CINCIANTFLT?

Commander in Chief Atlantic Fleet Forces

97

What size NATO rounds are fired by the M240b?

7.62 mm

98

The degree of hazard is expressed by a numerical code 1 through....

Five

99

When under an NBC attack, when do you give warning?

After you mask

100

WD-1 wire is composed of what material?

Copper/Steel

101

What department is in charge of operations?

S3

102

What classification is given to forklifts?

MHE

103

RRDF supports what type of mission?

RO/RO and LO/LO

104

The SB-22 telephone switchboard has____lines single stacked and _______lines double stacked?

12, 29

105

How many US Navy ships have been named after the Seabees?

Two

106

A Causeway Ferry fully loaded can carry/hold how many tons?

280 Tons

107

The amount of money estimated for a unit to perform its mission is referred to as..?

OPTAR

108

What forms for chemical agents come in?

Vapor, Solid, Liquid, Gas

109

Why do you secure a dressing on three sides for a sucking chest wound?

To allow excess pressure to be released

110

How should you carry a victim on a stretcher when traveling?

Feet forward

111

Which best describes local direction and control movements or maneuvers to accomplish the mission?

TACON

112

What year was the Sailors Creed introduced?

1993

113

Who is authorized to certify a confined space as safe for entry?

Gas free engineer

114

True or false: The following weapons are part of the NCF's TOA: M9, M16, M240b, M500, MK19, AT4, M203, M2?

False

115

Which acronym is used to help leaders distribute target assignments, locate targets and regulate fire power?

ADDRAC

116

RRDF is capable of operation in what SS fully loaded?

SS2

117

What color copy of the 1250-1 is used to create and/or update the historical demand file?

Pink

118

When giving self aid, how long should you wait if still experiencing the symptom of a nerve agent before administering a second dose?

10-15 minutes between 2nd and 3rd dose

119

How long is a Secret clearance good for?

10 years

120

How often is the EDVR distributed?

Monthly

121

The recommended crew to operate the Causeway Ferry is...?

7

122

What is the max range of the M240b?

3725 M

123

What company is responsible for vertical construction?

Charlie

124

What company is responsible for horizontal construction?

Alfa

125

What rates make up CUCM?

EA, BU, SW

126

What rates make up UCCM?

UT, CE

127

What rates make up EQCM?

EO, CM

128

What is the max effective range of the M203 on an area target?

350 M

129

What is the identification marking for NMCB organic CESE?

Diamond shape, red background, white numerals

130

How many types of shoring are used during embarkation operation?

4

131

In the acronym KOCOA, which best describes "Observation and Fields of Fire" for defensive units?

Proper machine gun emplacement acquired by favorable terrain shelter and/or cover, which would allow the best visibility possible

132

The C5 can carry a max of_____463L Pallets?

36

133

How many steps are in ORM?

5

134

What is FITCAL?

```

Feel Inspect Tighten Clean Adjust Lubricate

```
135

What are the 8 cycles of fire?

```

Feeding Chambering Locking Firing Unlocking Extracting Ejecting Cocking

```
136

What form is used to document the report of survey and to certify the survey process when property is lost, stolen, and/or damaged?

DD200

137

On machine gun tripods, elevation readings are in what unit of measurement?

MILS

138

Single hearing protection is required when the noise levels continuously exceed...?

84 decibels

139

What does DRMO mean?

Defense Reutilization Marketing Office

140

ORM means?

Operational Risk Management

141

In what year was the CEC officially named and authorized?

1867

142

What acronym is used to help leaders determine enemy capabilities?

DRAW-D

143

Prior to first use, temporary power sources are inspected, certified safe and...?

Tagged

144

A lockout device can be any device that is designed to secure a switch, valve or similar item in the....?

"Off" or "Safe" position

145

Navy personnel must enter a hearing testing program when they work for an 8-hour period in a designated hazardous noise area above what decibel level?

84 decibels

146

A combination of insert and circumaural type hearing protective devices are required in areas where noise exceeds what decibel level?

104 decibels

147

What center provides the primary centralized control facilities for the battalion commander?

COC

148

The distribution of personnel shortages and excesses is determined by what document?

Naval Manning Plan

149

Who prepares operation orders for the battalion?

S3 Operating Officer

150

Establishing equal opportunity programs for each command is the responsibility of...?

The command managed equal opportunity officer

151

Which company is known as the shops and utilities company?

Bravo Co

152

At what current level does the GFCI trip?

3 to 5 mA

153

Who chairs the command safety policy committee?

Executive officer

154

Explain each MOPP Level?

```

0- Keep gear accessible 1- Don smock and trousers 2- Don over boots 3- Don mask and pull up hood 4- Don chemical gloves

```
155

What is the 9-1124 0/13 known as?

Trouble Report (Hard Card)

156

What does NCF stand for?

Naval Construction Force

157

What are the characteristics of the M16?

```

Light weight Magazine fed Gas operated Air cooled Shoulder fired Semi-fully Automatic

```
158

How many times was the Sailors Creed revised?

Two; 1981, 1993

159

What year were the Seabees named?

13 OCT 1775

160

What classification is given to forklifts?

MHE

161

What are the S-Codes?

```

S1- Admin S2- Intel S3- Operations S4- Supply S6- Comms S7- Training

```
162

What is an OF/346?

Military Drivers License

163

What is the allowable cabin load for a C-5 Galaxy?

150,000 lbs

164

What are the four methods to control bleeding?

Direct pressure Elevation Indirect pressure (22 pressure points) Tourniquet

165

Which grenade produces 55,000 candle-power for a period of 25-seconds?

Illuminating

166

What is the effective casualty radius of the M-67 fragmentation grenade?

15 meters

167

What type of grenade is used for signaling?

Colored smoke

168

What is the theoretical number of rounds a weapon can fire in one-minute called?

Cyclic rate of fire

169

Which fighting position is the simplest?

Hasty individual

170

What is the definition of concealment?

Protection from enemy observation

171

Which action should you take if caught at night in the light of a ground flare while on security patrol?

Move out of the line of sight as quickly and as quietly as possible

172

How many basic colors are used on a military map?

Five

173

What does the reddish-brown color signify on a military map?

All terrain relief features

174

True or false: Firing over hills, forest walls and other defenses is a tactical purpose of the MK19

True

175

What is a delay beyond normal ignition time for round functioning?

Hangfire

176

What is the actual rate of fire a weapon can deliver for an indefinite period of time?

Sustained rate of fire

177

What is the complete failure of a round to fire?

Misfire

178

What are the maximum ranges for point and area targets for the M203 grenade launcher?

150 meters (point) 350 meters (area)

179

What are the maximum effective range and maximum range for the M2HB.50 cal?

Max effective range- 1830 meters | Max range- 6800 meters

180

Which types of grenades are used to destroy equipment?

Incendiary

181

True or false: the safety on any weapon is to remain on safe until you are actually aiming at a target and ready to fire.

True

182

What is the maximum effective range of the M9 pistol?

50 meters

183

The M9 pistol has how many safeties?

One

184

What is the maximum range of the M16?

3534 meters

185

The maximum effective range of the M16 point and area target are?

550 meters point, 800 meters area

186

What type of fire is not less than 1 meter above and not higher than 68 inches from the ground and can exist for 600 meters over level or evenly sloping ground?

Grazing fire

187

What is the maximum effective range of the MK-19 40mm machine gun?

1500 meters

188

By stacking the SB-22 switchboard and utilizing the operator pack, how many lines can be utilized?

29

189

The TA-312/PT has a range of how many miles?

14 to 22

190

What three factors effect radio communication?

Weather, terrain, frequency of transmission

191

When handling top secret information, what is one of the conditions that must exist?

Two person integrity

192

What is one of the capabilities of the AN/PRC-119?

Line of sight communication

193

What is the primary method of communicating in a defense area?

Wire

194

What is the secondary method of communicating in a defense area?

Radio

195

Which of the following prowords is used to pass extremely critical messages?

Flash

196

How many articles are contained in the code of conduct for US Code of Conduct for US fighting forces?

Six articles

197

What plan or order provides the course of action to accomplish a future mission?

Operation plan

198

What center controls, coordinates and monitors movement of personnel, supplies and equipment to an embarkation staging area?

MOCC

199

Which report provides a monthly statement of a commands enlisted personnel account?

EDVR

200

Whose primary duties include providing advice and expertise in small arms?

Military Advisor

201

Who is the legal officer in the battalion?

S1

202

Which company is known as the general construction company?

Charlie Company

203

The 13-digit stock number that identifies items in the federal supply system is known as the...?

NSN- National Stock Number

204

This____lists all repair parts installed in equipment and the components to which they apply.

APL- Allowance Parts List

205

The two-character alphanumeric code designating inventory manager is known as the...?

COG

206

Which acronym is used when an item is ordered and not on station?

NIS- Not In Station

207

The inventory control principle is known as...?

SIM- Selected Item Management

208

Which functional outlet issues and inventories repair parts for CESE and material handling equipment?

ARP- Automotive Repair Parts

209

A listing of equipment and its support material, which allows a unit to be self-sufficient for 1200 construction hours or 60 days, is the...?

COSAL- Consolidated Shipboard Allowance List

210

True or false: Booming is an effective means of oil spill containment on calm water?

True

211

CHMRIMP

```

Consolidated Hazardous Material Reutilization Inventory Management Program

```
212
Minor property is valued between..?
$300-5000
213
What is NAVSUP 1220-2 used for?
Requesting a change in allowance quantities
214
What form is used to receive or turn in material to DRMO?
DD 1348-1A
215
What dollar value of tool loss requires a DD200 (survey)?
Line item over $35 or total loss over $100
216
True or false: If an item experiences 2 or more demands (hits) within a year, it qualifies for the selected item management (SIM) program.
False
217
What is the purpose of COSAL?
To provide authority to stock repair parts
218
True or false: The supply officer of an NMCB is responsible for CTR and MLO as well as the traditional supply outlets
True
219
True or false: personal protection equipment is not required when handling hazardous material or hazardous waste?
False
220
What are the storage procedures for incompatible materials?
Materials may be stored in approved containers if they are separated and placed a minimum of 50 feet from an ignition source
221
Explain the procedure when a hazardous material/hazardous waste (HM/HW) spill is discovered.
Respond immediately with approved team, equipment, disposal plan, reports made and tests done for remaining contamination and disposal within strict guidelines
222
Which best describes the required training for all hands with respect to the HW/HM program?
Supervisors- recognize unsafe and unhealthful conditions and practices and develops skills necessary to manage the activities OSH program. Management- ensures an aggressive and continuing OSH program is implemented Non-supervisory- specialized job-safety and health training
223
True or false: the purpose of secondary labeling of hazmat is to inform the user by use of words, pictures, and/or symbols, the specific health hazards of the chemical in the container
True
224
In what kind of fracture does the bone break the skin and tissues?
Open or compound fracture
225
``` Which of the following is NOT a method of disinfecting water for drinking in the field? Iodine tablets Calcium Hydrochloride Ampules Boiling Reverse Osmosis ```
Reverse Osmosis
226
What are the characteristics of the material safety data sheet?
Communicates to the user the chemical, physical, and hazardous properties of that material; document generated by the manufacturer about the material; communicates the name, address, emergency contacts, fire and explosive data, reactivity data, precautions for safe handling and control measures of the material.
227
What is the first method used in the control of bleeding?
Direct pressure
228
True or false: sucking chest wounds should be sealed as soon as possible with an airtight dressing taped on four sides
False. It should be taped on three sides to allow air to escape
229
What type of burn is often the most painful and forms blisters
Second degree
230
What type of heat casualty exhibits the following signs: Hot, dry skin; constricted pupils; very high body temperature?
Heat stroke
231
A victim that is shivering, listless, indifferent, and drowsy is most likely suffering from...?
Hypothermia
232
True or false: when reinforcing a battle dressing you should always remove the old dressing before applying another dressing
False
233
What is the purpose of a mishap investigation?
To find the root cause and prevent similar mishaps
234
What type(s) of respirator(s) is/are used by the NCF?
Self-contained breathing apparatus, air purifying respirator, supplied air respirator
235
The command asbestos policy is extremely important since asbestos is recognized as a/an?
Major health hazzard
236
How many principal pressure points are there on the human body?
22
237
The abdominal thrust (Heimlich) maneuver is a treatment for which of the following?
Choking
238
In the body, the large vessels that carry blood away from the heart are...?
Arteries
239
True or false: Shock is a condition in which the circulation of the blood is seriously disturbed and causes a lack of oxygen to body systems
True
240
In defensive combat, emphasis is placed on which of the following types of patrols?
Security
241
Fire commands consist of six necessary elements. What is the acronym to express this?
ADDRAC
242
What consideration has the highest priority in the selection of tent campsite?
Tactical
243
What is the first priority of the rapid runway repair organization?
Establishment of a minimum operating strip
244
When transporting causeways, aboard which of the following ships is side loading accomplished?
LST
245
What form is filled out using the battalions level II master activities summary sheet?
Construction Activity Summary Sheet (CASS)
246
What is the correct ORM sequence?
``` IAMIS. Identify hazards Assess hazards Make risk decisions Implement controls Supervise ```
247
Bloodshot eyes, irritation of the throat, hoarseness, coughing and burns in moist areas are symptoms of what?
Exposure to blister agents
248
True or false: dryness of throat, coughing, headache, burning eyes and accumulation of fluid in lungs are all symptoms of exposure to choking agents
True
249
Which chemical agent liquids will M9 paper detect and what color will the M9 paper show?
Yellow/Gold= G Nerve Agent Red/Pink= H Blister Agent Dark Green= V Nerve Agent
250
What is used for immediate skin decontamination?
M291 skin decontamination kit (SDK)
251
Skin decontamination should be accomplished within how many minutes of exposure?
One minute
252
Areas of terrain contaminated with chemical agents should be identified with which of the following?
Yellow background with red letters
253
What are the three different types of CBR surveys?
Area, point, route
254
True or false: ORM will always eliminate risks?
False
255
What is the minimum distance latrines and garbage pits can be located from the nearest water supply?
100 meters
256
What is the most common method of disinfecting drinking water?
Chlorination
257
If exposed to chemical agents, how long will the MK-III chemical overgarment provide protection?
6 hours
258
The M8A1 automatic chemical agent alarm system can be used to detect a blister agent attack?
False
259
Headache, runny nose, excessive salivation, difficulty breathing, nausea, pinpoint pupils and localized twitching of muscles are symptoms of exposure to what?
Nerve Agents
260
The M8 chemical detector paper detects what chemical agents?
Blister, G series Nerve Agent, V series Nerve Agent
261
MOPP gear exchange is performed during what level of decontamination?
Operational
262
What does the acronym ABFC stand for?
Advance Base Functional Components
263
In the ABFC system, how many parts are contained in Vol I?
Three
264
Which is included among the contents of the NAVFAC P-437?
Drawings of facilities and assemblies
265
In the ABFC system, what code identifies assemblies required for use in northern temperature zone?
N
266
What is the minimum number of Rapid Runway Repair (RRR) command center personnel a battalion should have qualified?
72
267
How many personnel need to be trained at battalion level I and II in order to satisfy the requirements of RRR?
46 at level I, 20 at level II, 6 createmobile
268
What type of extinguisher should be used on a class C fire?
Portable CO2 extinguisher
269
What is the minimum distance a garbage pit can be located from messing facilities?
30 meters
270
How many patrol planning and preparation steps are there?
12
271
True or false: The objective of defense is to hold ground already occupied and keep it clear of the enemy
True
272
If you are a prisoner of war, what information do you give your captors?
Name, Rank, SSN, DOB
273
How many fighting positions are used in a defense?
Three
274
What position is used to protect against a surprise enemy attack?
Supplementary
275
Within a barrier plan, what are the three classes of wire entanglements?
Supplementary Tactical Protective
276
What basic fire team formation provides good all around security?
Wedge