All encompassing Flashcards

(913 cards)

1
Q

List 4 presenting psychological symptoms of excessive alcohol consumption?

A
  • Depression - Anxiety - Insomnia - Memory problems - Dementia
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1
Q

Why do you get a short PR interval in wolf parkinson white syndrome?

A

Presence of an accessory pathway known as the bundle of kent which can help with the conduction down to the ventricles

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1
Q

How does carbamazepine work?

A

It increases the GABA mediated inhibitory transmission in the CNS thus dec electrical excitibality

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2
Q

How to distinguish between episcleritis and scleritis - what test can you do?

A

Instillation of phenylephrine will not blanch the scleral vessels = scleritis. Episcleritis = mild pain, photophobia, red eye.

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2
Q

Pt presents with unilateral, localised, circumscribed bleeding in one eye. No inflammation, pain or discharge. Vision unchanged. Differential?

A

Subconjunctival haemorrhage (assoc with minor injuries, anticoags and anti platelets)

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2
Q

What are sulphonylureas contraindicated in?

A
  • ketoacidosis
  • acute porphyrias
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2
Q

What investigations are you going to do to a pt presenting with a goitre?

A
  • TFTs
  • USS for nodules
  • CXR/thoracic inlet (tracheal compressions, retrosternal involvement)
  • fine needle aspiration
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2
Q

Most common cause of Addison’s disease?

A

80% is due to AI. TB is most common worldwide.

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3
Q

what is the most common source of ectopic ACTH production in ectopic cushing’s syndrome?

A

small cell lung cancer

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3
Q

When a pt brings in a newspaper article into the OSCE what method are you going to use to help analyse the paper?

A

PECOS

  • patient/participant/people
  • Exposure/event/experimental interventin
  • Comparison
  • Outcome
  • Study design
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4
Q

A 65-year-old man presents with chest pain radiating to the jaw. The ECG shows ST segment elevation in II, III and aVF, with T-wave inversion in V5 and V6.

A

Inferior MI

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5
Q

Causes of a headache worse in the morning?

A
  • Cluster - raised ICP
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5
Q

What is this? term and assoc condition?

A

Excoriations - loss of epidermis following trauma. Eczema

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5
Q

List 4 SE of ipratropium bromide?

A
  • Dry mouth
  • headache
  • tachycardia
  • urinary retention
  • ocular effects
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5
Q

Causes of large bowel obstruction?

A
  • colon cancer
  • sigmoid volvulus
  • diverticular disease
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6
Q

How does insulin lower plasma glucose?

A
  • stimulate glucose transport into fat and muscle cells
  • inhibit gluconeogensis & lipolysis
  • stimulate glycogen synth
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7
Q

Pt presents, lean, tanned, tired and tearful with some diarrhoea. Differential?

A

Addison’s disease. +/- weakness, GI disturbances, mood changes, postural hypotension.

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7
Q

What type of angina is provoked by vivid dreams and can wake a pt up at night?

A

Nocturnal angina. Critical Coronary artery disease

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8
Q

Pt presents complaining of visual floaters?

A

retinal detachment - painless loss of vision. Grey area of retina where retina is detached seen on fundoscopy.

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8
Q

What is Murphy’s sign used to test for?

A

Cholecystitis

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8
Q

What type of prevention is it when the prevention of clinical diseases is due to early detectiong and screening?

A
  • secondary
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8
Q

What are the four core features of depression?

  • other common features?
  • Somatic features?
  • What else should you ask about in a depression history?
A

Core features

  • low mood
  • loss of interest
  • tired all the time
  • Anhedonia

Other common features (3 P’s)

  • Poor concentration
  • Poor self esteem and self confidence
  • guilt & pessimism

Somatic

  • sleep disturbances (early morning waking)
  • morning depression
  • loss libido
  • loss of apetite/wt loss
  • social withdrawal
  • Anxiety, hallucinations, delusions, mania
  • Suicidal risk (and risk to others)
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9
Q

Pt presents with pain around the sub mandibular gland esp when eating. Also swelling, palpable hard lump. Diagnosis?

A

Sialolithiasis

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9
Q

Would the urine sodium levels be elevated in pre renal or intrinsic causes of acute renal failure?

A

Intrinsic causes = the tubules are damaged so cannot reabsorb the sodium therefore you piss more of it out.

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9
Name a bigaunide? What is it used to treat?
Metformin. Type II DM.
9
What are the side effects of aspirin?
- Bronchospasm (in aspirin sensitve pts) - Salicylate poisoning - Reye's syndrome ( v.rare but potentially fatal condition - liver and brain damage)
10
What are the stages of Sepsis after SIRS?
- SIRS (4 defining features) - Sepsis (SIRS as a result of infection) - Severe Sepsis (sepsis plus organ disorder) - Septic shock (sepsis plus hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation)
11
What is the positive predictive value?
The probability that the person has the condition. = a / (a+b)
12
What symptom do all these conditions have in common? - Pneumothorax - Mitral stenosis - Pulmonary effusion - Anaemia - Cardiomyopathy - Acute epiglotitis
- Dyspnoea (asthma, COPD, PE, foreign body etc.)
12
Formatting data prior to analysis: - Rows represent what? - columns represent what? - how many times should you input the data?
- Rows = case/participants - Columns = variables - input data 2 (repitition is a way to remove human error)
13
Effect of thiazide and lithium?
Increased toxicity
13
Clinical audit or service evaluation? "what standard does this service achieve?"
Service evaluation
14
Treatment of B12 deficiency?
Replenish stores with hydroxycobalamin (B12), 1mg IM every other day for 2wks. Maintenance = 1mg IM every 3 months for life.
14
Contraindications to Latanoprost?
- Hypersensitivity
14
what is the equation for RR? (in word terms)
RR = the risk in the exposed group / the risk in the unexposed group
14
How would you take an anxiety history? What mneumonic will help you.
ICE them first **SEDATE** - **S**ymptoms (**physical** = hyperventilation, **palpitations**, chest **pain**, **sweating**, diarrhoea, loss of **sleep**, poor **conc**. Psychological = **agitation**, **irritable**, sense of impending doom) - **E**pisodic or continuous (if episodic then it's not GAD = persisent \>6 months) - **D**epression, **drinking** or **drugs** (caffeine & smoking) - **A**voidance or escape (groups of people, certain activities, phobias) - **T**riggers and timing - **E**ffect on **life**
15
Drugs which cause renal failure: - interstitial nephritis? - acute tubular necrosis? - precipitate renal artery stenosis? - glomerular damage?
- IN = NSAIDS & Abx - ATN = Lithium, contrast, gentamicin - Renal A stenosis = ACE-i - Glomerular damage = GOLD & NSAIDS
16
In which type of ARMD do you find DRUSEN?
Dry - drusen = accumulation of pigment epithelial waste products
16
Bifid P waves on an ECG indicate what?
Atrial delay due to mitral stenosis or mitral regurg
16
What are the contra-indications in metoclopramide?
- GI obstruction, perforation, haemorrhage - 3-4 days post GI surgery - phaeochromocytoma
17
What is a mediator?
A covariate which is affected by the exposure and affects the outcome. It is along the causal pathway and so must NOT be adjusted for.
18
What is myopia?
Short-sightedness. They can't see distant objects. Most common refractive error of the lens.
19
What drug is used to treat opioid overdose?
Naloxone (100-400 micrograms) IV
19
What's the cause of cholesterol gallstones?
- Males, obese, high chol, age, dec bile salts
20
What nail changes do you see in psoriasis?
- Oncholysis - Pitting
20
Causes of erythema nodosum?
- group A beta haemolytic strep - TB - preggo - malignancy - IBD - chlamydia
21
What is right axis deviation usually caused by?
Right ventricular hypertrophy. Extra heart muscles causes stronger positive signal picked up by the leads looking at the right side of the heart
21
Treatment of hypertension in pts
ACEi or ARB (if the ACEi intolerance)
21
Why do urinalysis as an investigation for suspected infective endocarditis?
- microscopic haematuria is common
22
What are delusions?
a false unshakeable belief despite evidence to contrary not held by others in same culture and held with intense personal conviction and certainty.
23
Anterior epistaxis usually occurs in what area? Two names?
Anterior septal area = Little area
23
A pansystolic murmur is most likely due to what?
Mitral regurgitation
23
What is cardiac syndrome X?
- Microvascular angina. There is a good hisotry of angina, but on angiography everything is normal.
23
Indications for beta blockers?
- Angina, HT, HF, arrythmias - thyrotoxicosis - anxiety - prophylaxis of migraine - treatment of glaucoma (timolol)
23
What drug interactions does carbamazepine have\>?
- cimetidine, erythromycin, isoniazid, diltiazem inhibit metabolism of carb - OCP & warfarin = dec effect of these. - corticosteroids, phenytoin, ciclosporin = dec effect of carb
23
- What is R^2? - Range of values R^2 can take? - What value of R^2 indicates a perfect fit? - Will adding variables to your model increase or decress the value of R^2?
- Proportion of variation explained by the linear model - R^2 values range between 0 and 1 - value of one = perfect fit - Adding variables will always improve the fit thereby increase R^2
24
What is Beck's triad and what is it assoc with?
- falling bp - rising JVP on inspiration - muffled heart sounds Inidicator of cardiac tamponade/constrictive pericarditis
25
Gamma glutamyltransferase mirrors which other LFT?
ALP
26
At difference prevalences what is the relationship between RR and OR? Low prevalence? Increasing prevalence? Decreasing prevalence?
Low: RR=OR Increasing: RR Decreasing: RR changes whilst OR stays the same
27
Give an example of a dermatophyte infection?
Tinea/ringworm
27
What type of error is it when you fail to find an effect when there is a genuine effect?
Type 2 - boo hoo
28
What is a nodule? (think derm)
Solid raised lesion \>5cm in diameter. (bigger version of a papule)
29
Mechanism of action of metformin?
increase insulin sensitivity
30
Mark buys 30 candy sweets. Mark eats 16 of them. What has Mark got now?
DIABETES. Mark has diabetes.
30
What correlation coefficient should be used for not normally distributed variables? Give other times when this coeff could also be used?
Spearmans rank correlation coeff rho - one or both of the variables are ordinal - when the sample size is small
31
What commonly used respiratory drug causes a fine tremor in the hands?
Salbutamol (beta 2 agonist)
31
Beriberi is a result of what?
Lack of Thiamine (B1) = can cause delirium
31
What are the clinical features of MS?
- usually monosymptomatic - unilateral optic neuritis - numbness and tingling in the legs - leg weakness - cerebellar dysfunction - GI disturbances
32
Reed sternberg cells are characteristic in what type of cancer?
Hodgkins lymphoma
32
What is sialolithiasis?
Salivary calculi
32
Drugs which cause interstitial nephritis?
NSAIDS & Abx
32
What is the most common malignant skin tumour?
BCC
34
Most common sites of aneurysms?
Aorta (infrarenal) Iliac Femoral Popliteal
34
Mesalazine is what class of drug? Used in?
Aminosalicylate. Used in UC maintenance of remission.
34
Common SE of sulphonylureas?
- Hypoglycaemia - Wt gain
34
In what age group is alcohol dependence higher in? - in women - in men
Women 16-24 yo Men 25-34 yo
35
What is Latanoprost and what is used to treat?
Protstaglandin analogue and used to treat raised intraocular pressure seen in open angle glaucoma and ocular hypertension.
35
What drugs cause hypercalcaemia?
thiazide diuretics
35
What immunosuppressants are used in eczema? What immunomodulators?
- oral prednisolone, azathioprine and ciclosporin
35
What drugs should be avoided when taking ipratropium bromide?
- Erythromycin/Clarithromycin - inc risk of SE with antidepressants - dec effect of sublingual nitrates
35
If no effect what would be the OR?
1
35
Who are your potential stakeholders when conducting your own research?
- Other researchers/evaluators - Research funders - Clinical practitioners - Service users - Society
36
What are the extra nodal presentations of non-hodgkins lymphoma?
**- lymphadenopathy** **- night sweats** **- wt loss** - indigestion **- skin discolouration** **- papular rash** **- raised ICP** **- CN palsies**
37
Pt presents with an itchy red eye?
Allergic eye disease
37
At a RRAPID station what are you going to assess in the Breathing section? What would you want to do, and how would you manage?
- RR, oxygen sats, chest expansion, tracheal deviation, percussion, air entry (auscultation) - consider ABG if indicated - Manage using oxygen 15L non rebreathe mask, ?thoracocentesis, resusitative thoracotomy, intubation.
38
Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency is a cause of what respiratory disease?
COPD. Also a cause of asthma, lung cancer, pneumothorax.
38
What is phenytoin and how does it work?
Anti-convulsant. - Blocks voltage gated sodium channels so stops transmembrane movement of sodium and potassium - prevents spread of epileptic discharge
39
What are you going to look for on inspection of the legs in a peripheral vascular exam?
- pallor - Scars - Muscle wasting - Discolouration (haemosiderin) - ulcers - Hair loss (PVD) - Missing limbs/toes
39
What is the epidemiological triad?
Person, time and place
39
When you have small sample sizes, is the chi squared test more likely to accept or reject the null hypothesis? How can you overcome this?
More likely to reject the null hypothesis. The use of Yates's continuity correction.
40
O/E Chest expansion: reduced on affected side Trachea: deviated away from affected side Percussion: hyperresonant on affected side Breath sounds: reduced breath sounds on affected side Vocal resonance: reduced on affected side Differential?
Pneumothorax. trachea may be deviated towards the affected side in a simple, spontaneous pneumothorax.
41
Pt presents with transient vision loss with a headache, fever and night sweats and a temporal headache. Pt has reduced VA, and has a swollen pale optic disc. Differential and treatment?
- GCA (jaw claudication, scalp tenderness, tender non pulsatile temporal artery) - Immediate referral to opthal and start steroids !
43
Is psoriatic arthritis symmetrical or asymetrical?
Asymmetrical
43
What does sodium valproate treat and how does it work?
- Anticonvulsants for all types of epilepsy. - Inc GABA content in the brain by inhibiting GABA transaminase enzyme thereby stopping the re-uptake of GABA - also dec +ve aspartate - blocks voltage gated sodium channels
44
What four pieces of equipment/items do you need for a thyroid examination?
- Glass of water - Stethoscope - Piece of paper - Tendon hammer
45
Complications of infectious mononucleosis?
- splenic rupture - meningitis - encephalitis - haemolytic anaemia - Myocarditis
46
What are the contraindications to Levodopa?
- Caution in severe **pulmonary** or **CV** disease, **psych**, **endocrine**. - caution to susceptible **angle closure glaucom**a pts
47
What 3 factors make up asthma? (reversible airway obstruction) Pathogenesis
- Bronchial muscle contraction - Mucosal swelling and inflammation - increase mucus production
47
The symptoms of anxiety are due to the release of what chemical transmitter?
Adrenaline
48
What is madarosis?
Loss of outer third of eyebrow hair
48
How would you explore a patient's suicidal thoughts in a mental health examination?
- Have you felt that life is not worth living? - Have you ever wished you could die? - Have you ever considered ways in which you could end your life? - Are you planning to end it all?
49
What are you going to look for in the face of a pt during a thyroid examination?
- Dryness, sweating - Exopthalmos (front, side, above) - Eye movements (H-test) - Lid lag - Mouth (undescended thyroid)
50
Most common type of colorectal cancer?
adenocarcinoma
51
Sudden painless loss of vision with preceding flashes of light (photopia) and floaters is likely to be what?
Retinal detachment. The flashes of light are due to the retina being pulled off and stimulating neurons.
52
Pt presents with vertigo. It lasts only for a few seconds at a time. No assoc auditory symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
52
What are the different types of goitre?
- **Diffuse** * Simple (physiological in puberty and preggo) * AI (firm diffuse - seen in graves and hashimoto's) * Thyroiditis (acute tenderness, swelling and severe pain) - **Nodular** * Multinodular * Single nodular * Fibrotic - **Tumours** * Adenomas * Lymphomas * Carcinomas
53
How do you manage an MI?
ROMANCE - reassure - oxygen - morphone - aspirin - nitrites - clopidogrel - enoxaprin
54
What is the most common neck lump?
thyroglossal cyst. on swallowing it will not move. On protrusion of the tongue however, it will.
54
Stata command for: - expsoure = age - outcome = live or die covariates age & sex
xi: logistic livedie age i.sex
55
An early diastolic murmur is most likely to be what?
aortic regurgitation
56
Is iron def anaemia, macro or microcytic? Hyper or hypo chromic?
Microcytic, hypochromic
56
What duct connect the sub mandibular gland to the mouth?
Whartnon's duct = exits under tongue
56
What is the most common type of thyroid cancer?
Papillary carcinoma
58
A low pitched rumbling mid diastolic murmur is most likely to be what?
Mitral stenosis
58
During a RRAPID assessment of a pt what could potentially compromise a pt's airway?
- Facial burns - Neck wounds - Vomit - Epistaxis - head injury
58
Types of samples? + pros & cons
- complete samples (+ no bias introduced by design. - potentially expensive) - unstratified random sampling (+ easy to design and conduct. - some groups may be underrepresented) - stratified random sampling (+ representative of population, unequal sampling of strata imrpoves power for rare strata. - pop may not easily be divisible into strata, partitions may not be known until after sampling)
59
What are the 3 types of causes of acute renal failure? Include examples.
- pre renal (majority of cases) = renal hypoerfusion so hypovolaemia, sepsis, heart failure renal artery stenosis, NSAIDS, ACEi. - Intrinsic = Acute tubular necrosis most common intrinsic cause. Due to ischaemia (hypo perfusion) or due to drugs. - Post renal = urinary tract obstruction
60
Whenever the direction of electrical activity is towards a lead you get a POSITIVE or NEGATIVE deflection in that lead?
TOWARDS = POSITIVE
60
What covariate affects both the exposure and outcome?
CONFOUNDERS
62
Age of onset of Hodgkins? What virus is assoc with HL?
Two peaks of incidence = 15-30 and over 55 EBV
63
Koilonychia, atrophic glossitis, Angular cheilosis, conjunctival pallor are all signs of what?
Iron def anaemia.
63
Differentials for wt loss?
- Malignancy (breast lump, lungs, prostate, bowels, jaundice,) - GI (colon cancer, IBD, coeliac) - Endo (thyrotoxicosis) - Psychological (anorexia, depression, stress) - DM TI
64
List 4 risk factors for lobar pneumonia?
- Smoking - ETOH - Bronchial obstruction - Bronchiectasis - Immunosuppression
64
Infection of the liver would do what to the albumin and protein levels?
- Decrease albumin - Normal protein
64
Contraindications to ABG?
- inadequate collateral circulation - evidence of peripheral vascular disease - coagulopathy or high dose anticoag therapy
64
What drugs are contraindicated in renal failure?
Many People Like To Nap Naked M = metformin P = potassium sparing diuretics L = lithium T = tetracyclines N = Nitrofurantoin N = NSAIDS + all the drugs that can cause Renal failure (NSAIDS, ACE-i, Abx, gentamicin, Gold, contrast, lithium)
65
Consequence of folate def in preggo women?
Neural tube defects in the newborn
66
What are the most common bacteria to cause skin infection? most common viruses to cause? Fungi to cause?
- Staph and strep - HPV, HSV, Herpes zoster - Tinea, candida and yeasts
67
What is the most common type of salivary gland tumour?
Adenoma
67
HLA DR3 is assoc with which type of Diabetes?
Type I DM. There is no HLA assoc with type III
68
Thyroid lumps are more common in which gender?
Females
68
On fundoscopy what does a dot and blot haemorrhage mean?
Seen in DM retinopathy. Dot = microaneurysm. Blot = haemorrhage
69
Where are the majority of salivary tumours located?
Parotid gland
69
What do you include in a mental state examination?
All Sane Men Think That Pizza Is Italian
69
Common causes of metabolic alkalosis?
- Vomiting - Potassium depletion (diuretics) - Cushing's syndrome - Conn's syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism)
69
How are you going to assess a patient's breathing?
- Give oxygen 15L/min via reservoir bag mask - sit pt up and attach monitorin - Use Look, Listen, Feel Look (RR, cyanosis, effort, chest injury, coughing) Listen (ability to complete full sentences, noisy breathing, coughing, percussion note, bilateral air entry, vescicular/bronchial breath sounds, creps, vocal resonance) Feel (pulse, trach deviation, chest expansion, surgical emphysema)
70
What type of fungal infection is aspergillus?
Mould
71
What are the 2 most common causative organisms of meningitis?
- Neisseria meningitidis - Streptococcal pneumoniae
71
True or false: it is easier to visually spot correlation close to zero
FALSE
71
Sinus bifid p waves?
Mitral stenosis
72
At a RRAPID station what are you going to assess in the Disability section? What would you want to do, and how would you manage?
- review ABC - check pupils - AVPU/GCS - E4, V5, M6 - Glucose - Temp
72
What are presenting symptoms of acute pancreatitis?
- Gradual or sudden severe epigrastric or central abdo pain which radiates to the back, relieved on sitting on forward. Along with prominent vomiting.
73
What cardiorespiratory questions will you ask if someone presents with syncope, fits or LOC?
- palpitations - chest pain - Breathlessness - cough - sputum - leg swelling
74
Knee examination: what are you going to feel for?
Pt lying on bed - tempt - joint lines (knee flexed, feeling for tenderness) - palpate collateral ligs and patello fem joint - measure quadriceps circum and compare - patella tap for large effusions and sweep test for small effusions - popliteal swellings
75
What 5 signs could a cerebellar problem present with?
DANISH - D = dysdiadokinesis - A = apraxia - N = nystagmus - I = intention tremor - S = speech disturbances - H = Hypotonia
75
What is a clinical audit?
It measures existing practice against evidence based clinical standards
75
What type of data can IQR be used as a measure of spread?
- cont or discrete - ordered variables
76
What are the risk factors for age related macular degeneration?
- Age - smoking - sun - diet - alcohol
76
Where is aldosterone made? what type of steroid is it? What is its function?
Made in adrenal cortex. Mineralocorticoids. Electrolyte balance
77
Causes of vitreous haemorrhage?
- DM - Retinal detachment - ARMD - Trauma
78
Facial pain that is worse on bending forward is indicative of what condition?
Rhino-sinusitis
78
features that make up nephrotic syndrome?
- Proteinuria - Oedema - Hypoalbuminaemia - hyperlipidaemia
80
Causes of hyperventilation?
Primary - anxiety - hypoxaemia - Pain/distress - salicylate toxicity - fever Secondary (metabolic acidosis)
81
How do you manage a cardiac arrest?
- BLS
82
List 4 common causes of acute otitis media?
- Common cold - influenza - Acute tonsillitis - Coryza less common = barotrauma, sinusitis, trauma of tymp membrane
82
Pt presents with blood in the anterior chamber of the eye. Severe vision loss. Name?
Hyphaema (trauma, intraocular surgery)
82
A pancreatic tumour in the head of the pancreas would typically present how?
Painless obstructive jaundice
82
How do you assess a CXR?
- confirm identity of patient, date and time - PA or AP film - RIPE (rotation - check clavicles and spinous processes, inspiration - \>7 ribs, penetration, exposure) - A (airway - trachea central or deviated) - B (breathing - assess lung markings throughout lung fields - C (cardiac - evdince of cardiomegaly) - D (diaphragm - any signs of gas underneath) - E (Everything else - bones, soft tissue, lines, pacemakers)
82
Will incidence be higher/lower/same as the prevalence in the following examples? - Chronic long term condition? - Incurable disease? - Short infectious disease?
- chronic = prevalence will be higher than incidence - incurable = prevalence inc at same rate as incidence - acute = incidence will be higher than prevalence
82
What is meant by person time?
The size of a population at risk can vary over time: - individuals who are born or die - individuals who get and keep the disease - individuals who join or leave the study
82
Is the correlation coefficient affected by units of measurement?
No
84
Is there a cure for glaucoma?
No cure but slow progression
84
Anti-HBsAg +ve and IgG anti-HbcAg indicates what stage of hepatitis?
Chronic Hepatitis B infection
85
Causes of small bowel obstruction?
- adhesions - hernias - crohns - intersusception
86
O/E Chest expansion: Reduced on affected side Trachea: central or shifted away from affected side if large Percussion: stony dull Breath sounds: reduced or absent Vocal resonance: reduced over affected zone Differential?
Pleural effusion
87
What are the signs of liver failure?
- jaundice - hepatic encepahlopathy - fetor hepaticus (pear drops) - Asterixis - constructional apraxia
89
Give two differentials for a nocturnal cough?
- Asthma - LVF (pink frothy sputum)
89
What leads represent the inferior view of the heart on an ECG?
II, III, aVF
90
If an elderly pt presents with symptoms of iron def anaemia, has a microcytic blood film but doesn't respond to ferrous sulphate, what could be the diagnosis instead? (another anaemia)
Sideroblastic anaemia (rare but in 20% of the elderly with a low MCV, without iron def, think of sideroblastic anaemia)
90
What are you going to palpate for during a thyroid examination?
- Thyroid gland (each lobe) - Palpate whilst swallowing and then protruding their tongue - Lymphadenopathy - Tracheal deviation
91
Pleuritic chest pain means..pain is worse on inspiration or on expiration?
Inspiration
93
Where do 2 classes of diuretics act? What are they? What do they both treat? What disease are they both contra-indicated in?
- Distal tubule - Thiazide diuretics (bendroflumethazide) - Potassium sparing diuretics (spironalactone) - HTN, oedema, HF, ascites in liver cirrhosis - Addison's disease
94
Clinical features of glandular fever?
- fever - sore throat - lymphadenopathy - splenomegaly - petechial haemorrhage
95
O/E Chest expansion: equal Trachea: central Percussion: normal Breath sounds/added sounds: normal or localised creps/pleural rub Vocal resonance: Normal Differential?
PE
96
Overdiagnose or underdiagnose: high specificity?
Underdiagnose
97
What do you include in your secdonary survey once you've stabilised your patient?
AMPLE - ALLERGIES - medication - PMHx - last meal - events
99
How to investigate Varicose veins?
Doppler US probe (listen for flow in incompetent valves
100
What are going to assess in the exposure section of the RRAPID station?
- Detailed examination of whole body - Reassess - Prevent heat loss and maintain dignity
100
Effect of ACE-i and potassium sparing diuretics?
Risk of severe hyperkalaemia
101
Otitis externa that has spread to the skull base to cause osteomyelitis is called what?
Malignant otitis externa. (likely pseudomonas aeruginosa or anaerobes). 50% facial palsy.
102
List 4 presenting physical symptoms of a pt with anxiety?
- sweating - indigestion - diarrhoea - Nausea - trembling - dry mouth - palpitations
103
Which of the three hepatitis viruses is due to a DNA virus?
Hepatitis B
104
What other symptoms can pts with Parkinson's present with?
- anosmia - depression - dementia - mild urinary freq and urgency - visual hallucinations - sleep disturbances
104
Causes of resistant hypertension?
- conn's syndrome - chronic kidney disease - cushing's syndrome
104
When are odds ratios used? When are risk ratios/relative risk used? Which of the two is used when the proportion of the population with the outcome or exposure is low?
OR = case-control/trial studies looking at prevalence RR = cohort studies looking at incidence OR is used when outcome or exposure is low BUT OR is stable as outcome prev changes
105
Malignant proliferations of lymphocytes is what?
Lymphoma
106
What is the effect of increased conc of: Methotrexate?
Myelosuppression
107
Indications for warfarin?
- prophylaxis of embolism in AF, prosthetic heart valves, rheumatic heart disease - proph of DVT/PE - TIAs
108
What disease is caused by a T cell mediated autoimmune reaction in the small bowel?
Coeliac disease. Prolamin intolerance leading to villous atrophy and malabsorption.
109
What further assessments and examinations would you want to do following a Peripheral vascular exam?
- Cardiovascular exam - ABPI if indicated - lower limb neuro exam
110
What are the different types of anxiety?
- Generalised anxiety disorder (high level of background anxiety) - Panic attacks - Phobias
111
What are the 7 features of alcohol dependence?
- Obsessive alcohol consumption - Increased tolerance - Narrowing of drinking repertoire - Withdrawal symptoms - Having to reinstate to alleviate withdrawal symptoms - Saliency (alcohol taking over form competing needs and responsibilities) - Continued drinking despite negative effects of alcohol on health
111
What would prescribe to a pt with bacterial tonsillitis?
500mg of phenoxymethylpenicillin tds for 10 days
112
How is Standard error of the mean calculated?
SE = Sd/route(n)
113
What is SIRS and how is it defined?
Systemic inflammatory repsonse syndrome. Temp 38 HR \>90bpm RR \>20breaths/min WCC 12
114
Lower eye lid lag is named what? Also get diffuse redness, dry eyes and irritation.
Ectropion
115
Features that make up nephritic syndrome?
- Haematuria - Proteinuria - Hypertension - Low urine volume
116
O/E Chest expansion: equal Trachea: central Percussion: resonant Breath sounds: vesicular Vocal resonance: normal Differential?
normal findings
116
What should be the width of the QRS complex?
0.12 seconds. (3 small sqaures)
116
What criteria do you use to diagnose infective endocarditis?
Duke criteria - postive blood cultures - endocardium involved + - predisposing factors - fever - vascular signs
117
Pt presents with sino-nasal symptoms, what 5 symptoms are you going to specifically ask about?
- Pain - Discharge - Obstruction/congestion - Nose bleeds - Loss of smell
117
What percentage of salivary gland tumours are benign?
80%
118
what classification of staging is used for colorectal cancer?
Dukes'
119
What 10 questions are asked in the AMTS?
- How old are you? - What's your date of birth? - What's the year? - What is the time of day? Give address (42 west street) - Where are we? - Who is the current monarch? - What are the dates of the first world war? - Count backwards from 20 to 1 - Recognise two people - Can you remember the address?
119
What are the microvascular complications of DM?
- Stroke - Renovascular disease - limb ischaemia - HEART disease
119
Contra-indications of sodium valproate?
- hepatic dysfunction - acute porhyria
120
What is the negative predictive value?
The probability that the person does not have the condition. = d / (c+d)
120
How do we engage with stakeholders?
- study planning - implementation - dissemination
121
malar flush is due to what?
mitral stenosis.
121
What are the classic symptoms of Parkinson's disease?
- BRADYKINESIA + (1 other) - Tremor (worse at rest) - Rigidity (inc tone) - Postural instability
121
What can cause T wave inversion?
- smoking - anxiety - tachycardia, haemorrhage, shock - hypokalaemia, pericarditis, MI - Bundle branch block - WPW
121
What is the most common type of BCC? What surface changes does it have?
Nodular. - telangectasia - pearly rolled edge
122
Normal ranges of plasma ionised calcium?
1 - 1.25 mmol/L
122
What would your response be to a severe asthma attack?
- ABCDE approach - sit pt up - Oxygen 15L/min via reservoir mask - obtain IV access and take bloods - ABG - Salbutamol 5mg nebulised with oxygen (15-20min intervals) - Ipratropium bromide 500mcg nebulised with oxygen (4-6 hourly) - IV 200mg hydrocortisone - IV 2g magnesium sulphate over 20 mins - CXR to exclude infection and pneumothorax
123
Pharyngitis is most commonly a viral or bacterial infection?
Viral (rhinovirus, adenovirus, parainfluenzae)
123
What is this?
Tinea capitis
125
What are the 4 paranasal sinuses?
- Sphenoid - Ethmoid - frontal - Maxillary
126
What anti-muscarinic drug is used to treat bradycardia?
Atropine
127
What do you include in a mental state examination?
All (appearance & behaviour) Sane (speech) Men (mood) Think (thought process) That (thought content) Pizza (Perceptions) Is (insight) Italian (IQ)
128
Pt has been taking prednisolone for a long time, what disease are they likely to get?
Addison's disease (adrenal insufficiency)
130
What staging is used in lymphomas?
Ann-Arbor stage 1 = localised single area of lymph nodes stage 2 = two adjacent areas of involvement - either above or below diaphragm stage 3 = areas in nodal areas both above and below diaphragm stage 4 = multiple nodal areas plus involvement of one or more extra nodal areas (liver lung)
131
Non tender lymphadenopathy is a sign of what infection?
Chlamydial
132
What is trossier's sign?
Enlarged virchows node.
132
What conditions is phenytoin contra-indicated in?
- Sinus brady, AV block, SA block. - Caution with hypersensitivity, hepatic impairment, preggo
132
What sort of self reported bias are these? - If a subject gives an answer which they think will impress you - Subject gives an answer based on an event 6 months ago - subject gives an answer they think you want?
- prestige bias - recall bias - response bias
133
How does Timolol work?
Blocks the beta receptors on the ciliary epithelium and therefore reduces aqueous humour production.
135
How is the accuracy of a test calculated?
(true pos + true neg a+d)/(total)
136
What HLA is assoc with RA?
HLA DR4/DR1 (assoc with inc severity)
137
What 2 tests are you going to do with the eyes in a thyroid exam?
- Observe for lid lag (follow movement of finger = hyper) - H-test testing for ocular palsy seen in Graves
137
Overdiagnose or underdiagnose: sensitivity?
Over diagnose
138
What are the two most common parotid tumours?
- Pleomorphic adenoma (benign, female) - Warthins tumour (adenolymphoma, benign, male)
139
When is the pain and stiffness from RA worse?
In the morning
139
Which research design are helpful when causes/exposures are rare?
Cohort
140
In what group of people is iron def anaemia fairly common? (prevalence 14%)
Menstruating women
140
Where in the world is MS more prevalent?
Temperate climates. if adults migrate they take their risk with them. Children acquire the risk of where they settle.
141
What is Auspitz sign?
Assoc with psoriasis. Scratch and gentle removal of scales cause capillary bleeding.
142
Pistol shots heard over the femoral arteries, Duroziez's sign, de musset's sign and quincke's sign are all signs of which murmur?
Aortic regurg. Duroziez's sign = to and fro murmur heard when the fem artery is auscultated and pressure applied distall. Quincke's sign = capillary pulsation in nail beds. De Musset's sign = head nod with each heartbeat.
143
Toxic thyroid adenoma is what type of tumours and what does it give rise to?
Benign tumours of thyroid gland which produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormones. Always arise follicular cells of the thyroid.
145
If the S-wave is greater than the R-waves it suggests depolarisation is moving towards or away from that lead?
AWAY from that lead
146
Which of the hepatitis viruses has the longest incubation period? Which has the shortest?
Longest = Hepatitis B avg 100 days Shortest = avg 28 days Hep A
147
What are the most common causes of AF?
- HTN - Rheumatic heart disease - MI/IHD - Thyrotoxicosis - Alcohol
149
Dizziness is a non-specific term. It can be categorised into 4 different subtypes according to the pts symptoms. What are they?
- vertigo - Presyncope - Disequilibirum - Light headedness
151
Pt presents with general malaise, sore throat, dysphagia, pyrexia and cervical lymphadenopathy. Differential?
- Tonsillitis
152
List 4 things that you can do to a pt on recognition of an airway compromise?
- CALL FOR HELP - oxygen via 15L reservoir mask - Basic airway manoeuvres (head tilt/chin lift, jaw thrust) - airway adjuncts (oropharyngeal airway or Guedel airway)
153
Elevation of the ST segment indicates what? Depression of the ST segment indicates what?
Elevation \>1mm = MI Depression = ischaemic myocardial tissue in the ventricles
153
154
How do you define unstable angina?
Angina of recent onset (
156
What are the three types of causal relationships?
- functional - theoretical (acceptable culture) - speculative
157
158
What is the normal range for a P-R interval?
0.12 to 2 secs 3-4 small squares
159
If ALT \> AST = ?
Chronic liver disease
160
Who does somatisation most commonly affect?
Women \> Men.
161
Why do you give thiamine replacement in those who are chronic alcoholics?
Lack of thiamine can lead to Wernicke's encephalopathy (opthalomoplegia, ataxia, confusion)
163
What is the commonest cause of Varicose Veins?
Unknown cause. Secondary causes include obstruction (DVT, fetus), valve destruction, constipation, arteriovenous malformation
164
What are the contraindications for Timolol drops?
- COPD/Asthma - Cardiogenic shock - Bradycardia - Hypersensitivity - Hyperthyroidism - Diabetes
165
Aetiology of septic arthritis?
- Suppurative infection caused from a haematogenous spread - or from direct spread from a penetrating trauma
166
What electrolyte imbalance does loop diuretics, bisphosphonates and phenytoin cause?
Hypocalcaemia
168
Aetiology of chronic liver failure?
- Infections (hepatitis) - Drugs (para overdose) - Vascular (Budd Chiari synd) - Others (alcohol, primary biliary cirrhosis, alpha 1 antitryp def)
169
What waveform should there be if the pt is in sinus rhythm on an ECG?
- P wave preceding each QRS complex - look at whether they occur regularly
170
Name given to a solid raised skin lesion
Papule
171
Differentials for Tiredness?
- Haematological (anaemia - SOBE, weakness, palpitations, angina, claud) - Endo (hypothyroid, DM) - Pscyh (depression) - malignancy - Chronic infection (TB) & addisons - Drugs
171
Assign these statements to the following; ethics, governance and consent - ensuring that projects have appropriate permissions - ensuring participation is voluntary and without cost - ensuring that projects minimise risks and maximise benefits
- permissions = governance - voluntary participation = consent - minimise risks and max benefits = ethics
172
What is the effect of increased conc of: Phenytoin?
- Arrhythmia - cerebellar syndrome
173
How many cases of tonsillitis does a pt need to have had in the last year in order to be considered for a tonsillectomy?
\>7
175
What are most common presenting complaints in someone with somatisation?
- chronic pain - GI problems - Nervous system problems - reproductive problems
176
Pts ABG results: PaO2 low, PaCO2 normal, bicarb normal. What could be going on?
Type I respiratory failure. PaCO2 could be normal or low.
177
Bacterial & chlamydial eye infections cause what sort of discharge?
Yellow and sticky
179
During a mental health evaluation what do you want to ask after having asked about suicidal thoughts?
Assessment of risks to others? - have you ever thought about harming somebody else? - Are there people you know who would be better off dead?
180
List some causes of increased urea levels?
- Kidney injury - Dehydration - GI bleed - increased protein breakdown (infection, trauma, malignancy)
181
What four things are you going to look for in an ECG?
RRAW - Rate - Rhythm - Axis - Waveform (various parts of the ECG)
182
What are the 6 red flags symptoms that you need to ask if someone presents with back pain?
- urinary incontinence or retention - faecal incontinence - saddle anaesthesia - unilateral or bilateral weakness in legs - hyperreflexia - wt loss
182
What model would you use to identify an association between two variables?
Linear model
183
List 4 social problems that patients with alcohol misuse commonly have?
- Financial problems - Divorce - Traffic violations & criminal offences - Job loss - Social isolation
185
What is the most common cause of cataracts? List 2 other causes
- Age related = most common - Traumatic - Post inflam (recurrent uveitis) - Metabolic (DM)
185
What are you going to palpate in both the arms and legs in a peripheral vascular exam?
- Temperature - Cap refill Pulses Arm = radial, radial radial delay, brachial, bp, carotid Legs = femoral, popliteal, post tib, dorsalis pedis Sensation - start distally
186
Which lead would you expect to see the most negative deflection in?
You would expect to see the most negative deflection in aVR. This is due to aVR looking at the heart in the opposite direction to the overall electrical activity.
186
What is a serious SE of DMARDS?
Myelosuppression - inc infection risk, overwhelming neutropenic sepsis
187
Name a corticosteroid and its function?
Cortisol. Glycogen and lipid metabolism. Made in adrenal cortex
187
What are the presenting symptoms of macrocytic anaemia?
- symptoms of anaemia - **Lemon** tinge to skin (pallor + jaundice (haemolysis)) - **Neuropsych** (irritable, depression, psychosis) - **Neuro** (Parasthesiae, peripheral neuropathy, SCDSC)
188
Left axis deviation is usually caused by what?
- conduction defects and not by increased mass of the left ventricle
190
Causes of Delirium?
HIDEMAP-H H - hypoxia I - Infection D - drugs E - endocrine M - metabolic A - alcohol withdrawal P - psychosis H - head injury
191
What is the effect of increased conc of: Insulin?
- Hypoglycaemia
192
Examples of sources of missingness?
- clinically unimportant/irrelevant variables - variables that are too difficult/costly to collect - variables that require invasice or potentially sensitive measurement
193
What is the normal PaO2 on an ABG?
11-13kPa
195
How could a pt with AF present?
- Asymptomatically - Palpitations - dyspnoea - chest pain - faintness
196
What is the product of the break down of haem?
Bilirubin
197
Difference between the survival and hazard function?
Survival function = as the chance of survival until a certain time Hazard function = as the chance of instantaneous failure at any one time
199
Local factors that predispose to rhino sinusitis?
- nasal obstruction (nasal tumour, nasal polyps, foreign body) - infection in neighbouring tissue (tonsils, adenoids) - URTI - pre-existing rhinitis
200
What drugs can interact with phenytoin?
- amiodarone, cimetidine, OCP, warfarin, rifampicin, nifedipine. THERE ARE FRICKING LOADS! Just think P450.
201
Name a drug that prolongs the refractory period in all parts of the conduction system? Used to treat what? SE x 5? Interactions?
- Amiodarone (anti-dysrhythmic) - supraventricular/ventricular arrhythmias & tachyarrythmias assoc with Wolf-Parkinson White syn. - Nausea & vomiting, bradycardia, **thyroiditis**, **photosensitivity**, pulmonary fibrosis, sleep disturbances - Beta blockers, phenytoin, warfarin, digoxin, diltiazem
202
Pros & cons: - prospective data collection ? - retrospective data collection?
Prospective: pros = record ALL variables, using BEST techniques and applied consitently. ALL participants provide data on ALL variables. Cons = time and resource intensive. collect more variables than you need. Retrospective: pros = data already there. quick and not resource intensive Cons = can not chose which variables are measured or number of participants. no role in level of missingness
203
What drug does metoclopramide inc the plasma conc of?
- ciclosporin
204
What is the most common type of gastric carcinoma? what are the different types of this type of carcinoma?
Adenocarcinoma. - fungating - malignant ulcers - infiltrating carcinoma
205
What would you see on fundoscopy in a pt with ARMD?
- Drusen - atrophy - scarring and pigmentation - haemmorhages
207
What drugs are you concerned about when taking a epistaxis history?
- Warfarin - Aspirin - all other anticoagulants
207
SE of metformin?
Nausea, abdo pain, diarrhoea. NOT hypoglycaemia
208
Pt is in shock, has a rigid abdo and cullen's sign. Differential?
Acute pancreatitis. In assoc with fever, grey-turner's sign
208
209
Bifid P waves on an ECG indicate what?
Atrial delay due to mitral stenosis or mitral regurg
210
5 presenting symptoms of lobar pneumonia?
- Fever - Dyspnoea - Cough - Purulent sputum - Haemoptysis - malaise - Rigors
211
What symptoms are you going to explore in a depression history? what other conditions are you going to screen for?
DEPRESSION - D = **depressed** mood E = **energy los**s P = **pleasure lost** R = retardation E = **eating habits changed/wt loss** S = **sleep disturbances (early morning waking)** S = suicidal thoughts I = I'm a failure (low self esteem) O = Only me to blame (pessimism) N = no concentration Screen for: - Mania - Anxiety - Delusions - hallucinations
213
Which two hormones are stored in the posterior pituitary gland?
Oxytocin and Vasopressin (ADH)
215
What is anti-VEGF used to treat?
Wet macular degeneration. Aim to minimise angiogenesis to stabilise vision.
216
What are the risk factors for an AKI?
- Age \> 75 - CKD - cardiac failure - liver disease - PVD - DM - Nephrotoxins (iodinated contrasts, gentamicin, NSAIDs, ACE-i) - Hypovolaemia & sepsis
217
What does B12 bind to in order to be absorbed?
Intrinsic factor in the stomach
217
What are the symptoms of ARMD?
- Disturbed central vision (scooter, blurring, distortion) - Difficulty appreciating detail (reading fine print, recognising faces)
219
What AI disease causes the destruction of acinar and ductal cells especially in the salivary and lacrimal glands?
Sjogren syndrome
220
What does Hodgkins lymphoma commonly present with? List the other symptoms
- Painless enlargement of a group of lymph nodes - night sweats - unexplaine dwt loss - splenomegaly - hepatomegaly - non specific pain
222
Ankylosing spondylitis is assoc with what condition in the eyes? Assoc with what HLA?
Uveitis. HLA-B27
223
Symptoms to ask in a pt with DM?
- Polyuria - Polydipsia - Prone to infection - blurry vision - No loss of feeling or pins and needles in your legs - mood - Lethargy - exlcusion of UTI
224
Low pitched, rumbling mid diastolic murmur?
Mitral stenosis
226
SE of metoclopramide?
Extra-pyramidal SE: acute dystonic reactions - rarely galactorrhoea, cardiac conductive abnormalities, drowsiness
227
What signs would you expect to see in a pt with glaucoma?
- Optic disc (cupping, pallor, splinter haemorrhages) - Raised intraocular pressure - RAPD if asymp adv glaucoma
228
Name 3 ototoxic drugs?
- Aminoglycosides (gentamicin) - Salicylates (aspirin) - Loop diuretics (furosemide)
230
Boutonniere and swan neck deformity are seen in what disease?
Rheumatoid arthritis
231
Most common type of eczema?
Atopic
232
What is the most common measure of linear correlation?
Pearson correlation coefficient R. Value r lies between -1 & 1. R =1 = perfect positive correlation. R = -1 = perfect neg correlation. R = 0 = no correlation. R
233
A 5yo boy presents with conductive deafness. He's rubbing his R ear, complaining of ear ache. He looks flushed, T \>39.5. Blood stained discharge with some mucus. Diagnosis?
Acute otitis media
234
Goodpasture's disease: - what is it? - Serology? - presenting symptoms?
Pulmonary renal syndrome. Anti-GBM Abs bind to kidney glomerular membrane and lung alveolar membrane and cuase a type II hypersensitivity reaction. HLA DR2 assoc Serology = anti glomerular basement membrane Abs of IgG can be found in good pastures. definitive diagnosis is made on renal biopsy as it shows a classic linear staining on direct immunofluorescence. Presenting symptoms: cough, intermittent haemoptysis, haematuria.
235
Chronic hypercapnia is followed by what as seen on an ABG?
rise in bicarb
235
When doing linear regression on cont variables everything is easy when telling stata what to do. When you have a categorical variable for example sex, how would you tell stata what to do now? exposure = height. outcome = weight. Covariates are age and sex.
xi: regress weight height age i.sex (just need to tell stata which variables are categorical)
237
What two questions are you going to ask to a pt presenting with haemoptysis? (in terms of finding out the common/more serious causes)
- Recent wt loss (malignancy) - Recent foreign travel (TB)
239
How would you perform a volume assessment?
- Skin turgor - HR, CRT, BP, JVP - sunken eyes - mucosal membranes - auscultate chest, abdo distension, urine output - haemorrhage, burns - confusion
240
What drugs cause hyperkalaemia?
- K+ sparing diuretics - NSAIDS - ACE-i - Trimethoprim
241
Name an anti-diarrhoeal? Mechanism of action?
Loperamide. Acts on opioid receptors in myenteric plexus. Inhibits peristalsis by inhibiting Ach release.
242
List 3 conditions/disease that excessive alcohol consumption can cause?
- Liver cirrhosis - Pancreatitis - Liver cancer - Peptic ulcer disease - Hypertension etc.
244
What are the risk factors for colorectal cancer?
- Neoplastic polyps - IBD - FAP - HNPCC - smoking - previous cancers - low fibre diet
244
What does the ST segment represent on an ECG?
Ventricular repolarisation
245
Golds & NSAIDS can cause what type of damage to cause renal failure?
Glomerular damage
246
In terms of respiratory conditions…malignancy, surgery and the OCP are risk factors for which condition?
PE. Along with immobility, leg fractures, preggo, thrombophilia.
247
Name 4 questions that you're going to asia apt who presents with 'vertigo'?
- Constant or episodic? - Duration? - Triggers? - Assoc symptoms (pain, hearing loss, tinnitus, n&v)
248
Pt presents with vertigo. Rapid onset. Duration of days. Occurs on awakening. No assoc auditory symptoms. N&V. Previously had an URTI (viral). On examination there is horizontal nystagmus. What is your diagnosis?
Vestibular neuronitis
248
Does grave's disease present with a nodular or diffuse goitre?
Firm diffuse goitre
248
What are the macrovascular complications of DM?
- Stroke - Renovascular disease - limb ischaemia - HEART disease
248
4 major aetiologies of stroke?
- thrombosis in situ - cardiac emboli - atherothromboembolism - CNS bleeds
249
What autoantibodies would be present in autoimmune addison's disease? If these are not present, what should you do to investigate further"?
21-hydroxylase adrenal autoantibodies. - Get a CXR/AXR for signs of TB
250
What drug is used to treat beta blocker overdose and hypoglycaemia?
Glucagon
250
Difference between fatality and 'cause specific mortality'?
Fatality = number of cases who die / number of cases with disease Cause specific mortality = number of cases with disease who die / total number of any cause deaths
251
The number of squares between the RR interval can tell you what on an ECG?
- Rate - Rhythm (regular or irregular)
252
What is a latent variable? How to overcome this problem
A missing variable. Use a proxy variable.
253
Clinical features of an AKI?
- hypovolaemia (CRT, pulse, bp, JVP, skin turgor, pulm oedema, periph oedema, urine output, wt) - palpable bladder? - signs of vasculitis (wt loss, fever, rash, uveitis, haemoptysis, joint swelling) - bruits
255
name given to a primary skin lesion which is a flat, non palpable area of skin which is less than 0.5cm?
papule
257
What is the Wells score used to determine the probability of?
PE. Looks at the risk factors and a score \>3 = probable chance of getting a PE
258
What immunosuppressants are used to treat psoriasis?
- methotrexate, ciclosporin, mycophenolate, retinoids (acetretin)
259
What are classes of calcium channel blockers?
- Dihydropyridines (amlodipine - vascular resistance and arterial pressure lowering) - Non-dihydropyridines (verapamil - mycordial selective) - Benzothiapine (diltiazem - somewhere between amlodipine and verapamil = vasodilatory and cardiac depression)
261
What features in a history would make you think about postural hypotension?
- whether they get dizzy/LOC on standing from a lying position - recently started on or change their anti-hypertensive medication
261
Aetiology of chronic liver failure?
- Infections (hepatitis) - Drugs (para overdose) - Vascular (Budd Chiari synd) - Others (alcohol, primary biliary cirrhosis, alpha 1 antitryp def)
263
ECG: - a prolonged P-R interval may suggest what? - a shortened may suggest what?
- Present of heart block - wolf parkinson white syndrome
264
SE of ferrous sulphate?
- Nausea - Abdo discomfort - Dark stools - Constipation
265
What are the commonest causes of chronic kidney injury?
- Diabete Mellitus - Hypertension - chronic glomerulonephritis disease
265
SE of lamotrigine?
- N&V + the usual - Stevens-Johnson syn. & toxic epidermal necrolysis - hypersensitivity reactions
265
Differentials for headache?
- Infection (meningitis - fever, rash, photophobia, neck stiffness. abscess) - Inflammatory (Tension headache - late in day, assoc with stress. Cluster headache - painful attacks around one eye, lacrimation, occurs 2xday for 1-3mnths. GCA - throbbing scalp pain, jaw claudication) - Vascular (stroke, TIA, SAH - think about assoc motor/sensory weakness) - Trauma (head injury) - Raised ICP (worse in morning, leaning forward, coughing) - Extracranial (Glaucoma - pain around eye, swollen red eye. Sinusitis - congestion, facial pain leaning forward. Scleritis - burning pain to temple) - Drugs (nitrates, analgesia overuse, caffeine)
267
What test can be used to examine survival data?
Log rank test or Cox proportional hazards modelling
268
Mild increase in ALT & AST indicates what? (list 3 things)
- Liver cirrhosis - Non-alcohol fatty liver disease - hepatocellular carcinoma - Wilsons disease
270
Working with hard wood increases the risk to what cancer?
Sinonasal cancer
271
Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies (anti-CCP) are highly specific for what disease?
Rheumatoid arthritis
271
Most common type of psoriasis? List the others
- chronic plaque psoriasis - guttate, seborrhoeic, flexural, pustular, erythrodermic
272
What sign would you observe in the hands/wrists of a pt with COPD?
Asterixis (CO2 retention flap)
273
Does the nose receive internal or external carotid artery supply or both?
Both. Ethmoidal arteries = internal carotid. Maxillary and facial arteries = external carotid
274
Name a MAO-B inhibitor? List 2 SE
Rasagiline. (alternative to dopamine agonists in the treatment of PD). SE = postural hypotension and AF
275
Normal PaCO2 on ABG?
4.7-6 kPa
277
Pt presents with a boring/throbbing eye pain. It radiates to the forehead. Wakes pt at night. No precipitants. Differential?
Scleritis
279
Mneumonic for aetiology of acute pancreatitis?
GET SMASHED G = gall stones E = ethanol T = trauma S =steroids M = mumps A = autoimmune S = scorpion venom H = hyperlipidaemia, hypothermia, hypercalcaemia E = ERCP D = drugs
280
How do beta 2 receptors work? (salbutamol)
Stimulates receptors to produce intracellular cAMP. Dec in intracellular cAMP leads to bronchodilatation.
280
How do corticosteroids work?
- inhibits phospholipase A2 activity which dec arachidonic acid production - arachidonic acid is a precursor for prostaglandins and leuktorien synth (inflam). so by dec arach acid = anti inflamm effect. - dec B and T lymphocyte response to antigens = immunosuppressive effect
282
How does gliclazide work?
Increases insulin secretion
283
Which statement represents a 'sample', a 'population'? - every member of a defined group of interest - subset of group of interest, intended to be representative of that group of interest
Pupulation = every member of a defined group of interest Sample = subset of a population, intended to be representative of that population, from which we can explore the population by inference
284
Pt presents with sudden and painless loss vision. Fundoscopy revels cotton wool spots, optic disc swelling, retinal haemorrhage visible in all four quadrants. Pt has DM & HT. Differential?
Retinal vein occlusion
285
How do you assess a neck lump? 6 things
- Location (midline, ant triangle, post triangle) - Size (width, depth, height) - Shape (well defined) - Consistency (Smooth, rubbery, hard, nodular, irregular) - Temperature - Overlying skin changes (erythema, ulceration etc.) - Fluctuance - Transillumination
286
List 4 neurological causes for a fit, faint, LOC or syncope?
- TIA/stroke - Parkinsons - Seizure - Vasovagal
287
HLA B27 is associated with what condition?
Uveitis
288
causes of megaloblastic anaemia? And causes of non megaloblastic anaemia?
- megaloblastic = B12 def (dietary, malabsorption, congenital), folate def, cytotoxic drugs - non megaloblastic = alcohol, preggo, hypothyroidism, reticulocytosis
289
Where are malignant melanoms more common on women, and where more common on men?
- women = legs - men = trunk
290
List 3 risk factors for a ruptured AAA?
- Hypertension - Smoker - female - Family history
291
What drugs can cause acute tubular necrosis?
- Lithium - Contrast - gentamicin
293
What drugs are cytochrome P450 inhibitors?
Some Certain Silly Compounds Annoyingly Inhibit Enzymes, Grrrr.
295
List some causes of decreased urea levels?
- Malnutrition - liver disease - Preggo
296
List 3 cardiovascular causes for a fit, faint or syncope?
- Aortic stenosis - Postural hypotension - Arrhythmia
297
Stata comman for the linear regression of two variables (weight, height) with a covariate of age. (exposure = height, outcome = wt)
regress weight height age
298
Inflammatory disease of the pilosebacaeous follicles?
Acne vulgaris
299
What condition can cause these EMERGENCY symptoms? (respiratory) - Silent chest - Cyanosis - bradycardia
Asthma
300
Long sightedness is known as ?
Hyperopia.
302
Why do pts with addison's disease get pigmented palmar creases and buccal mucosa?
Increase in ACTH which cross reacts with melanin receptors
303
What is GTN spray metabolised to in smooth muscle cells? Mechanism of action?
Metabolised to NO which causes coronary artery/systemic vein vasodilatation
304
Which of the two aminotransferases is specific to the liver only? And what is the other one assoc with?
ALT sources = LIVER. AST sources = liver, skeletal muscle, heart, pancreas, kidneys
306
What is Felty's syndrome?
RA + splenomegaly + neutropenia
307
What does a competing exposure affect?
Only influences the outcome
307
List 5 examples of when Pearson correlation should not be used?
- a non linear relationship between 2 variables - outliers present - there are distinct sub groups - onr or both of the variables is not normally distributed - one or both variables is non-numeric
308
How would you treat skin cancers?
- excision - mohs micrographic surgery - radiotherapy
309
How do you diagnose MS?
Based on clinical presentation and the attacks must last \>1 hr and there must be \>30days between attacks. - MRI abnormality
310
Non tender lymphadenopathy is a sign of what infection?
Chlamydial
311
The width of the CI depends on?
- size of sample - level of confidence requried - variability of characteristics being studied (he greater the variability of the characteristic, the greater the standard deviation which increases the standard error and so increases the width of the confidence interval.)
312
Why would a patient with both hypo and hyper thyroidism present with dyspnoea?
Hyper = more prone to AF which can cause dyspnoea Hypo = pleural effusions
314
List the 3 common organisms to cause otitis externa?
- S.aureus - Pseudomonas - Proteus
315
What the cause of pigmented gall stones?
Haemolysis
316
How do you calculate degrees of freedom using a student's t distribution?
n-1. (n = sample size)
317
ST depression can be caused by many different things....?
- ischaemia - anxiety - tachycardia - digoxin toxicity - Haemorrhage, hypokalaemia, myocarditis - Coronary artery insuff - MI
318
Which type of diuretic acts on the ascending loop of Henle? How does it act?
Furosemide. Inhibits sodium and potassium reabsorption.
320
Where is B12 absorbed?
Terminal ileum
322
List 4 presenting symptoms of iron def anaemia?
- Dyspnoea (SOB) - Fatigue (if pt presents saying "i'm tired all the time", have anaemia as a differential - Palpitations - Faintness - Headache
324
List 6 presenting symptoms in an otological history?
- Otalgia - Discharge - Hearing loss - Tinnitus - Vertigo - Dizziness
324
Along with assessing the neck lump what questions in the history are you going to ask?
- Duration - how many lumps? - Size change - skin changes - Painful - Assoc symptoms
325
SE of beta blockers?
- bronchoconstriction - fatigue - Bradycardia - cold extremities
325
What conditions is salbutamol contra-indicated in?
- CV disease - hyperthyroidism - DM - hypokalaemia
326
SE of a sulphonylurea?
HYPOGLYCAEMIA. Wt gain
327
Term used to describe how good a test is at correctly excluding those without the condition?
Specificity - true negatives. = d / b + d = true negatives / false positives + true negatives
328
Normal ranges of plasma potassium?
3.5-5 mmol/L
330
Pt presents with sudden and painless loss vision. Fundoscopy revels cotton wool spots, optic disc swelling, retinal haemorrhage visible in all four quadrants. Pt has DM & HT. Differential?
Retinal vein occlusion
332
Indications for Prednisolone?
- Suppression of allergic/inflamm disorders - IBD - asthma - rheumatoid disease - Immunosuppression
334
Pts ABG results: PaO2 normal, PaCO2 low, Bicarb normal. What could be going on?
Hyperventilation
336
which type of research design is helpful when conditions/outcomes are rare?
Case-control
337
Name a sulphonylurea? What is it used to treat?
Gliclazide. Type II DM.
338
What is the CAGE questionnaire used for? What does it stand for?
Alcohol dependence screening. - Cut down - Angry/annoyed - Guilty - Eye opener
340
What are the four most common presenting problems seen in somatisation?
- Chronic pain - Problems with GIT - Problems with nervous system - Problems with reproductive system
341
What would you see in proliferative diabetic retinopathy?
- macula oedema - retinal haemorrhages - vitreous haemorrhages - neovascularisation
343
What sign do you see on an X-ray in a pt with supraglottitis?
Thumb sign
344
Most common bacterial organism to cause bacterial Tonsillitis?
Group A Beta Haemolytic strep
346
Pt presents with mild conductive deafness, irritation around the ear, oedematous meatus. Little discharge. Diagnosis?
Otitis externa.
346
What part of the mnemonic for the mental state exam does asking the patient whether they think anything is wrong with the way their thinking? (is the pt aware of the nature of their disorder)
- Insight
348
How would you explain an endoscopy or gastroscopy to a pt?
- Intro (WIPE) - Check understanding - Explain what it is * Invasive procedure which allows doctor to view the lining of your oesophagus, stomach and the first part of your small intestine. * Involves passing a flexible tube through the mouth, down the oesophagus and into the stomach. The tube is about the width of the index finger. - reason for it * accurate way to diagnose and sometimes treat conditions that have been causing you problems * visualisation of any abnormalities * Painless biopsies which help in the diagnosis - Procedure details * Prep (clear fluids 8hr before, NBM 4 * During (either sedated (GA not recommended - (midazolam IV)) or unsedated with a throat spray of local anaesthetic (lidocaine) * After (if under GA then accompanied for 24 hrs. Go home within 2-4 hrs. DO NOT drive, operate machinery, drink alcohol, sign legal docs for 24 hours) - Risks and benefits * Sore throat (very common but short lived) * Perforation and haemorrhage (rare but serious, need to stay in hospital) * Reaction to sedative drugs * Risk of damage to teeth and dental bridge work * Alternate = barium meal but does not allow for tissue diagnosis
349
What are nuisance variables?
The likes of confounders and competing exposures which undermine the associations between the two main variables. (we can eliminated these though aslong as we identify- DAG, and measure them)
351
Investigations for complicated/recurrent rhino-sinusitis?
- Nasal endoscopy - CT paranasal sinuses - Microbiology
352
How would yo manage sepsis?
BUFALO - Blood cultures prior to Abx administration - U = urine output (catheter) - F = fluids to treat hypotension/clinical shock - A = broad spectrum Abx - L = Serum lactate and Hb - O = 15L/min oxygen via reservoir bag
354
What is a complication of acute otitis media? What are the presenting symptoms and signs?
Acute mastoiditis. - Earache, - Profuse creamy discharge - conductive deafness - Pinna is looking like elephant ears - Pt looks v unwell. Pyrexial.
354
What Abx is given to pts with meningitis under the age of 55yo?
IV cefotaxime
355
It is easier to detect an effect (greater power) if ...list 3 things?
- the mean effect is greater - variation in the effect is smaller - your sample is bigger (you can calculate your sample size and adjust in order to make sure your CI are stat significant. e.g if n = 49 CI (-0.1 to 2) and n = 50 (CI 0.1 to 2) then you could say that \>50 = sufficent power to produce a significant result. If CI does not include zero then it is significant at p
357
What cancer can sjogren syndrome progress to?
Non-hodgkins lymphoma
358
What 5 things are you going to comment on whilst doing fundoscopy? (start with the red reflex)
- **red** **reflex** = comment on **opacification** like **cataracts** - **Optic** **disc** (**colour**, **contour**, **cupping**, size, shape) - **Vessels** (**A-V nipping** (HTN), **copper** wiring, narrowing of A., **neovascularisation**) - **Retinal** background (**dot** and **blot** haemorrhages, **flame** and **spinter** haemorrhages, hard and soft **exudates**, microaneurysms, **cotton wool spots**) - **Macula** (**drusen**, haemorrhages, hard exudates) & then **foveal reflex**
360
Is insulin given to those with Type II DM?
yes if needed.
361
What happens in left axis deviation in terms of the leads?
- deflection in lead one to become more positive - deflection in lead three to more negative LEFT axis deviation = leaving each other
363
What would you see on a CXR in a pt with COPD?
Hyperinflation
365
What 3 things are you going to look for in the eye region in a thyroid exam?
- Exopthalmos (look from front, side and above) = graves - Lid retraction (more sclera visible than normal) - Periorbital swelling (hypo) - Madarosis (hypo) - Conjunctival chelosis (hyper)
366
Which of the two types of lymphoma most often causes systemic upset?
Hodgkins lymphoma
366
HbsAg: +ve anti-HbsAg: -ve anti-HbcAg IgM: -ve anti-HbC: +ve ?
Chronic Hepatitis B infection
367
What causes white, stringy mucoid discharge from the eye?
Allergic
369
Pt presents with photophobia, red eye with some visual disturbances. Red eye with ciliary injection around iris. Urgent referral to ophthalmologist is needed. Diagnosis?
Acute anterior uveitis
371
A headache which gets worse throughout the day? Dull, tight, pressure like.
Tension headache
372
What does carbamazepine treat?
- Tonic clonic seizures - partial seizures - Trigeminal neuralgia (second line treatment is phenytoin) - proph of bipolar disorder unresponsive to lithium
373
What drugs are contraindicated in gout?
- Diuretics
375
Alpha-fetoprotein is a tumour marker for what type of carcinoma?
Hepatocellular carcinoma
377
What is Wegener's granulomatosis? Presenting symptoms?
Small artery vasculitis (ANCA positive). - lesion in URT, lungs and kidneys. - symptoms = nasal obstruction, cough, haemoptysis, pleuritic chest pain. possible eye signs like scleritis, uveitis, retinitis. - CXR showing multiple nodular masses
379
What 9 questions are you going to ask a patient suspected of having a DVT?
- Is it both legs? - Any pain? - Any skin changes? - Is there oedema elsewhere? - trauma (surgery..) - Preggo? - Mobile? - Medication (HRT/OCP)? - Any skin pitting?
380
What is hypopyon?
Pus in the eye
382
What is Timolol and what is used to treat?
non selective beta blocker used to treat open angle glaucoma.
383
Herbedens nodes are present in what condition? And affect what?
Osteoarthritis. DIP.
384
What is friedereichs ataxia?
- inherited disroder affecting young men. - dorsal columns affected so loss of vibration and proprioception - deep tendon reflexes absent
385
What are the potential sources of bias and what solutions are there: sampling/selection bias
- external validity (stratified and random sampling) - confounding (adjustment or random sampling)
386
Young patients are likely to have anterior or posterior epistaxis compared with elderly patients?
Young = ant Elderly = starts to move more posteriorly
387
What is sjogren's syndrome?
Autoimmune disease. Usually occurs secondary to RA. - xerostomia - keratoconjunctivitis sicca
388
Name given to a larger flat area of altered colour or texture of skin \> 0.5cm?
Patch
389
Which hepatitis is there no treatment for? Which hepatitis is there no vaccine for? Which hepatitis can most pts make a recovery from without any chronic damage? Which hepatitis is acute infection uncommon? Which hepatitis is most likely to develop chronci liver disease?
- Hepatitis A - Hepatitis C - Hepatitis A - Hepatitis C - Hepatitis C
390
How do you check a urine sample?
- Note clarity, particles and colour before removing the lid of container - remove the lid of container and check odour - check multistix container is intact and in date. DO NOT use if stored in humid environment or if out of date - Remove a strip from container and replace lid - dip test strip into urine and wet all test zones - do not leave in urine for more than one second - remove strip from urine and drag edge on container to remove excess urine - replace lid - take note of time and compare test zones against those on multisite container at appropriate time - Note any abnormalities - dispose of waste appropriately (urine down sluice, container into clinical waste bin, fold test strip inside gloves as you remove them) - wash hands - record results
392
Where in the tympanic membrane does chronic suppurative otitis media cause perforation?
Pars tensa
393
What associated symptoms are you going to ask about if a patient presents with a headache?
- Aura (migraine) - Nausea - Vomiting - Photophobia (migraine) - Neck stiffness (meningitis, SAH) - LOC (SAH) - Fever (meningitis) - Rhinorrhoea (cluster)
394
What is beclometasone?
Inhaled steroid
395
What is the effect of increased conc of: ciclosporin?
- renal failure
395
SE of retinoids?
- Dry skin and lips - hepatotoxic? - teratogenic
397
What type of regression must you do when the outcome is continuous? What type of regression must you do when the outcome is categorical?
Linear regression Logistic regression (most likely a binary outcome)
398
Pts ABG results: PaO2 low, PaCO2 high, bicarb raised. What could be going on?
Type 2 resp failure with metabolic compensation from raised bicarb. PaO2 could be normal or low
400
Which of the three skin cancers is least likely to metastasise?
BCC
401
If only 2 out of 4 of the cells in a chi squared test have an expected value of 5 then what other test could you do?
Fisher's exact test. If the contingency table fails to meet the conditions required for chi squared.
403
What is the chief cause of goitre worldwide? Also the same as the most common cause of hypothyroidism?
Iodine def
405
What are the presenting symptoms of a gastric carcinoma?
- dyspepsia - wt loss - vomiting - dysphagia - anaemia
406
Effect of statin and amiodarone?
Inc statin conc and therefore inc risk of rhabdomyolysis
407
What are the different symptoms a pt can present with depending on the location of the colorectal cancer?
Left side = bleeding/mucus/mass on PR, tenesmus, altered bowel habit/obstrcution. RIght side = wt loss, anaemia, abdopain. Either side = abdo mass, haemorrhage, perforation
409
What is the most common cause of facial n. palsy?
Bell's palsy
410
What drug is used to treat benzodiazepine overdose?
Flumazenil
411
What other conditions could present similary to meningitis?
- Encephalitis - Septicaemia - Malaria - Dengue & tetanus
413
What are the side effects of Latanoprost?
- Blurred vision - Increased pigmentation of iris - darkening of eyelid skin colour - darker, thicken eyelashes
414
Where does stensens duct enter the mouth?
Opposite the 2nd upper molar. (parotid duct)
415
Infection of lung parenchyma leading to fluid accumulating in alveoli?
Lobar pneumonia
417
If the QRS complex is longer than 0.12 seconds what does this suggest? If QRS complex is shorter than 0.12 seconds what does this suggest?
- Longer = complex originated in ventricles - Shorter = complex is supraventricular in origin
419
What drug interferes with formation of vit K dependant clotting factors?
Warfarin
421
What is this? Assoc condition?
Koebner phenomenon. Linear eruption arising at the side of trauma. See in psoriasis
422
What defect on examining the eyes is a sensitive marker for unilateral or asymmetric optic nerve disease?
Relative afferent pupillary defect
423
SE of methotrexate?
Pneumonitis, oral ulcers & hepatotoxicity
423
What conditions is prednisiolone contra-indicated in?
- systemic infection - hypersensitivity - osteoporosis - glaucoma - recent MI - preggo - vaccines
425
What are the three types of anxiety?
Generalised anxiety disorder Panic attacks Phobias
427
What is lamotrigine and what is used to treat?
- Anti-convulsant - Partial seizures, primary/secondary generalised tonic-clonic seizures - lennox gestaut syndrome seizures - trigeminal neuralgia
429
What is a risk factor in adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus? Premalignant lesion?
- Barret's oesophagus - Smoking - GORD - Obesity
430
What would you see in non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy?
- Cotton wool spots - Dot and blot haemorrhages - hard exudates - microaneurysms
431
Statistical name for the commonest value?
Mode
432
Why do we use adjustment when comparing populations and samples?
Correcting sample statistics to make them: - better estimates of the true population - comparable to other samples/populations with different baseline characteristics
433
Mechanism of action of a cardiac glycoside? Name the drug. Indicated in?
Digoxin. Inhibits sodium/potassium pump to inc intracellular sodium conc which inhibits sodium/calcium pump. Dec calcium pumped out of cell = inc force of contraction. Also inc vagal activity and reduced HR/AV node conduction. - HF, and supraventricular arrhythmias (AF)
434
What condition causes "Autoimmune atrophic gastritis leading to achlorhydria"?
Pernicious anaemia
435
What is prevalence?
It measures the number of cases that exist at a specified time point in a population at risk
436
Is the pulse weaker on inhalation or exhalation in a pt with a paradoxical pulse? What resp conditions is this assoc with?
Weaker on inspiration. Asthma, PE, Tension pneumothorax, COPD. Abnormally large dec in systolic blood pressure and pulse wave amplitude during inspiration.
437
Most common causative organism?
S.aureus
438
List 3 complications of a pneumonia?
- Type 1 resp failure - Hypotension - Pleural effusion - Empyema - Lung abscess - AF
440
What are the microvascular features of DM?
- retinopathy - neuropathy - nephropathy
441
Increased levels of growth hormone stimulate the overproduction of what? where?
overproduction of IGF1 from the liver. Stimulates overgrowth of tissues and alters blood glucose and lipid metabolism. Symptoms of acromegaly
443
Is Stridor an inspiratory or expiratory sound?
Inspiratory sound due to partial obstruction of upper airways
444
What organ is responsible for excreting metabolic acids?
KIDNEYS - secrete hydrogen ions into urine and reabsorb bicarb from urine.
445
ECG: Small sqaures represent? Large square represents? 5 large squares represent? 300 large sqaures represent?
Small squares = 0.04 seconds Large square = 0.2 seconds 5 large squares = 1 second 300 large squares = 1 minute
446
List 5 presenting physical symptoms of excessive alcohol consumption?
- Sleep disturbances - Diarrhoea - Inability to concentrate - Headache - Sexual dysfunction - Loss of appetite
447
O/E Chest expansion: can be reduced on affected side Trachea: central Percussion: dull over affected zone Breath sounds: reduced breath sounds, coarse creps, bronchial breathing over affected zone Vocal resonance: increased over affected zone Differential?
Pneumonia
449
What is Uhthoff's phenomenon?
Seen in MS in Optic neuritis - vision worsens on exercise, eating a hot meal or in hot baths
451
If the R & S-waves are of equal size it means depolarisation is travelling at what?
Exactly 90 degrees to that lead
453
What is seen in herpes simplex keratitis?
- Sore non sticky red eye - Abnormal corneal epithelium in dendrite pattern which stains with fluorescein.
455
What is relative freq?
Freq = number of cases/events expressed as if they were counts Rel freq = these counts expressed as percentage of total number of counts
456
What are you going to ask the pt to do with their hands during a thyroid exam?
"can you place your hands out in front of you" Place paper on back of hands and observe for fine tremor
458
What investigation do you not do if a pt has suspected raised ICP?
Lumbar puncture
459
What drugs are cytochrome P450 inhibitors?
Some (sodium valproate) Certain (ciprofloxacin) Silly (sulphonamide) Compounds (cimetidine) Annoyingly (antifungals, amiodarone) Inhibit (isoniazid) Enzymes (erythromycin), Grrrr (grapefruit juice).
461
List 4 topical steroids in order of potency?
Hydrocortisone 1% Eumovate Betnovate C Dermovate
462
What score is used to predict the risk of a DVT?
Well's score. \>3 = treat as DVT
464
If iron def is detected on blood tests, but there is no obvious source of bleeding what is the diagnosis until proven otherwise?
GI carcinoma. RED FLAG
466
For normally distributed variables: - populations \>200 we can use what to calculate conficence intervals? - populations
- Normal (Gaussian) distibution and its Z statistic of 1.96 - Student's t distribution
467
What is the most common cause of macrocytosis? (without accompanying anaemia)
Alcohol excess
469
What is the equation for OR? (in terms of words)
OR = the odds that an event will occur/the odds of an event not occuring
470
In essence what is the core difference between nephrotic and nephritic syndrome?
Nephrotic = loss of a lot of protein Nephritic = loss of a lot of blood
471
What conditions are contraindicated in pts taking atrovent?
Atrovent = ipratropium bromide. - BPH, bladder outflow obstruction (precipitates urinary retention) - Angle-closure glaucoma
473
What are the SE of statins?
- Muscle pains - Hair loss - Itching Also nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, abdo pain
474
What is the pattern of presentation for: septic arthritis?
Monoarthritis
475
What must we do in order to find the CI for Odds ratios?
Apply the log of the OR and then find the exponential of it
476
List 3 causes of an aneurysm?
- Atheroma - trauma - Infection (infective endocarditis, tertiary syphillis) - Connective tissue disorders (marfans = josh, ehlers danlos) - Inflammatory disorders (takayasu's aortitis)
476
What is the effect of increased conc of: Digoxin?
- GI disturbances - Xanthospia (colour vision def - yellow in vision) - Arrhythmias
476
Difference between vesicle and bulla?
Vesicle = raised clear fluid filled lesion Bulla \> 0,5cm
477
What 3 things are you going to look for in the hands on a thyroid examination?
- Moisture (sweaty = hyper, dry = hypo) - Thyroid acropachy (phalangeal bone overgrowth) - Palmar erythema (hypo) - Oncholysis (hyper)
477
What murmur is characterised by early diastolic?
Aortic regurg
478
What type of unilateral vision loss is described during a TIA?
Amaurosis fugax
479
What is the most common cause of blindness in industrialised countries?
Age related macular degeneration
479
Cotton wool spots on retinopathy indicate what?
DM retinopathy. Ischaemic changes.
480
Side effects of Timolol drops?
- Blurred vision - Burning or stinging in the eye less common include those of cardiovascular and respiratory SE similar to those of other beta blockers
481
What medical conditions predispose to epistaxis?
- Kidney failure - Thrombocytopenia - Haemophilia - Hypertension
483
What are the complications of diabetes in pregnancy?
- poor birth outcomes - Macrosomia (birth wt above 90th percentile)
484
What is this?
Tinea capitis
486
What are mucolytics used for?
Make the sputum less thick
487
Post bilateral thyroidectomy, what 3 drugs could the pt be put on? One for definite, one is a possibility depending on what?, the third is dependant on the second.
- Thyroxine for life - Calcium (due to the potential of resection of the parathyroid glands as well) - Vit D
489
What class of drug is sitagliptin? What is it used to treat?
Glucagon like peptide analogue - DPP4 inhibitor. Type II DM.
490
What type of error is it when you find an efect when actually there is no genuine effect?
Type 1 - oh what fun
492
What name is given to this condition "the generation of physical symptoms of a psychiatric condition"?
Somatisation
493
What are risk factors for infective endocarditis on a normal valve?
- dermatitis - IV injections - open wounds - renal failure - DM
494
what will you be able to tell from the pulse in a thyroid exam?
- rate (fast = hyper, slow = hypo) - Rhythm (irregular AF = hyper)
495
What type of prevention is it when you remove a cause from unaffected individuals?
Primary prevention
496
What drugs affect all antiepileptics and lower the convulsive threshold?
- Antidepressants (SSRI, tricyclic) - antipsychotics - MAOIs
497
Pt presents with lethargy, blurry vision and genital thrush? Differential?
Diabetes
499
What type of glaucoma is a medical emergency?
Acute angle closure glaucoma
500
What are the potential sources of bias and what solutions are there: analytical bias?
- loss to follow up = intention to treat - omitted variable bias = prori hypothesis and primary data collection - attributional bias = priori design
502
HbsAg: -ve. Anti-HbC -ve. Anti-HbS +ve?
Immunity due to hep B vaccination
503
What tests are you going to do in a pt with acute pancreatitis?
- serum amylase and lipas - AXR - LFTS (looking at ALT and ALP) before doing a USS for gallstones - ABG to monitor oxygenation and acid-base
504
What are the three biologics commonly used in RA?
- Infliximab - etanercept - adalimunab
505
What causes gestational diabetes insipidus?
During preggo the placenta produces vasopressinase which breaks down vasopressin. GDI is caused by overproduction of vasopressinase by the placenta causing a lack of functional vasopressin.
506
Causative organisms for epiglottitis?\>
- H.influenzae - Strep pneumoniae, - Group A strep
508
What is the classic presentaiton of Lyme disease?
Erythema migrans rash. Lyme disease is a tick borne infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi.
510
Causative organism of croup?
parainfluenza virus
511
True or false: the 95% confidence interval is a plausible range of values for the population mean
true
512
Differentials for chest pain?
- Cardiovascular (**MI**, **angina**, **pericarditis**, arrhythmias, **aortic dissection**) - Respiratory (pneumonia, **pneumothorax**, **PE**) - Other (**Reflux**, **Anxiety**, rib fracture, costocondritis)
514
Explain the three different types of inhalers their purpose and when to use them plus their SEs?
- Salbutamol is the blue reliever inhaler so you take this during an attack to relieve your symptoms. You may get a tremor or a fast heart rate by using this. - Steroid inhaler (beclomethasone) is the brown preventer inhaler and you use it every morning and night to prevent an attack. Make sure to rinse your mouth after use. You may experience a dry mouth, hoarse voice or thrush from using this but that's why it's important to wash your mouth out. - Dry powder or breath activate inhalers can be used as a reliever or preventer depending on the drug inside.
515
Are case study and cross sectional studies a descriptive/inductive or analytical/deductive sampling research design?
Descriptive/inductive (producing evidence)
516
Indications for phenytoin?
- SEIZURES (tonic clonic, focal, status epilepticus) - Secondary treatment for trigeminal neuralgia (after carbamazepine)
518
O/E Chest expansion: equal Trachea: central Percussion: resonant Breath sounds/added sounds: bilateral expiraotry wheeze and creps Vocal resonance: normal Differential?
COPD exacerbation
519
What two Autoimmune disease present with firm diffuse goitres?
Graves' disease & Hashimoto's disease
520
What is the effect of increased conc of: Gentamicin?
- Renal Failure - Ototoxicity
521
Pt presents with sudden and painless loss of vision. Fundoscopy reveals retinal oedema, pale, no haemorrhages. Differential?
Occlusion of retinal artery
522
What is first line treatment in the black and elderly patient population for hypertension?
- thiazide diuretics - calcium channel blockers (verapamil)
524
Ropinirole is what type of drug use to treat what?
dopamine agonist used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease
526
What is used to cauterise bleeding vessels?
Silver nitrate
527
Most common cause/risk factor for Hep A? Moss common cause/risk factor for Hep B? Most common cause/risk factor for Hep C?
Hep A = **Foecal oral route** (contaminated food or drinking water, person to person contact) Hep B = **Vertical** transmission (from mother to infant) or **horizontal** (unprotected sex, sharing of needles, bodily fluid transmission) Hep C = **IVDU** or sharing needles
528
Systemic factors that predispose to rhino sinusitis?
- Mucociliary disorder (Kartagener's, CF) - Immunosuppressed.
529
What is a unilateral periorbital headache indicative of?
Cluster headache
530
What is this?
Tinea corporis
531
O/E Chest expansion: Equal Trachea: central Percussion: normal Breath sounds: High pitched expiratory wheeze Vocal resonance: normal Differential?
Asthma exacerbation
532
3 most common causes of vision loss?
- Cataracts - Glaucoma - Macular degeneration
534
Two most common ways of blood loss in a pt with iron def anaemia?
- Mennorrhagia - GI bleed
535
What should you think of in all patients with unexplained abdo pain and vomiting?
Addison's disease
536
Indications for salbutamol?
- asthma, COPD - premature labour - used in treatment of hyperkalaemia
537
What is a sialogram?
X-ray using contrast to look at salivary glands
538
Complications of rhino sinusitis?
Can be very serious - Periorbital cellulitis - orbital cellulitis - Periorbital abscess - epidural abscess (most common) - meningitis - encephalitis - subdural empyema
539
5 signs elicited from lobar pneumonia?
- Tachypnoea - Confusion - Fever \>39.5 - Increased vocal resonance - Dec chest expansion - Dull percussion note - Rusty coloured sputum
539
What are the complications of chronic kidney injury?
- hypertension - oedema - anaemia - renal bone disease - hyperkalaemia - hyperlipidaemia
540
What are you going to look for on inspection of the arms in a peripheral vascular exam?
- Colour (pallor) - tar staining - tendon xanthoma - gangrene
542
What percentage of pts who have gallstones are symptomatic?
10%
543
Heberden's nodes are seen in what condition? What are they?
Osteoarthritis. Small bony nodules affecting the distal interphalangeal joints
544
What are the two types of ARMD?
- Dry - Wet
546
Odds of 1 mean that the event will occur half the time. True or false?
True
548
Most common cause of extrinsic compression of the trachea or oesophagus?
Multinodular goitre = can also cause laryngeal n. palsy.
549
List 4 things you are going to do prior to checking a urine sample?
- Introduction to pt - Check pt ID - Explain you need a mid stream sample of urine - wash hands and put on gloves and apron
551
What are the 3 options that you have if your key variables are missing?
- compre participants with complete and and missing data - create a missing category for missing measurements (reduce cont to categorical variables = losing info) - interpolate what the missing variable are likely to have been
552
What does FSH stimulate? and to produce what?
Sertoli cells to produce androgen binding globulin which binds to testosterone to keep it at high concs in the seminiferous tubules.
553
What is the normal range for the anion gap and if \>? what does it indicate?
10-18 mmol/L. If over 18 then indicates presences of an increase in unmeasured anions (e.g lactate, salicylate)
555
What is desmopressin?
ADH (synthetic vasopressin)
556
What are the early features of meningitis?
- Headache - cold hands and feet - abnormal skin colour - leg pains
558
O/E Chest expansion: equal Trachea: central Percussion: Dull at the bases Breath sounds: fine inspiratory creps Vocal resonance: reduced over affected zone Differential?
Pulmonary oedema
558
Knee examination: What are you looking for?
- Inspect around bed side for walking sticks, wheelchair, knee brace - Gait (normal heel strike-toe off, inc step, smooth, symmetrical, antalgia, festinance, waddling) - Inspect * Front (scars, swellings, asymmetry, valgus or varus deformities, quad wasting) * Side (hyperextension or flexion) * Back (popliteal swellings, like bakers cysts or pop aneursym)
559
What test would you use when examining the association between two categorical variables? What are the conditions?
Chi squared test. The number of expected values in each of the fours cells in the contingency table need to be greater than one. And in 3 of the 4 the expected value should be greater than 5.
561
Pt presents with acute tenderness in a diffuse swelling in the midline of his neck. Sometimes has severe pain.He's currently got a systemic viral illness. Differential lump diagnosis? (think thyroid)
De quervain's thyroiditis.
563
What test would you use to diagnose addison's disease?
ACTH stimulation test. Synacthen test. Give ACTH and this should cause an increase in cortisol but in addison's due to the adrenal insuff, it doesn't.
564
List the 3 most common causative organisms for acute otitis media?
- s. pneumoniae - H.influenzae - moraxella
565
Painless, frank haematuria is what until proven otherwise?
Bladder cancer
567
Name a thyrotoxic drug that is used in cardiac conditions?
Amiodarone (interferes with iodine absorption). Treatment for AF, atrial flutter, complex tachys.
568
ECG - what's the rate? - RR interval of 3 squares - RR interval of 4 squares - RR interval of 5 squares
bpm = 300/number of squares 3 squares = 100 bpm 4 squares = 75 bpm 5 squares = 60 bpm
568
Which type of arthritis is symmetrical in nature?
RA
570
What drug is used to treat ketoacidosis but what drugs are contraindicated in ketoacidosis?
- treat = insulin - contra-indicated = gliclazide, metformin.
571
What drugs can cause renal artery stenosis?
ACE-i
572
What are the primary causes of nephrotic syndrome?
- minimal change glomerulonephritis - focal segmental glomerulosclerosis - membranous glomerulonephritis secondary causes include DM, SLE, Heb B and C, malig
573
How does a pt with eczema present?
- itchy, erythematous, dry sclay patches - more common on flexor acpest of children and adults - acute lesion erythematous, vesicular and weepy - nail pitting, excoriations and lichenification follows.
574
What is the pattern of presentation for: crystal arthritis?
mono or oligoarthritis
575
What is incidence?
Measures the **number of new cases** that occur over a specified **time period** in a population at risk
576
Which of the following types of projects do requires formal ethical approval and which do not? §\*Non-human subjects/material covered by the Animals (Scientific Procedures) Act 1986 §Projects collecting new information only on service delivery – Service Evaluation\* §\*Service Evaluations involving vulnerable participants or ethically sensitive topics §Projects on non-human subjects/materials – Non-Human Research\* §Projects involving a new intervention – Experimental Research §Projects using only existing service management data – Audit §Projects collecting new information on more than only service delivery – Non-Experimental Research §Data/material already published/publicly available – Secondary Research
**Do =** §\*Non-human subjects/material covered by the Animals (Scientific Procedures) Act 1986 §\*Service Evaluations involving vulnerable participants or ethically sensitive topics §Projects involving a new intervention – Experimental Research §Projects collecting new information on more than only service delivery – Non-Experimental Research **Do Not =** §Data/material already published/publicly available – Secondary Research §Projects on non-human subjects/materials – Non-Human Research\* §Projects using only existing service management data – Audit §Projects collecting new information only on service delivery – Service Evaluation\*
578
HbsAg: +ve anti-HbsAg: anti-HbcAg IgM: +ve anti-HbC: +ve ?
Acute hepatitis B infection
579
What drug is given to those with paracetemol overdose?
N-acetylcysteine
580
What is the dominant symptom in metabolic acidosis?
Hyperventilation (Kussmaul's respiration)
581
Differentials for cough?
- Cardiac (**LVF =** frothy pink) - Respiratory (**LRTI** (yellow/green), **URTI**, **asthma** (nocturnal), **COPD** (clear/gray), pulmonary oedema (foamy pink), pleural effusion, **PE** (haemoptysis), allergy, **malignancy**, **TB,** CF) - Other (**PND**, **GORD**, Drugs (ACE-i))
582
List 4 triggers for otitis externa?
- moisture (Swimming) - foreign objects (ear buds, finger nails) - Trauma - Skin conditions (eczema, psoriasis)
583
List 5 causes of cerebellar dysfunction?
- MS - Tumour - Stroke - Chronic alcoholism - Iatrogenic (phenytoin, carbamazepine) - Friedereichs ataxia
584
Effect of gentamicin and loop diuretics interaction?
renal failure risk
585
from the tympanic membrane to the oval window, name the ossicles?
- Malleus - Incus - Stapes
586
Cholestasis would cause which LFT to rise?
ALP
587
Differentials for change in bowel habit?
- Gastro (**colon** **cancer**, **IBD**, **IBS**, **gastroenteritis**, **coeliac disease**, bowel obstruction, diverticulitis) - Thyroid (**Thyrotoxicosis**, **hypothyroidism**) - Drugs (**opiates**, iron, **Abx**)
588
From a stata output: - what part will tell you the m and b aprts of y = mx +b? - what part will tell you the proportion of variation explained by the linear model?
- coefs of the exposure = m - the coefs of \_cons = b - R^2
589
What is metoclopramide, what does it treat, how does it work?
- Antiemetic (dopamin antagonisT0 - Vomiting/Nausea & GOR - blocks dopamine receptors in chemoreceptor trigger zone of brain stem - dec pyloric sphincter tone = inc gastric emptying - Inc lower oesoph sphincter tone
590
Difference between vesicle and pustule?
Vesicle = clear fluid filled lesion Pustule = pus filled lesion
591
True or false: the 95% confidence interval is wider than the 90% confidence interval
True - If we want to be more confident (95% confident rather than 90% confident) that our range of plausible values includes the true population value then it makes sense that the confidence interval has to be wider
592
What is the effect of increased conc of: Warfarin?
Bleeding. monitor with INR.
593
Pt presents with otorrhoea \> 3 wks. No pain. Apyrexial. Previous history of glue ear. Otoscopy reveals perforated ear drum. Diagnosis?
Chronic suppurative otitis media.
595
Alcohol induced lymph node pain is indicative of what?
Hodgkins lymphoma
596
Which organism is more likely to give lobar pneumonia in a pt with a preexisting lung disease?
Haemophilus influenzae
597
Lymphomas are histologically divided into 2 types?
Hodgkins & non-Hodgkins
598
What is palmar hyperkeratosis called?
Tylosis (seen in oesophageal cancer)
599
Which carcinoma of the skin is most likely to metastasise?
SCC
600
Effect of ACE-i & metformin?
Enhances hypoglycaemic effect
602
What is levodopa and what is it used to treat?
Dopamine precursor. Used to treat PD and parkinsonism
603
What is the average age of onset of MS?
30 yo
604
What do you observe for during the buerger's test as the pt swings their legs over the side of the bed?
reactive hyperaemia - legs first returns to pink then become red. due to arteriolar dilatation in order to remove build up of metabolic waste.
605
Common causes of mechanical bowel obstruction?
- constipation - hernia - adhesions - tumour
606
Which chest leads give the anterior view of the heart?
V3 & V4
607
What two clinical entities make up COPD?
Emphysema & Bronchitis
608
Differentials for breathlessness?
- Cardiac (**MI**, angina, **aortic stenosis**, **CCF**, VSD) - Respiratory (**asthma**, **COPD**, **pneumonia**, **PE**, **pneumothorax**, **pulmonary** **fibrosis**, pulmonary oedema, pleural effusion, TB) - Other (**anaemia**, overdose of opioids, thyroid, DKA)
609
How would you treat anxiety?
- CBT - self help (lifestyle, education) - medication (benzodiazapines, SSRIs, antihistamines)
611
What are the different types of gallstones? Which type is most common?
- Cholesterol stones (large and often solitary) - Pigment stones (small and irregular) - Mixed stones (faceted made up of all constituents) Most common
612
What is the effect of increased conc of: Lithium?
Tremor & coma
613
What are the potential sources of bias and what solutions are there: dissemination bias?
Publication bias = prior registration and meta analysis
615
What tests/investigations would you like to do after assessing a patient's breathing during the ABCDE assessment?
- Pulse oximetry - ABG (pH, PaO2, PaCO2, bicarb & base excess) - Portable CXR
617
Extra nodal disease is more common in which of the two types of lymphomas?
Non-hodgkins lymphoma
618
Term used to describe how well the tests detect a condition?
Sensitivity = picks up the true positives. = a / a + c = true positives / true positives + false negatives (total number who have tested postive according to gold standard)
619
What is Decubitus angina?
Angina that occurs on lying down. Impaired LV function due to severe CAD.
620
What are the 3 key types of study that support the development and assessment of healthcare?
- Audit - Service evaluation - Research
622
How do you identify confounders?
- DAG (able to summarise all causal relationships between your known/available variables)
623
Differentials for vertigo?
- Peripheral (**BPPV**, **viral labyrinthitis**, vestibular neuritis, menieres disease, **acoustic neuroma**) - Central (v**ertobasilar insufficiency**, head injury, **MS**, epilepsy, tumour, migraine, **stroke**) - Infection (**COM**, Ramsay Hunt syn.) - Drugs (**gentamicin**, **alcohol**, salicylates)
624
What is another cause of microcytic hypo chromic anaemia?
- Thalassaemia (inherited disorder - alpha and beta types) - Sideroblastic anaemia
626
Where in the colon does colorectal cancer usually affect?
45% rectum. 25% sigmoid. 15% caecum.
627
How are CI calculated with normal SD and distribution?
mean - 1.96 \* SE to mean + 1.96 \* SE - remember SE = sd/root of n
628
What skin barrier function underlies atopic eczema?
loss of function in the protein fillaggrin
629
Clinical features of cataracts?
- gradual vision loss (can be rapid in DM) - Glare (esp at night) - Blurred, lazy vision - Halos - Monocular diplopia signs - reduced VA - reduced red reflex - poor view of fundus due to cloudy lens
630
How does simvastatin work?
- reversibly inhibits HMG CoA reductase which is the rate limiting eznyme in chol synth. - liver responds by inc LDL receptor expression to inc LDL uptake
631
Normal ranges of plasma sodium?
125-145 mmol/L
632
A red eye caused by coughing, sneezing, hypertension is likely to be what?
Subconjunctival haemorrhage (asymptomatic)
633
pH ? leads to death?
pH 7.8 = death!
634
What is the prevalence of clinical depression? Risk factors for depression? Is there a genetic element to depression?
- 20% prevalence Risk factors: - birth, loss, divorce, illness, jobs - endo problems (dexa suppression test abnor in 1/3) - lack of intimate relationships Yes there is a genetic element (higher concordance in identical twins)
636
Two types of hearing loss?
- Sensorineural - Conductive
637
Risk factors for an SCC?
- UV exposure, pre-malignant skin condition (actinic keratoses), chronic inflammation, immunosuppression, genetics.
638
Mechanism of action of clopidogrel? SE?
- Inhibits platelet aggregation by preventing activation of gp11b/IIIa. - SE = dyspepsia, abdo pain, diarhhoea, bleeding
639
What are the two most common causes of acute pancreatitis?
- Gallstones - Alcohol
640
How would diagnose depression? How would manage depression?
- Based on history Treat using: - psychological treatment (behavioural therapy) - manage co-morbib condiitons (alcohol, anxiety, psychotic symps, eating disorders, dementia) - antidepressants (tricylic = amitriptyline. SSRIs = sertraline, citalopram, fluoxetine. MAOIs = Phenelzine) - ECT - Admission
642
Another name for iritis?
Anterior Uveitis
643
What are the symptoms of ARMD?
- Disturbed central vision (scooter, blurring, distortion) - Difficulty appreciating detail (reading fine print, recognising faces)
644
Differentials for fits/faints/syncope?
- Vascular (postural hypotension, aortic stenosis, arrhythmia, ruptured AAA - Neurological (stroke, epilepsy, PD, head injury, vasovagal - emotional, fear, pain, nausea, pallor, sweat LOC 2 mins. intracranial haemorrhage, MS) - Drugs (alcohol, polypharmacy) - Others (hypoglycaemia, anaemia) - Postural instability
645
Name a direct renin inhibitor?
Aliskerin
646
Bounding pulse in a pt with SOB, what would you be thinking?
Acute Carbon dioxide retention
647
what is injection sclerotherapy used to treat?
Varicose veins
648
If AST \> ALT = ?
- established cirrhosis - ++ alcoholic liver disease
649
What are you going to look for during examination of the hands during a thyroid exam?
- temperature - thyroid acropachy - moisture of skin - palmar erythema - tremor - pulse (rate and rhythm)
650
What are the signs of infective endocarditis?
- Septic signs (fever, wt loss, rigors, night sweats, anaemia, splenomegaly, clubbing, malaise) - New or changing murmur - Oslers nodes, janeway lesions, roth spots
651
How are you going to assess someone's airway?
LOOK - for chest movements - paradoxical 'see-saw' pattern indiactes obstruction. - use of accessory muscles - misting of oxygen mask LISTEN - abnormal sounds - snoring, choking, gurgling, stridor - silence FEEL - airflow on inspiration and expiration
653
What are the clinical features of delirium?
DELIRIUM - **Disordered** thinking (slow and irrational) - **Euphoric** (angry, depressed) - **Language** impaired - **Illusions** - **Reversal** of **sleep** cycle - **Inattention** - **Unaware** - **Memory** deficits
654
Post strep glomerulonephritis and IgA nephropathy both cause what syndrome?
Nephritic syndrome.
655
What can be given to a pt with acute tubular necrosis to protect the kidneys?
Sodium bicarbonate
657
Amoxicillin + EBV = ?
Rash
658
What are the differentials for rectal bleeding?
- Gastro (Oesophageal **varicies**, Haemorrhagic **peptic ulcer**, Proximal polyp/**cancer**, Haemorrhagic infective **gastroenteritis**, **IBD**, IBS, distal colon cancer, **Diverticular** haemorrhage, **haemorrhoids**, **anal fissures**)
659
B12 def can lead to what neurological problem?
Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord
660
Pt presents with short history of painful swelling, purulent exudate from duct, cheek oedema, mild fever. Diagnosis?
Sialadenitis
661
What drugs are cytochrome P450 inducers?
CRAPS out drugs - C = carbamazepine - R = rifampicin - A = bArbituates - P = phenytoiin - S = st johns wort
662
Pt presents with a fever and a new murmur - what is the diagnosis until proven otherwise?
Infective endocarditis
663
What drugs cause hyponatraemia?
- Anti-depressants - Diuretics - Lithium
664
What is the underlying mechanism of type I respiratory failure?
V/Q mismatch
665
What is Buerger's angle?
the angle at which a limb develops pallor during the buerger's test indicating limb ischaemia.
666
List 6 signs of respiratory failure?
- Dyspnoea - redcued conciousness - tachycardia - tachypnoea - cyanosis - accessorry muscles for ventialtion - confusion
667
List some causes of iron def anaemia?
- BLOOD LOSS (menorrhagia or GI bleed) - Poor diet in babies and children - Malabsorption = coeliac disease is a cause of refractory IDA - Tropical (hookworm)
669
Differentials for haemoptysis?
- Respiratory (**Pneumonia**, **PE**, **Lung** **tumour**) - Others (Prolonged **coughing**, Mitral stenosis, TB, laryngeal carcinoma, Aspergillosis)
670
How would you managed a DKA?
- Fluid management - Blood glucose - check potassium - Give insulin and dextrose together
671
In a mental health evaluation, what 4 or 5 questions are you going to ask before asking about suicidal thoughts?
During the last month, have you been bother by... - ..feeling down, depressed or hopeless? - having a persistent sadness of low mood? - have little interest in doing things of pleasure? - having fatigue? Have you felt like this for more than 2 weeks?
672
What name is given to this?
Tinea manuum
673
Name given to the folding over of the eyelid and going into the eye?
Entropion
674
What is the most common cause of acute vertigo? Assoc symptoms include n&v, sweating, diarrhoea, profound sensorineural hearing loss, nystagmus towards the side opposite lesion.
Labyrinthitis
674
What do you want to know about the presenting symptoms of a rheumatological history?
- pattern of joint involvement - symmetry - morning stiffness \>30mins - pain, swelling, warmth, erythema, loss of function
675
Commonest cause of a bilateral pleural effusion?
- Heart failure
676
What drugs is prescribed as an opioid antagonist to prevent opiate overdose?
Naloxone
677
What are the sources of ALP?
- Biliary tract - Bone - Less so in placenta, SI & kidneys
678
Pt presents with dysphagia. Initially was just dysphagia with food but has now progressed to dysphagia on liquids as well. There is odynophagia. No neck bulge. No difficulty in starting the swallowing movement. Diagnosis?
Oesophageal cancer
680
What drugs do statins interact with? Include effect?
- Ciclosporin = inc risk of myositis - Fibrates = inc risk of myopathy - Warfarin = inc effects of warfarin - Clarithromycin = inc risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis
681
What interactions occur with Levodopa?
- Anaesthetics (inc risk of dysrhthmias) - MAOIs (risk of HTN crisis)
682
Most common cause of mitral stenosis?
Rheumatic heart disease
684
Explain y = mx + b + E
y = y axis m = gradient x = x axis b = y-intercept E = residual part N(0, variance). Where N(0, variance) is the normal distribution of the residual with mean zero and a variance of whatever). As variance increases, the amount of noise increasse so less of the variation in the data is explained by the model. Variance = standard dec squared
685
What type of chart or gram easily summarises freq/relative freq of cases which can also in confidence intervals? What types of variables can a histogram only be drawn for?
- Bar chart - continuous variables or for ordinal categorical variables
686
List 3 causes of clubbing for each system? - Cardiac - Respiratory - GI - Endo (1)
Cardiac - Cyanotic congenital heart disease - Infective endocarditis - Atrial myxoma Resp - Lung cancer - Pulmonary fibrosis - Chronic pulmonary suppuration (bronchiectasis, empyema) - CF GI - IBD - Liver cirrhosis - Coeliac disease Endo - Thyrotoxicosis
687
The overall direction of electrical activity are towards which leads?
Leads I, II, III.
688
List 6 causes of red eye?
- Conjunctivitis - Corneal abrasions - Acute iritis - Scleritis - Acute glaucoma - sub conjunctival haemorrhage
689
What are the four key types of variable?
Categorical (**nominal -** male/female and **ordinal -** score) Numerical (**discrete** and **continuous**)
690
Name three salivary glands?
- Parotid - Submandibular - Sub lingual
692
What is made in the adrenal medulla? Give an example
Catecheloamines. Adrenaline.
693
Commonest cause of Addison's disease in the world?
TB
694
ECG: Which chest leads give the septal view of the heart?
V1 & V2
695
What would you see on examination of quinsy? How would the patient be speaking?
- Deviated uvula (away from abscess) - Hot potato voice
696
What drugs can mask warning signs of hypoglycaemia if a diabetic is taking insulin?
Beta-blockers
697
How would you manage anaphylaxis?
- call for helo - removal of trigger - IM or IV adrenaline - maintain airway patency - management of bronchospasm and CV collapse
698
Which type of diabetes is there more of a genetic link with?
Type II DM. \>80% concordance with identical twins
699
In what leads would you see right axis deviation?
Lead 1 would become more negative and the deflection in lead III would be more positive. Right axis deviation = reaching towards
700
What drugs cause hypokalaemia?
- Salbutamol - Insulin - Diuretics
701
What special tests are you going to perform to conclude your thyroid examination?
- Pretibial myxoedema - Proximal myopathy - Ankle reflexes bilaterally (when they stand up out of chair, get them to rest a knee on the chair to elicit ankle reflex)
703
Malar flush is due to what?
mitral stenosis.
704
What is left censored data?
When we are not certain what happened to people before the time at which they entered the study. Common example is when people already have the disease of interest when the study starts
705
List 6 presenting complaints for the respiratory system?
- Cough +/- sputum production - Dyspnoea - Haemoptysis - Fever - Chest pain - Fever/night sweats
706
Pt presents with unilateral stabbing pain in the head which last for about 2 seconds. Pt screws up face in pain. Pt gets pain in certain regions of the face. Differential?
Trigeminal neuralgia
707
What the presenting symptoms of iron def anaemia?
- Dyspnoea - Fatigue - palpitations - faintness - headache
709
ECG: what would you see in a pt with a PE?
- Tachycardia - S1 Q3 T3 (rare but indicative of PE)
710
Mechanism of action of aspirin? Contra-indicated in what?
Inactivates COX. and dec thromboxane synthesis. CI = peptic ulcer, haemophilia, active bleeding
711
Pt presents with melaena, haematemesis, haemoptysis, anaemia, nausea but is otherwise well. Thinking ENT, what could be a differential?
Posterior Epistaxis. (less common than anterior epistaxis). Bleeding from the sphenopalatine arteries.
712
Drug interactions with prednisolone?
- ciprofloxacin (and other quinolones) - phenytoin (dec effect of pred) - rifampicin (dec effect of pred) - coumarins (enhance or reduce anticoag effect) - amphotericin ( inc risk of hypokal)
713
What is the definition of an AKI?
- Rise in serum creatinine \> 26 micromol/L within 48 hours OR - Rise in serum creatinine \>1.5 baseline within 1 week OR - urine output
714
What is the effect of increased conc of: Theophylline?
- Arrhythmias - Seizures
715
What are the two types of authorised research ethics committees?
- Institutional - Government
716
Knee examination: what are you going to move?
- Perform flexion and extension both actively and passively (can you move your heel towards your bottom please?) - lift both legs by feet and note any hyperextension - Special tests * Ant/post drawer tests (flex pts knee at 90degrees, rest forearem on shin and elbow on foot, pull and push tibia) * Collateral ligs (extend knee fully, hold pts knee in one hand and lower portion of leg in other hand. attempt to bend lower leg medially = lat collateral lig and then laterally = med collateral lig)
717
name given to a palpable raised lesion which is like a plateau \>0.5cm?
Plaque
718
Infectious mononucleosis is what? caused by what?
Glandular fever. EBV.
719
What is the range for relative risk?
0 to infinity
721
Most common nodular goitre?
Multinodular goitre
722
Clinical audit or service evaluation? "does this service reach a certain standard?"
Clinical audit
723
Causes of a simple diffuse goitre?
Physiological changes (puberty or preggo)
724
What is this an example of? term and assoc condition?
Lichenification. Eczema
725
Can research include elements of both audit and service evaluation?
Yes it can. Research is designed to generate new, generalisable knowledge.
727
5 features of Heart failure on CXR?
A - Alveolar oedema (Bat wings) B - Kerley B lines (interstitial oedema - outer margins) C - Cardiomegaly D - Dilated upper lobe vessels E - Pleural Effusions
729
Pt with a PE presents to A&E. Is their haemoptysis going to be blood mixed into sputum or not mixed into sputum?
Blood is not mixed with sputum in a PE. Along with Trauma and bleeding into lung cavity.
730
What is right censored data?
- occurs when people in the study to do not reach a failure before the end of the study
731
Name a pansystolic murmur?
Mitral regurg
732
What final test would you do to demonstrate poor lower limb perfusion? Describe it
Buerger's test - pt supine - stand at bottom of bed and raise both legs to 45 degrees for 2-3 mins. - observe for pallor (emptying of superficial veins) - healthy leg should remain pink even at 90 - after 3 mins ask pt to swing legs over side of bed - observe for reactive hyperaemia (goes pink then red)
733
What further investigations would you like to do following a thyroid examination?
- Full neck examination - TFTs - USS
734
What are the late features of meningitis?
- Meningism (photophobia, neck stiffness, Kernig's sign) - seizures - petechial rash (non blanching) - Dec in conscious level
735
Give an example of a yeast infection?
Candidiasis
736
What is a perceptual experience without an object or stimulus, that appears subjectively real known as?
Hallucination
737
What antibodies do you look for to help diagnose coeliac disease?
Alpha gliadin
738
What causes dementia?
- Alzheimers (60%) - Vascular (more sudden onset than AD) - Lew body (shares many features wioth AD & PD) - Others (huntingtons, metabolic disorders (alcohol. vitb12), hypothyroidism, psych)
739
What conditions is carbamazepine contra-indicated in?
- Bone marrow depression - AV conduction abnormalities - Porhpyrias
740
Commonest cause of a unilateral pleural effusion?
- Pneumonia - Malignancy
741
List 5 presenting symptoms of coeliac disease?
- Diarrhoea - Steatorrhoea - Wt loss - Abdo pain - Nausea & vomiting - Bloating
742
Respiratory failure is defined as a Pa02 less than what?
Pa02
743
What is sialadenitis?
inflammation of salivary gland
744
What effect does alcohol have on a blood film?
macrocytosis
745
Who does acute otitis media most commonly affect?
3-7 yo
747
What is Dressler syndrome?
Secondary form of pericarditis that occurs as a complication of MI. Consists of fever, pleuritic pain, pericarditis and/or pericardial effusion.
748
Tall T waves caused by?
- hyperkalaemia (tall tented T waves) - Myocardial ischaemia (hyper acute MI)
749
What is variant (prinzmetal's) angina?
Angina without provocation. Usually at rest due to coronary artery spasm
750
Name a H2 antagonist?
Ranitidine
751
Commonest cause of Addison's disease in UK?
Autoimmunity
752
Slow rising and small volume carotid pulse - what murmur?
Aortic stenosis
753
List 4 presenting psychological symptoms of a pt with anxiety?
- Inability to concentrate - Poor sleep - constant worry - irritable - feeling depressed - tired
754
HbsAg and IgM anti-HbcAg indicates what stage of hepatitis?
Acute hepatitis B infection
755
What is Lhermitte's sign?
Neck flexion that causes electric shocks in trunk and limbs. +ve in MS and cevrical spondylosis, cord tumours and Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord
756
What are the clinical features of dementia?
- **Memory loss** (short term memory loss) - Decline in **cognitive function** (language impairment, planning, difficulty performing complex tasks) - **Challenging behaviours** (depression, anxiety, incontinence, aggression, wandering, psychosis, dis-inhibition)
757
Common causes of metabolic acidosis?
- Lactic acidosis - Ketoacidosis - Poisoning - Acute or chronic kidney disease
758
How do you managed hyperkalaemia?
- 10% 10ml Calcium gluconate (cardio protective) - Insulin and dextrose - Salbutamol nebs (pushes K+ back into cells)
759
What is koilonychia? Indicative of?
Spoon shaped nails. iron def anaemia
760
What is the most common cause of macrocytic anaemia in the Western World?
B12 def, pernicious anaemia
761
HBsAg -ve, anti-HBc +ve, anti-Hbs +ve?
Immunity via natural infection
762
What is the most common salivary gland to suffer from sialadenitis?
Parotid
763
What are the signs of liver failure?
- jaundice - hepatic encepahlopathy - fetor hepaticus (pear drops) - Asterixis - constructional apraxia
765
What is Trismus?
Spasm of jaw muscles keeping it closed aka lockjaw
766
What signs would you elicit in a pt with subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord?
- symmetrical posterior column loss so sensory and LMN signs - symmetrical corticospinal trat loss so motor and UMN signs - Classic triad of extensor plantars, absent knee jerks, absent ankle jerks.
767
How would you perform a cognitive assessment?
Old (orientation) Tired (time) Psychiatrists (Place) Persevere (person) At (attention - observe for distractions) Creating (concentration - test using sequencing exercises) Mnemonic (memory - working, short and long term) Learning (language) - Codswallop (construction - apraxia)!
768
Two most common types of oesophageal cancers?
- Squamous cell carcinoma (middle third of oesoph) - Adenocarcinomas (lower third)
769
What word is given to describe an auditory hallucination?
Tinnitus
770
Clinical signs of hypercapnia?
- confusion - flapping tremor - drowsiness - bounding pulse - headache - warm extremities
771
Marked raise in ALT & AST indicates what? (list 3 things)
- drug/toxin induced hepatitis - viral hepatitis - liver ischaemia
772
Common causes of type 1 respiratory failure?
- Pneumonia - PE - Pneumothorax - Pulmonary oedema - Acute asthma - COPD
773
In a thyroid examination, what would be testing if you asked the patient to stand up from a low chair without using their arms?\>
Peripheral myopathy
774
What is this?
tinea pedis with tinea unguium
776
Which lymph nodes are most likely to be affected in hodgkins lymphoma\>?
Cervical lymph nodes. Enlarged, painless, non tender, rubbery superficial lymph nodes.
777
Which lead will show the most positive deflection?
Lead 2
778
Effect of thiazide and PPI?
Hyponatraemia
779
Pt presents with breathless worse on exertion and also collapses. Differentials?
- Aortic stenosis! - LRTI - Exacerbation of asthma - PE
780
What are the ALARM symptoms in peptic ulcer disease?
Anaemia, Loss of wt, Anorexia, Recent onset of progressive symptoms, Maleana, swallowing difficulty
781
Side effects of amlodipine?
- abdo pain - nausea - ankle oedema - dizziness - constipation
782
Causes of delirium (confusion)?
HIDEMAP-H - Hypoxia (pneumonia, anaemia, MI) - Infection (URTI/LRTI, UTI, malaria, wounds) - Drugs (opiates, sedatives, anticonvulsants) - Endocrine (hyper/hypothyroid, addison's and cushing's, DKA) - Metabolic (uraemia, liver failure, hyper/hypo natraemic/glycaemic, malnutrition) - Alcohol withdrawal - Pyschosis - head injury
783
Carcino-embryonic antigen (CEA) is a tumour marker for what type of cancer?
GI neoplasms, esp colorectal Ca.
784
Normal bicarb range on an ABG? Normal base excess range?
21-28mmol/L. BE +/- 2
785
Is vomited or coughed up blood acidic and dark?
Vomited. (bright red, alkaline and frothy = coughed up)
786
What are the two main symptoms of Sjogren syndrome?
- Xerostomia (dry mouth) - karatoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eyes)
787
Entacapone is a type of what drug? Use in the treatment of what disease?
COMT inhibitor. Parkinson's disease
788
What is the Kiesselbach's plexus?
Area in the anterior inferior part of the nasal septum where four arteries anastomose - 90% of epistaxis
789
Which is the most common salivary gland to get sialolithiasis?
Sub mandibular
790
What class of drug is sitagliptin? What is it used to treat?
Glucagon like peptide analogue - DPP4 inhibitor. Type II DM.
791
How long is termed chronic in the case of rhino sinusitis?
\>12 wks. Acute
792
3 most common causes of GI malabsorption in the UK?
- Coeliac disease - Chronic pancreatitis - Crohn's disease
793
Young child presents with stridor, odynophagia, dyspnoea, hoarse voice. Diagnosis?
Epiglottitis
794
What score is used to predict the risk of a DVT?
Well's score. \>3 = treat as DVT
795
In which type of lymphoma is extra nodal disease more common? - which type of lymphoma has alcohol induced lymph node pain?
- Non hodgkins lymphoma - Hodgkins lymphoma
796
What investigations would you do to someone with potential hearing loss?
- Audiogram - MRI if tumour suspected
797
Reference range for anaemia in men? Hb
Hb
798
Clubbing, soft tissue swelling and new sub periosteal bone formation is a sign of what condition and what is it called as a collective group of signs?
Thyroid acropachy
799
Differentials for abdo pain?
- Infection (**cholecystitis**, **cholangititis**, hepatitis, **pancreatitis**, **gastroenteritis**, **appendicitis**, **peritonitis**, diverticulitis, **pyelonephritis**, pneumonia) - Inflammatory (**PUD**, GORD, **IBD**, IBS, coeliac, **renal colic**, endometriosis) - Vascular (ruptured **AAA**, **MI,** **mesenteric ischaemia**) - Malignancy (gastric Ca. colorectal Ca) - Mechanical (**bowel obstruction**, **hernia**, ectopic **preggo**)
800
What names is given to the condition which is due to the inflammation of the mucosal membranes of the paranasal sinuses?
Rhinosinusitis
801
Which leads represent the lateral view of the heart on an ECG?
V5, V6, Leads I, aVL & aVR
802
Where is folate absorbed?
duodenum/ prox jejunum
803
Name two types of analytical (deductive) research designs and list some examples of each?
- Observational (selective sampling) = cross sectional analytical, case-control, cohort - Experimental (selective exposure) = trials
804
Where does the aqueous humour drain?
Via the trabecular meshwork in the angle formed by the iris and cornea.
805
What are the clinical features diabetic ketoacidosis?
- coma - severe hyperglycaemia - Kussmaul respiration (deep gasping breaths) - breath smells of pear drops - cerebral oedema - severe abdo pain
806
What sign is caused by skin hardening from subcutaneous fibrosis due to chronic inflammation and fat necrosis in varicose veins?
Lipodermatosclerosis
807
How do you explain to a pt about using their inhalers?
- Introduction (WIPE) - Check for current understanding of condition and inhaler treatments - Initial explanation (type of inhaler, purpose and when to use + inhaler contains set dose of medication and the aim is to get it into the lungs + you release the drug by twisting/clicking the device) - Steps of use * Check expiration * Shake vigorously * remove cap and check inside is clean * Stand it up right * Place index finger on top and thumb underneath * Breath out completely * Seal mouth well around mouthpiece * Simultaneously press down and breath in deeply and slowly * Hold breath for 10 seconds * Breathe out slowly * Replace cap * Repaet after 1 min if required - Demonstration and observation - Other advice (seek emergency help if symptoms are sevre or not being relieved by inhaler, see GP if suffering SE or using reliever \> 3 x /wk, any questions?
808
How do you manage anaphylaxis?
- IM adrenaline injection - Give anti-histamines later
809
Diabetes insipidus is characterised by what?
The passage of large volumes of dilute urine
810
List 5 causes of sialadenitis?
- Sialolithiasis (obstruction) - Dehydration - Mumps - surgery - trauma - AI disease
811
What should you think of in all patients with unexplained abdo pain and vomiting?
Addison's disease
812
What is Reiter's syndrome?
Reactive arthritis - AI condition which develops due to an infection in another part of the body. - inflammatory arthritis - urethritis - conjunctivitis
813
Pt presents with severe vertigo and hearing disturbances, and has had a cough for the past week. Differential?
Viral labyrinthitis
814
What are the potential sources of bias and what solutions are there: measurement bias?
- information bias = priori hypotheiss and prospective data collection - observer bias = blinded, indepedant and objective - recall/response/prestige bias = blinded
815
Complications of acne vulgaris?
- post inflam hyperpigmentation, scarring, deformity, socail effects
816
What would you look for on general inspection of a pt during a thyroid examination?
- comment on behaviour (appear irritable or apathetic) - comment on body habitus - comment on clothes for current time of year
817
Name a cardioselective and a nonselective beta blocker?
Cardioselective = Atenolol & bisoprolol Nonselective = Propanolol, carvedilol
818
What are the three factors in diagnosing acute otitis media?
- recent, sudden onset of middle ear inflammation and effusion - Signs of middle ear effusion (bulging of tympanic membrane, otorrhoea, fluid air level behind membrane) - Signs and symptoms of middle ear inflammation (red tympanic membrane, otalgia)
819
Which type of respiratory failure is due to inadequate alveolar ventilation?
Type II respiratory failure
820
At a RRAPID station what are you going to assess in the circulation section? What would you want to do, and how would you manage?
- looking for signs of shock - HR, BP, CRT, JVP, ausculation of heart sounds, volume status, urine output, ECG external haemorrhage - Manage using IV access (warm fluid replacement or blood replacements) - catheter
821
What drugs interactioins does gliclazide have?
- Fluconazole/miconazole = inc hypoglycaemic effect - chloramphenicol, coumarins, NSAIDs
822
What are the SE of levodopa?
- N & V - Abdo pain - insomnia - agitation - postural hypotension - palpitations Rarely reddish discolouration of bodily fluids, psych symptoms
823
ECG: if the R wave is greater than the S wave, does it suggest that depolarisation is moving towards or away from that lead?
Towards that lead
824
Risk factors for a BCC?
- UV, male, immunosuppression, age, skin type I, previous history of skin cancer, sun burn.
825
What would a AXR show in a pt with acute pancreatitis?
- no psoas show due to inc in retroperitoneal fluid
826
Common causes of type 2 respiratory failure?
- COPD - Exhaustion - Flail chest injury - Opiate toxicity - Obstructive sleep apnoea
827
True or false: if we repeatedly sampled a population and constructed a 99% confidence interval for the mean of each sample then, in the long run, 99%?of the confidence intervals would include the true value of the mean
True
828
What would you see on CXR in aortic regurg?
LV enlargement
829
Pt presents with vertigo following a herpes zoster infection. O/E of external ear there are vesicular lesions. Pt complains of otalgia, sensorineural deafness, ipsilateral facial paralysis. Diagnosis?
Ramsay Hunt syndrome
830
831
What type of aneurysm can you get in infective endocarditis?
Mycotic aneurysm
832
How do you manage a tension pneumothorax?
- Thoracocentesis (cannula) - Later on put in chest drain
833
What drugs have a narrow therapeutic index and have lots of interactions?
Guys (Gentamicin) With (warfarin) Large (Lithium) Dongles (digoxin) Totally (theophylline) Make (methotrexate) Perfect (phenytoin) Internet (insulin) Connections (ciclosporin)
834
List 4 ENT (inner ear) differentials for vertigo and say how you would distinguish between them in a history?
- benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (episodes lasting around 30 seconds, evoked by head turning. Rotational vertigo) - Viral labyrinthitis (severe vertigo and hearing disturbances, preceded by URTI, may have tinnitus, otalgia, N&V, fever) - Vestibular neuritis (lasts several days, preceded by URTI, rotational vertigo and vomiting, several episodes a year) - Meiniere's disease (classic triad of vertigo, hearing loss and tinnitus)
835
Are ACE-i or calcium channel blockers safe in preggo?
- calcium channel blockers
836
Complication of bacterial tonsillitis?
Quinsy = peritonsilar abscess
837
Gustatory sweating is a complication of what surgery? What syndrome does it give rise to?
Surgery around the parotid gland. frey syndrome.
838
What are the red flags for urgent referral to a colorectal cancer clinic?
- rectal bleeding or a persistent change in bowel habit \>6 wks - iron def anaemia without an obvious cause - palpable abdo or rectal mass - recent onset of looser stools and or inc in freq of shitting \>6 wks
839
ECG: which leads do you apply to the four limbs?
- Red = right wrist or shoulder - Yellow = left wrist or shoulder - Green = left ankle - Black = right ankle (earth electrode)
840
Perform a shoulder examination
Look * front (scars, swellings, asymmetry, muscle wasting) * Side (scars, muscle wasting, alignment of shoudler girdle) * Back (scars, trapz bulk, scapula - elevated, depressed, winging) Feel * Joints and bones * start at sterno-clavicular joint * clavicle * acromio-clavicular joint * coracoid * acromion * head of humerus * spine of scapula * Muscle bulk of deltoid Move * Active (flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, internal and external rotation) * Passive movement (feeling for crepitus) Function * Hands behind head (ext rot and abd) * Hands as far up your back as you can (int rot and add) Special tests * **Impingement** (painful arc) - **abduction** of arm against light resistance = **supraspin** * **Internal** rotation against resistance (**subscapularis** muscle) - dorsum of hand on back, apply resistance and lift off * **External** rotation against resistance (**infraspin** and **teres** **minor**) - loss of power = tear. pain on forced ext rot = tendonitis.
841
Perform an elbow exam
- Look * Front (Scars, swelling, eyrthema, carrying angle) * Side (fixed flexion derformity, olecranon bursitis, scars, swelling, erythema) * Back (Rheumatoid nodules, psoriatic plaques) - Feel * Temperature * Palpate joint lines - Move (active and passive) * elbow flexion and extension * supination and pronation - Special tests * Medial epicondylitis (golfers) - flex elbow, supinate hand, ask pt to flex wrist against resistance * Lateral epicondylitis (tennis) - flex elbow, pronate hand, ask pt to extend wrist against resistance
842
Observing the patient from the end of the bed, what features might make you suspect an airway obstruction?
Paradoxical breathing pattern, added noises such as snoring, gurgling
843
What features, if present, would alert you that the patient was experiencing an anaphylactic reaction? 
- Sudden deterioration, rash, urticaria - airway swelling, wheeze, CV collapse
844
Anaphylaxis: Other than high flow O2, what drug would you immediately consider giving?
Adrenaline (0.5 mls of 1:1000 IM)
845
Treatment for Pulmonary oedema?
- high flow oxygen - diuretics - nitrates - possibly non invasive ventialation
846
What are the 5 principle categories of shock? with some causes
- hypovolaemic (dehydration, fluid loss and haemorrhage - reduced JVP) - Distributive shock (septic - bounding pulses, warm pt, anaphylactic) - Cardiogenic (MI, HF - increased JVP) - Obstructive (PE, tamponade, tension pneumothorax) - Neurogenic (spinal transection or brain stem injury)
847
What are 4 causes of hypoglycaemia?
- excess insulin - oral hypoglycaemics - alcohol - liver failure
848
What Abx is used to treat chlamydia infection?
Tetracyclin
849
What is contra-indicated for tetracycline?
-preggo & breat feeding. deposits in gorwing bone and lead to pemanent staining of teeth.
850
What products should you avoid when taking tetracyclines?
Milk products as these dec absorption of the drug
851
Name two glycopeptides?
- Vancomycin & teicoplanin
852
What abx to treat MRSA?
Vacomycin
853
List 3 drugs which can cause pulmonary fibrosis?
Methotrexate, nitrofurantoin and amiodarone
854
Common side effect of sulphasalazine?
Reversible oligospermia
855
Gum hypertrophy can be due to what drugs?
ciclosporin, phenytoin and calcium channel blockers
856
What is a stoke-adam attack?
- Transient arrhythmias that decrease CO sufficient to cause syncope. - recovery is quick = pt is usually pale with syncope and then becomes flushed on recovery
857
List some drugs which could cause postural hypotension?
- Antihypertensive medication. Beta blockers, L-dopa and tricyclic antidepressants affect autonomic nervouse system
858
CXR: tramlining and ring shadows are characteristic of what lung pathology? ; miliary shadowing? ; wedge shaped infarct? ; ground glass appearance? ; honeycomb appearance? ; pleural mass with lobulated margin?
- Bronchiectasis - miliary tb - PE - fibrosis early - fibrosis late - mesothelioma
859
Causative organisms in pts with pneumonia: - cavitating lungs - contact with birds - HIV +ve with bilateral hilar shadowing - occupation involving water symptoms
- staph/klebsiella - chlamydia psittaci infection - pneumocystis carinii pneumonoa - legionella infection
860
Side effects of some drugs: - orange coloure tears/urine, deranged LFTs, hepatitis - peripheral neuropathy, hepatitis
- Rifampicin - Isoniazid
861
Normocytic anaemia is caused by?
- anaemia of chronic disease (malignancy, RA)
862
Pt is of mediterranean origin, rapid anaemia, jaundice, precipitated ny fava beans and sulphonamides; - what haematological disease are you suspecting?
Glcuose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase def
863
Presentation of malignancy - what type of cancer is most likely? - change in bowel habit, per bleeding - painless total haematuria - painless obstructive jaundice - anaemia and dysphagia - haemoptysis with a smoking history - bladder outflow obstruction with bone pain
- colorectal cancer - bladder cancer - head of pancreas cancer - Gastric cancer - bronchial cancer - prostate cancer
864
Haematological malignancy: - reed sternberg cells? - auer rods? - Middle age with inc WCC, philadelphia chromosome?
= Hodgkin's lymphoma - AML - CML
865
Neuro disease: - lead pipe rigidity, cog wheel rigidity, pill rolling tremor, festinant gait with poor arm swing - optic neuritis, leg weakness, ataxia, heat worsens symptoms, IgG oligoclonal bands on electrophoresis, raised CSF protein - mixed UMN & LMN signs but no sensory loss - chorea onset middle age, with a positive family history
- Parkinson's disease - MS - Motor neuron disease - Huntington's disease
866
Name the syndrome; - triad of nystagmus, opthalmoplegia, ataxia (caused by thiamine def) - ipsilateral pyramidal signs plus contralateral loss of pain and temp - saddle anaesthesia with bowel/bladder disturbances, bilateral leg pains - signs of gross defect in memory of recent events, confabulation may be present, condition irreversible - ascending symmetrical flaccid muscle weakenss, preceding recent resp/GI infection
- Wernicke's encephalopathy - Brown-sequard syndrome - cauda equina syndrome - Korsakoff's syndrome - Guillain Barre syndrome
867
Describe the gait in the following conditions; - Cerebellar lesion - Cerebrovascular disease - Sensory ataxia - Parkinson's disease
- wide based gait - shuffling small steps - high stepping/stamping gait - shuffling/festinant gait
868
What's the problem?; - constricted, irregular pupils which react to accomodation but not to light? - dilated pupil with ptosis, eye is deviated laterally and downward? - bilateral pin point pupils with respiratory depression? - bilateral dilated pupils plus anticholinergic signs \*tachycardia, hypotension, urianry retention? - unilateral constricted pupil, ptosis, anhidrosis?
- Neurosyphilis (argyll robertson pupil) - CNIII palsy - opiate overdose - tricyclic antidepressant overdose - Horner's syndrome
869
Nerve injury; - Wasting thenar eminence, Loss of sensation on lateral palmar surface of three and a half digits, Test for weakness in abductor pollicis brevis? - weakness of wrist extension, anaesthesia over first dorsal interosseous muscle - weakness in dorsiflexion and eversion of foot - wasting of hypothenar eminence, sensory loss over medial one and a half fingers. cla hand deformity - inability to invert foot or stand on tip-toe? - waiter's tip sign?
- Median nerve - radial nerve - common peroneal - ulnar nerve - tibial nerve - Erb's palsy
870
What are the four A's association with ankylosing spondylitis?
- Arthritis - anterior uveitis - apical lung fibrosis - aortic regurg
871
Pt presents with orogenital ulceration, uveitis, arthritis and is Turkish. What connect tissue disease does she have?
Behcet's disease
872
What would you use to treat trichomonas vaginalis? Foul, yellow smelly vaginal dishcarge. Flagellate.
Metronidazole
873
Which of the bowel obstructions is more likely to present with early vomiting and colicky central abdo pain?
Small bowel obstruction. Large bowel, vomiting appears later and is faeculent.
874
What type of drug is carbimazole? How does it work?
Anti-thyroid. Inhibits thyroid peroxidase which is needed for thyroid synth.
875
SE of carbimazole. What should the doctor counsel the pt on about the SE of carbimazole?
- Nausea & GI disturbances, taste disturbances, headache - rarely bone marrow suppression (agranulocytosis) - warn pts to tell doc immediately if sore thorat, mouth ulcers, bruising, fever, malaise, or non-specific illness develops.
876
What would you prescribe for rapid relief of thyrotoxic symptoms?
- Propanolol - carbimazole - during a thyrotoxic crisis you could als prescribe hydrocortisone.
877
What advice must be given to pts taking alendronic acid?
- Tablets should be swallowed whole with plenty of **water** while **sitting** or **standing** and taken on an **empty stomach** at **least 30 mins before** **breakfast** and should **remain** sitting or standing for 30 minutes after taking the tablet.
878
What is alendronate? What is it used for? What are its contraindications & SE?
Bisphosphonate. - Used in post menopausal osteoporosis, osteoporosis and corticosteroid induced osteroporosis. - Abnormalities in oesophagus (strictures), hypocalacaemia, renal impairment and preggo - Oesophageal reactions, abdo discomfort, GI disturbances
879
What drugs impair the absorption of bisphosphonates?
- Antacids - calcium salts & iron salts
880
Interaction of calcium salts?
- ciprofloxacin, tetracyclin (dec absorption of Abx) - Diuretics (inc risk of hypercalcaemia)
881
What are the contraindications for Vit D? What interactions?
Hypercalcaemia. Metastatic calcification. - Phenytoin/carbamazepin = inc Vit D requirements. Diuretics = inc risk of hypercalcaemia.
882
Interactions of Diclofenac?
- Anticoags (inc risk of haemorrhage) - Ciclosporin (plasma conc of diclo inc by ciclo) - Methotrexate (reduceds excretion of metho so inc risk of toxicity
883
How does morphine work?
- Mimics endogenous opioids and acts on the opioid receptors in the dorsal horn, the periaqueductal grey matter and the midline raphe nuclei.
884
Contra-indications for morphine?
- Severe respiratory depression (COPD, asthma attack( - Head injury or raised ICP - paralytic ileus or other undiagnosed acute abdo
885
Indications for codeine?
- mild-mod pain - diarrhoea - cough suppression
886
Interactions for morphine?
- Antihistamines = inc sedative effects - MAOIs = possible CNS excitation or depression
887
Indications for paracetamol? Cautions? SE? Interactions for paracetamol?
- mild to mod pain & pyrexia - alcohol dependence, hepatic or renal impairment - Rare skin reactions like SJS, TEN, blood disorders. LIVER damage. Indications: - Phenytoin & carbamazepine = inc metabolism rate - Metoclopramide = inc rate of absorption
888
A 25 year old is rushed to A&E presenting with vomiting, hyperventilation, tinnitus and sweating. Blood gases show a respiratory alkalosis. What drug has this pt overdosed on? How would you treat?
- aspirin Treat usiing multiple doses of oral activated charcoal. If moderate, give sodium bicarb. If severe haemodialysis.
889
Which of these dilate the pupil and which constrict the pupil? - cocaine - heroin - amphetamine - tricyclics
- cocaine, amhetamine and tricylics = dilate - heroin = constrict
890
A 42-year-old man presents with cyanosis and confusion. On examination he is noted to have the smell of almonds on his breath. What drug has this pt been poisoned with?
Cyanide
891
A 50-year-old woman on treatment for paroxysmal atrial fibrillation presents with a photosensitive rash. What drug could give this adverse reaction?
Amiodarone.
892
Most common cause of hand, foot and mouth disease?
- Coxsackie Virus
893
Warfarin Counselling:
- Intro - "I've been asked to come talk to you about a recent medication you've been started on - is this okay?" - "I understand you've just been diagnosed with AF/have got a DVT post op, is that right?" - Explain AF or DVT (inc risk of Stroke or PE) - Signpost (explain warfarin and why it's needed. Treatment, SE, advice) - Warfarin is a drug which thins your blood and makes it less likely to clot. It'll help dissolve your current clot and prevent it from going to your lungs. You'll need to take it for 3-6 months (PE), lifelong (AF) every day. The aim of warfarin is to get the blood consistency just right just that it doesn't clot too much or bleed too much. For that we'll need to do regular blood tests called INR - every day for a week, then every week for 3 weeks, then once a month for 3 months. Yellow warfarin book for you to record your INR levels. - SE (notice any unusual bleeding, black stools, coughing or vomiting up blood you must let your doc know) - Do you take any current regular medication? (CYP450 crap). If on OCP STOP, as it inc risk of clotting but also interferes with warfarin. Need alt contraceptive though as warfarin and preggo are bad) - Food and alcohol. Do you drink alcohol? Do you drink cranberry juice, eat lots of spinach? Advise is to drink no more than a pint a day, no binge. Don't eat lots of spinach, liver etc. ADVICE: Contact sports STOP due to inc risk of bleeding. Any procedure you must let your doc or dentist know. Stay mobile though.
894
Pt presents with eye pain. What are your red flags? What are you trying to exclude?
- Acute angle closure glaucoma - Haloes, triggered by low illumination
895
Differentials for inc urinary freq/dysuria?
- Urological * **cystitis** * **Urethritis** * **Pyelonephritis** * **BPH** * Bladder **calculus** * **Prostatitis** Other * **Anxiety** * Preggo * Drugs (**diuretics**)
896
Differentials for haematuria?
Urological * **Bladder** cancer * Urethral **trauma** * **UTI** * Urethritis * **Calculi** * Glomerulonephritis * **BPH/prostate cancer** * Schistosomiasis Other * **IE** * **Drugs** (sulphonamides, cyclophosphamide, NSAIDs) * **Menstruation** * Strenuous exercise
897
Differentials for polyuria?
Endocrine * DM * Diabetes insipidus * Cushing's syndrome Urological * Chronic kidney disease Drugs (diuretics, alcohol, tetracyclines, lithium)
898
Differentials for urinary incontinence?
- **Stress** incontinence (**incompetent** sphincter = small losses with effort like **coughing** or **exersion**) - **Urge** incontinence (Detrusor instability = idiopathic, cystitis. or **hyperreflexia** = **MS, CVA, spinal cord injury**. Urge to pass followed by uncontrollable bladder emptying) - **Overflow** (**Prostatic** hypertrophy, stricture or stone. Dribbling and poor stream) - **True** (**fistula** between bladder and vag or urethre = cont urine leak) - Mixed
899
Differentials for urinary retention?
Urological * **BPH** * Urethral **stricture** * **Bladder neck obstruction (**calculus, **tumour)** * **UTI** * **CONSTIPATION** * Prostatitis * Genital herpes * Pelvic mass Neuro (**MS, spinal cord compression**) Drugs (**anticholinergics**)
900
What type of arthritis can patients with IBD have?
Enteropathic arthritis (symmetrical arthritis of lower limb joints, early morning stiffness)
901
What are the causes of hyponatraemia?
Hypovolaemic * Diuretics * Addison's disease * Kidney failure * Diarrhoea and vomiting * Burns Oedematous * CCF * Nephrotic syndrome Euvolaemic * Hypothyroidism * SIADH
902
What are the causes of hypernatraemia?
Normovolaemia - excess IV crystalloids Hypovolaemia - Fluid loss (vomiting/diarrhoea, burns) - DIabetes insipidus - Osmototic diuresis (DKA) or hypoaldosteronism
903
Causes of pre-hepatic jaundice?
Physiological neonatal jaundice. - Haemolytic anaemia - hereditary spherocytosis - ineffective erythropoiesis
904
In which two types of jaundice is there dark urine colour?
Hepatic and post hepatic jaundice
905
Comment on each of these for Pre-hepatic jaundice; Colour of stool and urine. ALP levels AST/ALT level Bilirubin levels Conjugated bilirubin levels
Colour of urine and stool = Normal ALP = normal AST/ALT = normal Bilirubin = normal or inc Conjugated = normal
906
Comment on each of these for hepatic jaundice; Colour of stool and urine. ALP levels AST/ALT level Bilirubin levels Conjugated bilirubin levels Unconjugated bilirubin levels
Colour = **dark urine** but **normal stool colour** ALP = raised AST/ALT = raised Bilirubin = raised Conjugated = raised **Unconjugated bili = raised**
907
Comment on each of these for Post-hepatic jaundice; Colour of stool and urine. ALP levels AST/ALT level Bilirubin levels Conjugated bilirubin levels Unconjugated bilirubin levels
**Colour = dark urine and pale stools** ALP: raised ALT/AST: raised Bilirubin: raised Conjugated: raised **Unconjugated: normal**
908
Causes of hepatic jaundice?
- acute or chronic hepatitis - cirrhosis - primary biliary cirrhosis - alcoholic liver disease
909
Causes of extra hepatic jaundice?
- GALLSTONES in the bile duct - Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas - pancreatitis - parasites Shit ton of others
910
Triple therapy for H.pylori eradication?
2 abx + 1 PPI (amoxicillin and clarithromycin) + omeprazole
911
Iron def anaemia is more common in which of the IBD?
UC. Crohns disease = normocytic/normochromic anaemia of chronic disease
912
pANCA is positive in which of the IBD?
UC
913
Which IBD? Strictures? Superficial inflam? Crypt abscesses? Goblet cells? Cobblestone appearance? All GIT involved? Non caseating epithelioid cell aggregated with Langhan's giants cells? Granulomas? Tenesmus and urgency? Fistulas?
- CD - UC - UC - CD - CD - CD - CD - CD - UC - CD