ALL CORRECTIONS Flashcards

(146 cards)

1
Q

Investigations for sarcoidosis

A

Increased ESR
Hypercalcaemia
Raised ACE

Diagnostic CXR- bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Staging for sarcoidosis

A

stage 1 - BHL
stage 2 - BHL and parenchymal disease
stage 3 - parenchymal disease only
stage 4 - end stage lung - pulmonary fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Treatment for sarcoidosis

A

stage 2 and above
Corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Henoch schonlein purpura

A

IgA deposits on blood
Iga nephropathy ( nephritis) arthralgia, abdo pain and purpura

Childhood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What drugs cause SLE

A

Sulfalazine
Hydralazine
Isoniazid
Procainamide
Penicillamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Symptoms of SLE

A

malar rash
discoid rash
worse on sun exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

antibodies for SLE

A

ANA– sensitive
Anti-dsDNA- more specific
Anti-smith - more specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Wegeners granulomatosis -

A

cANCA
saddle shaped nose
epistaxis

cough
haemoptysis

NEPHRITIC SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Involvement in microscopic polyangiitis

A

lower resp tract involvement and glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is churg strauss and antibodies

A

pANCA
Eosinophilic and autoimmune
Accompanied by asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is amyloidosis

A

starch like deposits in the tissue
Cause nephrotic syndrome
Can cause hyperlipidaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where can amyloidosis cause abnormalities in the body

A

restrictive cardiomyopathy
arrhythmia

Intestines- splenomegaly , hepatomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Diagnostic for amyloidosis

A

Renal biopsy and congo red stain- pink
under polarised light - apple green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Sjogrens syndrome antibody ?

A

Anti - Ro and Anti-La

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Systemic sclerosis antibodies

A

Limited - anti centromere
CREST SYNDROME - hands, face and feet

Systemic - anti-Scl-70
Anti-RNA polymerase
WIDESPREAD ORGAN INVOLVEMENT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Polyarteritis nodosa cause

A

after Hep B
necrotising inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Diagnosis of polyarteritis nodosa

A

MRA- string of pearls appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Polyarteritis nodosa presentation

A

systemic features
LIVEDO RETICULARIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Triad of behcets disease

A

recurrent aphthous ulcers
genital ulcerations
erythema nodosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Polymyositis T cells involvement

A

CD8 T+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Dermatomyositis T cells involvement

A

CD4 T+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Antibodies in poly/dermatomyositis

A

Anti -jo1 , Anti-Mi2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica- symptoms?

A

Bilateral pain and stiffness
NO WEAKNESS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What extrapulmonary feature is seen in sarcoidosis

A

LUPUS PERNIO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Management for psoriasis
potent corticosteroid and vit D analogue ( Calcipotriol)
26
Nail changes seen in psoriasis
subungal hyperkeratosis pitting nails nail thickening onycholysis
27
How to treat dermatitis herpetiformis
dapsone
28
Treatment for pyoderma gangrenosum
high dose prednisolone and dressings
29
What patients is lupus vulgaris found in
TB brown,firm, translucent nodules Full RIPE for a year
30
Rash seen in lyme disease
erythema chronicum migrans
31
Treatment for shingles
oral antivirals within 72 hrs
32
Hypercalcaemia of malignancy treatment vs hypercalcaemia treatment
Malignancy - IV rehydration and pamidronate Hypercalcaemia - IV rehydrations
33
Small cell lung carcinoma treatment
chemo - very sensitive to chemo
34
What is carcinoid syndrome
carcinoid tumours w liver mets - PATIENTS ARE SYMPTOMATIC
35
What can lung adenocarcinomas cause
HPOA- hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy causes inflammation of bones and joints
36
What is toxoplasmosis
HIV patients presents as encephalitis - multiple ring enhancing lesions( hallmark)
37
Copper poisoning presentation
profuse emesis , diarrhoea, abdo pain Metallic taste in mouth and green discolouration in gums
38
Copper poisoning treatment
D-penicillamine
39
Risk factor for gastric ulcers
Use of NSAIDS
40
Amitriptyline toxicity presentation and ECG changes
pupil dilation skin flushing seizures Prolonged QRS and tachyarrythmias
41
What will cause bilateral adrenal atrophy
exogenous steroid use
42
What will be heard in a patient with atrial myxoma
LOUD S3
43
Choice of antihypertensive in pregnant woman
CCB
44
LVH ECG changes
increased amplitude of QRS complexes non-specific T wave inversion
45
Antibody for Type 1 autoimmune hepatitis
ANA
46
What sign is consistent with acute liver pathology
tender smooth hepatomegaly
47
What electrolyte side effect can SSRIs cause
hyponatremia
48
What is charcot's joint
destruction of weight bearing joint secondary to sensory neuropathy affects ankles and knees
49
How does charcot marie tooth disease present- nerve biopsy diagnosis
AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT -symmetrical distal slowly progressive muscle wasting CHAMPAGNE BOTTLE APPEARANCE motor and sensory neuropathy
50
What is enteropathic arthritis
associated with IBD asymmetrical oligoarthritis - larger joints of lower limbs
51
Papillary carcinoma of thyroid presentations
younger females moves with swallowing spreads to lymph nodes
52
Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid presentation
older people acute most aggressive Hard symmetrical rapidly enlarging
53
Pulmonary hypertension management drugs
Prostacyclin analogues - eroprestenol endothelin analogues- bosentan phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors- sildenafil
54
PMR vs fibromyalgia bloods
PMR - Raised ESR Fibromyalgia - normal ESR
55
Choice of antibiotic for severe campylobacter
clarithromycin
56
Primary biliary cirrhosis treatment
Ursodeoxycholic acid
57
What vaccine should you offer men who sleep with other men
Hep A
58
Anterior uveitis treatment
Steroid and cycloplegic /mydriatic( dilates pupil which relieves pain )eye drops-
59
Anal fissure management if conservative fails
sphincterectomy
60
Guillian barre syndrome diagnostic investigation
Lumbar puncture high protein normal WCC
61
Acute angle glaucoma treatment
Pilocarpine and beta blocker eye drops
62
What medications should be avoided in a patient with MG
Beta blockers - worsens MG - leads to decreased FVC
63
What part of brain is damaged in alzheimer's
widespread cerebral atrophy cortex and hippocampus
64
most common causative organism of bullous impetigo
S.aureus
65
Choice of management for neuropathic bladder
intermittent self catheterisation
66
What kind of liver pathology can co-amoxiclav cause
cholestatic picture
67
What can a large PE cause on an ECG
RBBB
68
What is the cause of a painful 3rd nerve palsy
posterior communicating artery Pupil dilation
69
How does a phyllodes breast tumour look on histology
mixed epithelial and connective tissue RARE
70
Description of peau d'orange
cutaneous lymphoedema w/ dimpling
71
Basal atelectasis presentation
Respiratory alkalosis pO2 much lower than expected decreased breath sounds on auscultation post operatively - CHEST PHYSIO
72
Treatment for superficial thrombophlebitis
compression stockings and NSAIDs can be used
73
In BPH where in the prostate is affected
hyperplasia in transitional zone
74
Myelofibrosis - hallmark features on investigations
dry tap dacrocytes/ tear drop cells
75
CK level in rhabdomyolisis
CK > 10,000
76
Most common organism that causes cellulitis
strep pyogenes
77
Meningeal signs
Kernig's sign -- pain on passive extension of knee Brudzinski sign - flexion of neck causes flexion of hips
78
Conjunctiva presentations depending on causative organisms
Viral - most common Allergic - bilateral Bacterial - unilateral
79
Orbital cellulitis management
Hospital admission for IV cefotaximine
80
What treatment can be used for chronic Hep C
interferon alpha
81
Treatment for aspiration pneumonia
metronidazole
82
What is boutonneire deformity
flexed at PIJ hyperextended at DIPJ
83
What is swan neck deformity
hyperextended at PIPJ flexed at DIPJ
84
RBBB changes on ECG
RSR1 pattern in V1 and V2 large S waves in V6 wide QRS complexes
85
Skin changes that can be seen in reactive arthritis
keratoderma blenorrhagicum - pustular crusty yellow brown seen on soles of feet Circinate balanitis - annular lesions on penis
86
Most common eye symptoms in RA
dry eye syndrome
87
Mode of inheritance for alpha 1- antitrypsin deficiency
autosomal recessive
88
What is brugada syndrome
Young males history fo sudden death COVED ST ELEVATION ON ECG
89
What does bacterial keratitis cause
entropion ( in turning of lower eyelid)
90
How do you treat a benzodiazepine overdose
Flumazenil
91
Initial management of rhabdomyolysis
administer IV fluids
92
Most common organism that causes acute bacterial prostatitis
e.coli dysuria, urinary frequency , tender prostate gland
93
Treatment for acute bacterial prostatitis
oral ciprofloxacin
94
What is a side effect of sodium valproate
hepatic dysfunction - deranged LFTs
95
What virus is mollacusum contagiosum associted with
poxvirus
96
Treatment for giardia lamblia infection
metronidazole
97
Conditions associated with erythema multiforme
HSV Mycoplasma pneumonia strep TB
98
Choice of imaging for TIA
MRI brain with diffusion weighted imaging
99
Posterior MI ECG changes
ST depression Tall R waves in V1-V2
100
What is Charles bonnet syndrome
Intact cognition , ocular pathology , visual hallucinations INSIGHT IS PRESERVED
101
What JVP changes are seen in tricuspid stenosis
GIANT A WAVES
102
How does a pontine haemorrhage present
low GCS quadriplegia miosis absent horizontal eye movement
103
How does a lacunar infarct present
ISOLATED HEMISENSORY LOSS
104
First line for focal seizures
lamotrigine/ levetiracetam
105
Most common causative organism of infective exacerbations of COPD
H. influenzae
106
3rd degree heart block JVP signs
Canon A wave
107
AF JVP signs
Absent A wave
108
What will lead poisoning lead to
microcytic anaemia and motor neuropathy
109
HSV in pregnancy management
Oral acyclovir and plan C section for delivery
110
What is post exposure prophylaxis for HIV
oral anti-retroviral therapy for 4 weeks and then retest at 12 weeks
111
Thyroid eye disease treatment
smoking cessation 1st line - oral steroids 2nd line - rituximab 3rd line - radiotherapy
112
Hyperparathyroidism common X ray finding
pepperpot skull
113
Most common organism that causes peritoneal dialysis associated peritonitis
S. epidermidis
114
What kind of signs does cerebellar syndrome cause
unilateral lesions that cause ipsilateral signs Dysdiachokinesia, dysmetria Ataxia Nystagmus Intention tremor Slurred staccato speech Hypotonia
115
What is the management of an acute anal fissure
Dietary advice bulk forming laxatives- first line - isphagula husk
116
Mitral valve prolapse signs
characteristic mid systolic click and systolic murmur
117
Management of chronic anal fissure
topical GTN not effective after 8 weeks - sphincterectomy
118
What is the diagnostic imaging for diverticular disease
CT abdo with oral and IV contrast
119
When do you admit patients for IV antibiotics in diverticulitis
if symptoms do not settle within 72hrs or patient initially presents with more severe symptoms
120
How do thrombosed haemorrhoids present
significant pain purplish, oedematous tender subcutaneous perianal mass
121
How should thrombosed haemorrhoids be managed
patient presents within 72 hrs referral for excision otherwise can use stool softeners, ice packs and analgesia
122
What is the grading of internal haemorrhoids
Grade 1- do not prolapse out of anal canal Grade 2- prolapse on defecation but reduce spontaneously Grade 3- can be manually reduced Grade 4 - cannot be reduced
123
Where is ischaemic colitis most likely to occur
splenic flexure
124
What may be seen on AXR in ischaemic colitis
thumbprinting
125
What are some indications for surgery in a Crohn's patient
complications such as fistulae, abscess formation and strictures
126
What blood marker can be used in patients with medullary carcinoma
Calcitonin
127
What marker can be used generally as thyroid cancer follow up
Thyroglobulin antibodies
128
Hyperkalaemia ECG findings
peaked/tall tented T waves loss of P waves broad QRS complexes sinusoidal wave pattern
129
What patients are identified as being malnourished
BMI <18.5 unintentional weight loss >10% 3-6 months BMI<20 and >5% unintentional weight loss 3-6 month
130
Osteosarcoma key points
most common primary malignant bone tumour sunburst pattern
131
Ewings sarcoma key points
onion skin appearance seen in children and adolescents
132
Chondrosarcoma key points
malignant tumour of cartilage affects axial skeleton more common in middle age
133
What is mirizzi syndrome
RUQ, fever and signs of systemic upset alongside deranged LFTs gallstone impacted in distal cystic duct
134
Features of severe pancreatitis
age>55 hypocalcaemia hyperglycaemia hypoxia neutrophilia elevated LDH and AST
135
Diagnosis of Boerhaaves syndrome
CT contrast swallow
136
Treatment for Boerhaave's syndrome
Thoracotomy and lavage
137
What tumour marker is raised in cholangiocarcinoma
CA19-9
138
What is seen in acute tubular necrosis
features of AKI - raised urea, creatinine, potassium MUDDY BROWN CASTS IN URINE
139
Most common cause of acute urinary retention in men
secondary to BPH- prostate presses on urethra
140
2 main symptoms of chronic urinary retention
painless and insidious
141
What is meant by high pressure retention
impaired renal function and bilateral hydronephrosis -- due to bladder outflow obstruction
142
What is meant by low pressure retention
normal renal function and no hydronephrosis
143
Describe epididymal cysts
seperate from body of testicle found posterior to testicle
144
Describe hydrocele
communicating -- newborns soft non tender swelling of hemi-scrotum you can get above the mass transilluminates
145
What is Marjolins ulcer
squamous cell carcinoma occurs at sites of chronic inflammation - burns, osteomyelitis etc lower limb
146