All concepts Flashcards
(171 cards)
1
Q
A nurse is describing the process of metastasis. Which is necessary in order for metastasis to occur?
A
Decreased Cell Adhesions
2
Q
Adaptive cellular mechanisms function to?
A
Protect cells from injury
3
Q
A nurse is preparing a presentation on progressive neurological disorders. Which concept should be taught?
A
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)- degenerative disorder of both upper and lower motor neurons.
4
Q
The postmortem decrease in a patient’s body temperature will be documented as:
A
Algor Mortis
5
Q
Your patient hass Guillain-Barré. During the health history you should ask about a history of:
A
Respiratory or Gastrointestinal viral infections
6
Q
The condition that occurs when a zygote is missing in each cell is referred to as ?
A
a “Monosomy”
7
Q
During a myasthenic or cholinergic crisis, a patient is in danger of?
A
Respiratory arrest
8
Q
A patient has multiple myeloma. Which area in the body does the nurse closely monitor for the tumer masses?
A
Bones
9
Q
A process in which a piece of one chromosome is moved to another chromosome:
A
Translocation
10
Q
Your patietn’s forehead hit the steering wheel during a motor vehicle accident. Which part of the brain received the coup injury?
A
Frontal
11
Q
Which information indicates that the nurse has a good understanding of clastogens? Clastogens are agents that cause:
A
Chromosomal breakage
12
Q
Which substance is released during a viral infection and signals neighboring cells to enhance viral defenses?
A
Interferon
13
Q
A patient has lymphoblastic lymphoma. Which organ is most affected?
A
Thymus
14
Q
Leukemia is classified as?
A
acute or chronic
15
Q
What term is used to describe cancer that extends to organs or tissues distant from the site of origin?
A
Metastasis
16
Q
A nurse wants to teach about the most common primary immune deficiency condition. What deficiency should the nurse describe?
A
Common variable immune deficiency
17
Q
You observe a platelet count of 9,000/mm3, which condition must you monitor for in this patient?
A
Spontaneous bleeding
18
Q
For metastasis to occur, tumor cells must be capable of:
A
Surviving in the bloodstream
19
Q
While reviewing a patient’s health history, which finding will most alert the nurse to the possible development of chronic subdural hematoma?
A
Prior brain atrophy
20
Q
A patient is preparing to receive adjuvant therapy for cancer. What should the nurse tell the patient to reinforce teaching? this type of therapy:
A
is given after cance surgery
21
Q
your patient is having a reaction to a bee sting. Which type of hypersensitivity are they displaying?
A
Type 1
22
Q
The process by which RNA is formed from DNA for protein synthesis is?
A
Transcription
23
Q
The somatic cell that contains a multiple of 23 chromosomes is called?
A
euploid cell
24
Q
In a patient with an epidural hematoma, the nurse recalls that bleeding occurs between the skull and:
A
Dura mater
25
A patient has chronic active hepatitis B infection. Which type of cancer should the nurse assess for in this patient?
Liver cancer
26
Which is the chief function of ribosomes?
Protein synthesis
27
When an infant has been identified as having had fetal exposure to alcohol, which assessment parameters should be considered?
Low birth weight, mental retardation, facial anomalies
28
The best treatment for multiple myeloma:
Chemotherapy
29
A patient with a combined immune deficiency lacks:
T and B lymphocytes
30
A Patient ruptured the middle Meningeal artery, resulting in an epidural hemorrhage. The nurse realizes that in this type of intracranial hemorrhage; the bleeding occurs between the dura mater and the:
Skull
31
A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis. Which information should the nurse include?
This is an autoimmune disease mediated by antibodies against the acetylcholine receptors, resulting in defective nerve impulses.
32
Which statement indicates that the nurse needs more teaching regarding the types of subdural hematoma?____________ is a type of subdural hematoma.
Intracerebral
33
An individual who is heterozygous for a gene has:
Alleles at a given locus that are different from one another.
34
What term is used to describe the process of endocytosis?
Engulfment
35
The major phagocytic cells in inflammation are:
Neutrophils and Macrophages
36
Which intervertebral disks should the nurse assess first for herniation?
L4-S1
37
Hypersplenism occurs when?
The spleen is overactive
38
Which symptoms should you assess for in a patient with Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Night sweats, low grade fevers, and weight loss
39
A patient has a complement deficiency of C5 and C7. The nurse should monitor this patient for infections caused by:
Neisseria
40
During your assesment of a patient with meningitis, you want to test for nuchal rigidity. Which test will you implement?
Kernig
41
The outward manifestation of a disease, often influenced by both genes, and the environment is called the disease?
Phenotype
42
Dysplasia is characterized by abnormal changes in:
Cell secretions
43
What is the role of plasmin in the inflammatory response cycle?
It controls clotting by breaking down fibrin
44
The nurse should evaluate the cancer patient with fatigue for?
Depression
45
Which causes metaplasia in humans?
Cell injury from noxious stimuli
46
cerebral thrombosis develops most often from:
Atherosclerosis and inflammatory disease processes (arteritis)
47
What is the leading cause of death in developed countries?
Cancer
48
Autonomic hyperreflexia is caused by?
Stimulation of sensory/pain receptors below the level of the spinal cord lesion
49
The triplet of base pairs necessary to code for a specific amino acid is called a?
Codon
50
When a patient has tissue iuschemia and a decrease in mitochondrial oxygenation, which of the following does the nurse expect?
Decreased ATP production
51
A herniated disk allows the gelatinous material (the nucleus pulposus) to:
extrude and compress the nerve root
52
A patient has Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome. Which typical assessment indings should the nurse monitor for in this patient?
Decreased IgM and bleeding
53
Your patient with HIV has painful burning dysesthesias and paresthesias, especially in the extremities. What condition will you document in the chart?
HIV Neuropathy
54
What would you expect to occur when a patient's cancer is caused by mutations of a proto-oncogene?
Increased cell division
55
The nurse is caring for a patient with a genetic disease that is transmitted through autosomal recessive inheritance. Which is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Cystic Fibrosis
56
Your patient has a brief episode of neurological deficits that resolves within 12 hours with a return to normal functioning. What diagnosis should you document on the chart?
Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
57
Which statement made by the cancer patient indicates the need for more teaching? A major cause of cancer pain is?
Cancer cells residing in lymphnodes
58
A patient has aquired immunofeficiency syndrome(AIDS). Which laboratory report should the nurse monitor closely in this patient?
Lymphocyte counts
59
A patient asks the role of clotting mechanisms during inflammation. The nurse should indicate that the function of the clotting cascade during inflammation is to:
Trap microorganisms
60
When a patient has an extreme laceration (with a flap), which medical terms should the nurse document on the chart?
Avulsion
61
If a patient has Gaucher disease, which organs should the nurse monitor?
Liver, splee, CNS/brain
62
A couple has two offspring; one child has an autosomal recessive disease trait and one is normal. What most likely conclusions can the nurse make about the parents?
Both parents could be carriers
63
Which symptom will surprise the nurse when assessing a patient with cachexia?
Heart murmur
64
A patient has a recent spinal cord injury. Which term should the nurse use to describe the loss of reflex function below the level of injury/lesion?
Spinal shock
65
What type of cell is most affected by acute leukemia?
Blast cell
66
Which of the following treatments to help cancer-related or chemotherapy-related anemia should the nurse discuss with the patient?
Erythropoietin
67
When the clinician is discussing the DNA helix, which information should be included? The helix, guanine pairs with?
Cytosine
68
Irritative syndromes involve?
Compressive symptoms plus radicular pain and paresthesias
69
Which organ is most frequently affected by chronic alcohol (ethanol) injury?
Liver
70
DiGeorge syndrome is characterized by absence or underdevelopment of which organ?
Thymus
71
The nurse in the genetics clinic is describing a genetic disease that leads to progressive dementia in middle to later adulthood. To which disease is the nurse most likely referring?
Huntington's Disease
72
Which statement by a nursing student indicates the need for further teaching? Free radical injury can be caused by:
Tissue damage by antioxidants
73
If a patient has liquefactive necrosis, which organ should the nurse assess first?
Brain
74
A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of a herniated disk. Which information should the nurse include?
The nucleus pulposus extrudes and compresses the nerve root
75
A patient has a spinal cord tumor that originated within the neural tissues. What type of tumor is this called?
Intramedullary
76
A patient with cancer sustains an excessive amount of tumor necrosis factor alpha. For which condition should the nurse be particularly alert?
Cachexia
77
A patient has a vertebral disorder that involves a structural defect (often hereditary) that causes forward displacement of the affected vertebra. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe documented on the chart?
Spondylisthesis
78
What is the primary cause of cervical cancer?
Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
79
What usually causs encephalitis?
A Viral infection
80
What type of injury will the nurse prepare to care for when a patient has diffuse brain injury?
Concussion
81
The process by which cells program themselves to die:
Apoptosis
82
What term does the nurse use to describe the exudate that is characterized by the movement of watery fluid, containing few cells and little protein?
Serous
83
ALS is caused by:
Degeneration of lower and upper motor neurons
84
A patient is experiencing leukopenia from cancer and chemotherapy treatment. Which condition should you assess for in this patient?
Infection
85
The nurse on a neurological unit is caring for several patients. Which patient is at highest risk for a cerebral vascular accident (stroke)? The patient with:
Hypertension and diabetes
86
Malignant tumors have a tendency to:
Invade surrounding tissues; they also grow rapidly and have a tendency to metastasize
87
Most commonly reported sypmtom associated with cancer is:
Fatigue
88
The retinoblastoma gene is what type of gene?
A tumor-suppressor gene
89
Cellular atrophy is:
Decrease in cell size
90
You are planning a community teaching event about systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). To which population should your teaching be primarily targeted?
Women, 20-40 years old
91
A sign associated with classic cerebral concussion is:
loss of consciousness
92
A patient developed a subdural hematoma within 12 hours of the injury. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe documented on the chart?
Acute subdural hematoma
93
The development of sensory and motor symptoms in multiple sclerosis is causedby:
Immunologic and inflammatory demyelination of central nervous system neurons
94
A geneticist is teaching a class that includes information about DNA. Which information should be included? DNA contains:
The genetic code for all parts of the body
95
Among the innate defenses the body has to pathogens, the first line of defense is the:
Skin and mucous membranes
96
The nurse documents "Tattooing and stippling" in a trauma patient. Which type of injury does this patient have?
Gunshot wound
97
While discussing the complement system, which information should the nurse include? The alternative pathway of the complement system is activated by:
Bacteria
98
When assessing a patient with SLE, you should expect to identify:
Arthralgia, anemia, and rash
99
A patient has a thrombosis. While reviewing the history, the nurse found the patient has atherosclerosis. To which component of the Virchow triad does the atherosclerosis correlate?
Endothelial injury
100
Subdural hematomas:
Bleeding between the dura mater and the brain
101
A disease results in the accumulation of lipids in the nerve cells of the brain:
Tay-sachs disease
102
Which information should the nurse include when teaching about focal brain injury? Most forms of focal brain injury are associated with increased:
Brain swelling
103
Secondary hypertension is caused by:
An underlying disease process or medication that raises peripheral vascular resistance or cardiac output.
104
The main white blood cell that plays a role in the development of the fatty streak in atherosclerosis is the:
Macrophage
105
A nurse is asked why myocardial ischemia is usually reversible within 20 minutes. What is the nurses best response?
Anaerobic metabolism maintains cellular integrity for approximately 20 mins
106
A patient's coronary blood flow is insufficient to meet the metabolic demands of the myocytes. Which term will the nurse use to describe this process?
Myocardial ischemia
107
A patient is diagnosed with chronic pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which of the following heart failure does the nurse assess for in this patient.
Right-sided heart failure
108
Prinzmetal angina is caused by?
Vasospasm
109
If a patient's history indicates that the cardiac valve disease is autosomal dominant, which diagnosis will the nurse observe written in the chart?
Mitral valve prolapse
110
Mitogens, such as angiotensin II, and growth factors stimulate:
Smooth muscle proliferation
111
One complication of sustained hypertension is:
Anemia
112
Aortic stenosis results in the incomplete emptying of the:
Left ventricle
113
High ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) ratio can be caused by:
Obstruction to pulmonary blood flow
114
Dyspnea that occurs when an individual lies flat and is common in individuals with heart failure:
Orthopenea
115
All disorders associated with ARDS cause massive pulmonary:
Inflammation
116
A patient has recently developed chronic bronchitis. Which assessment findings is typical for this patient?
A productive cough
117
What term is used to describe hypertrophy of the nailbeds due to chronic hypoxemia?
Clubbing
118
A patient has pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and hemoptysis. The primary care provider suspects a pulmonary embolus. Which laboratory test should the nurse check to help confirm this diagnosis?
D-dimer levels
119
Which assessment finding indicates that the patient is experiencing dyspnea?
Feelings of shortness of breath
120
A patient in the emergency room reports coughing up blood, night swears, and recently "feeling tired all of the time." The patient is feverish. What medical condition does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?
Tuberculosis
121
An area where alveoli are ventilated but not perfused is termed:
Alveolar dead space
122
Obstruction to pulmonary blood flow results in:
Decreased perfusion and a high V/Q ratio
123
Which assessment finding indicates that the patient is experiencing dyspnea?
Thrombocytopenia and abnormal platelet functioning
124
A primary care provider tells the nurse that a patient has a shift to the left. Which type of patient will the nurse be caring for? A patient with a:
bacterial infection
125
Which concept should the nurse include when describing the pathophysiology of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
Schizocytes/Schistocytes
126
A patient has hypersplenism. How should the nurse explain this to the patient? In this disease, which is related to the spleen, the spleen is:
overacting
127
A patient has acute leukemia. A nurse recalls the cell most affected by this disease is a:
blast cell
128
A patient has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which laboratory report should the nurse monitor closely in this patient?
lymphocyte counts
129
Which assessment finding is typical in a patient with multiple myeloma (MM)?
Hypercalcemia
130
A patient has heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Which condition is a priority to assess?
Pulmonary embolism
131
Which symptoms should the nurse assess for in a patient with Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Night sweats, low-grade fevers, and weight loss
132
A patient has atherosclerosis. Which factor associated with endothelia injury will the nurse observe written in the history?
Autoimmunity
133
If a patient has secondary hypertension, the nurse realizes that the patient has an abnormal blood pressure caused by:
an underlying disease
134
Which principle should the nurse use to guide nursing care for a patient with aortic stenosis? Aortic stenosis results in the incomplete emptying of the:
left ventricle
135
A nurse is teaching about obesity and adipokines. Which information should the nurse include? Obesity causes a decrease of:
adiponectin
136
A nurse is asked what causes Prinzmetal angina. How should the nurse respond? Princmetal angina is caused by:
vasospasm
137
A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of atherosclerosis. Which information should the nurse include? The main white blood cell that plays a role in the development of the fatty streak in atherosclerosis is the:
macrophage
138
A nurse is asked why myocardial ischemia is usually reversible within 20 minutes. What is the nurse's best response?
Anaerobic metabolism maintains celllar intergrity for approximately 20 minutes.
139
Which laboratory results will cause the nurse to suspect coronary artery disease (CAD) in a patient?
Elevated level of LDL and decreased level of HDL
140
If a patient's history indicates that the cardiac valve disease is autosomal dominant, which diagnosis will the nurse observe written in the chart?
Mitral valve prolapse
141
A patient is diagnosed with chronic pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which of the following heart failures does the nurse assess for in this patient?
Right-sided heart failure
142
A patient has recently developed chronic bronchitis. Which assessment finding is typical for this patient?
Productive cough
143
Pulmonary edema and atelectasis are examples of ________ pulmonary disease.
restrictive
144
Underlying the pathophysiology of ARDS is massive pulmonary:
inflammation
145
A patient asks the nurse what is most closely associated with the development of lung cancer? How should the nurse respond?
Cigarette smoking
146
A patient has pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and hemoptysis. The primary care provider suspects a pulmonary embolus, Which laboratory test should the nurse check to help confirm this diagnosis?
D-dimer levels
147
Which term will the nurse use to describe hypertrophy of the nailbeds due to chronic hypoxemia?
clubbing
148
A patient has adenocarcinoma of the lungs, What type of cancer does this patient have?
A tumor arising from the lung glands
149
A patient has a pneumothorax. Which action by the nurse is most important for this patient?
Monitoring the chest tube
150
A nurse is describing the pathophysiology of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which information should the nurse include? All disorders associated with ARDS cause massive pulmonary:
inflammation
151
Which assessment finding indicates that the patient is experiencing dyspnea?
felling short of breath
152
The development of sensory and motor symptoms in multiple sclerosis is caused by:
Immunologi and inflammatory demyelination of central nervous system neurons
153
Autonomic hyperreflexia is caused by:
Stimulation of sensory/pain receptors below the level of the spinal cord lesion
154
While reviewing a patient's health history, which finding will most alert the nurse to the possible development of chronic subdural hematoma?
prior brain atrophy
155
Acquired chronic autoimmune disease mediated by antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor (AChR) at the neuromuscular junction:
Myasthenia gravis
156
A patient has a saccular aneurysm. What term can the nurse use to describe this type of aneurysm?
Berry
157
The nurse suspects that the spinal cord-injury patient is experiencing autonomic hyperreflexia. Which symptoms would support this suspicion?
headache and hypertension
158
In classic cerebral concussion, consciousness is lost for up to how many hours?
6
159
A degenerative disorder of both upper and lower motor neurons that causes progressive muscle weakness and wasting:
Amyotrophic lteral sclerosis (ALS), also know as Lou Gehrig disease
160
The nurse is caring for a patient with a closed head injury. Which term should the nurse use when describing the injury?
blunt trauma
161
A patient has a recent spinal cord injury. What term should the nurse use to describe the loss of reflex function below the level of injury/lesion?
Spinal shock
162
A 14-year-old girl has failed to menstruate and develop secondary sex characteristics. What term is used to describe this condition?
primary amenorrhea
163
What term is used when describing the occurrence of sexual maturation in girls before the age of 6 and in boys before the age of 9?
precocious puberty
164
Dermoid cysts are tumors that contain elements of skin, hair, glands, muscle, cartilage, and bone that can eventually develop into:
ovarian cancer
165
Risk factors for the development of endometrial cancer include:
obesity, early menarche, and late menopause
166
Exposure in utero to non-steroidal estrogens (diethylstilbestrol [DES]) also has been identified as a risk factor for:
vaginal cancer
167
Which cancer is the nurse testing for when the Papanicolaou test (Pap Smear) is used for routine screening?
Cervical cancer
168
An abnormal dilation of a vein withing the spermatic cord that can lead to infertility is known as a:
varcocele
169
Polycystic ovarian syndrome results in stimulation of follicle growth without ovulation and generally leads to:
infertility
170
Benign ovarian cysts are classified as:
Follicular, corpus luteum/luteal, or dermoid
171
What intervention is recommended for patients with benign breast disease?
monitoring the intake of caffeine and chocolate
