All other topics Flashcards

1
Q

What is necessary for a diagnosis of insomnia?

A

Impaired daytime functioning due to difficulty initiating sleep, maintaining sleep, or inability to return to sleep when adequate time and opportunity for sleep is provided

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When is short term and long term insomnia separated?

A

Before or after ( 3x a week) 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What drug classes can be used to treat insomnia?

A
  • Benzos
  • Non-benzodiazepine hypnotics
  • Orexin receptor agonists
  • Antihistamines
  • Tricyclic antidepressants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are risks of use of BZDs and no-BZD hypnotics in insomnia?

A
  • Fetal malformation 1st trimester pregnancy
  • Alcohol consumption= excessive sedation
  • Renal or heaptic dz metabolic clearance
  • Pulmonary dz as they are respiratory suppressants
  • Nighttime decision makers as impair decision making abilities
  • 75+ adverse effects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How long should treatment last of insomnia with hypnotics?

A

6-8 weeks then taper off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are ADRs common to hypnotics?

A
  • residual daytime sedation
  • drowsiness
  • Cognitive/CNS impairment
  • Dependence
  • Respiratory depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the non-BZD hypnotic drugs?

A
  • Lunesta
  • Sonata
  • Ambien
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What non-BZD hypnotic has the longest 1/2 life?

A

Lunesta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What non-BZD is the only one available for long term use?

A

Lunesta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If taking other drugs that are CYP 3A4 inhibitors, what drug is recommended?

A

Sonata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

if a patient has a hard time falling asleep what drug based on 1/2 life is preferred?

A

Sonata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the Lunesta specific ADR?

A

Altered taste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What non-BZD hypnotic(s) are associated w/ next day impairment?

A

Lunesta and Ambien

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What drug is an Orexin receptor antagonist?

A

Suvorexant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is similar between Suxorexant and lunesta?

A
  • CS 4
  • Next day impairment
  • Prominent 3A4 substrate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is different about Suroxetant and Lunesta?

A

Mechanism of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What drug is a melatonin agonist?

A

Ramelteon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are important factors about Ramelteon?

A
  • Not a controlled substance

- Pt must take 30 minutes before sleep (assist with sleep onset)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What warnings/ caution are associated with Ramelteon?

A
  • Reproductive hormone disturbances
  • Depression
  • CNS depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What antidepressant can be used to treat insomnia?

A

Doxepin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What drugs can be used in restless leg syndrome if iron supplementation does not fix it?

A
  • Gabapentin/ Pregabalin

- Pramipexole/ Ropinirole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for narcolepsy?

A

Modafinil/ Armodafanil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Unless there is a C/I what approach is to be taken in helping patients quit smoking?

A

Behavioral and pharmalogical therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 5 A’s of tobacco use and smoking?

A
  • Ask motivation to quit
  • Advise most important factor for health now and in the future
  • Assess determine patient willingness to quit
  • Assist quit date, tell family, friends and coworkers to assist
  • Arrange office F/U w/in week of quit date
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the 6th A of tobacco use and smokign directed at pediatrics?
Anticipate, discuss avoidance early
26
What are the 3 pharm methods to quit smoking/ tobacco use?
- Nicotine replacement therapy - Chantix - Bupropion
27
What is the best approach to treat tobacco use by NRT?
Combo therapy: long term transdermal patch w/ short term formulation
28
What is dosing of NRT based on?
Number of cigarettes per day and timing of first cigarette
29
What is meant by chew and park?
NRT gum cannot be chewed continually otherwise GI upset, HA, hiccups, and mouth ulcers
30
What NRT product gives the best option to address behavior and sensory aspects?
Inhaler but can cause bronchospasm
31
What is different about Chantix vs. NRT therapy?
- Chantix start week before quitting | - NRT start use day of quitting
32
What safety issues may arise with the use of Chantix?
- Neuropsychiatric: Hostility, agaitation, SI - CV risk those w/ CV dz - Seizure risk - CNS depression
33
What is similar about Chantix and Burpropion?
- Start before quit date | - taken for 12 weeks
34
What type of drug is preferred to treat most psych illness patients that smoke? Which D/O is C/I this drug?
- Bupropion | - Bipolar D/O
35
What drug regiment is best indicated for hospitalized smoking pts?
NRT
36
What treatment should be used in pregnant pts?
NRT or Bupropion w/ behavioral therapy
37
What classification is alcohol?
CNS depressant
38
What occurs when there is abrupt cessation of alcohol use?
CNS overactivity; chronic ETOH exposure induces insensitivity to GABA
39
What are minor ETOH withdrawal sx?
- Tremor - Mild anxiety - HA - Insomnia - Palpitations
40
What are severe ETOH withdrawal symptoms?
- Withdrawal seizures - Withdrawal hallucinations - Delirium Tremens
41
When is the typical onset of withdrawal seizures?
12-48 hours after last drink
42
What is dangerous about withdrawal seizures?
1/3 lead to delirium tremens
43
When is the onset of alcoholic hallucinations and when do they resolve?
- Onset w/in 12-24 hours from last drink | - Resolve w/in 24-48 hours
44
What kind of hallucinations are most common during alcoholic hallucinosis?
Visual
45
How does alcoholic hallucinosis differ from delirium tremens?
In alcoholic hallucinosis VS are normal and there is no global clouding of sensorium
46
What signs/sx can be experienced in delirium tremens?
- Hallucinations - Disorientation - Tachycardia - HTN - Fever - Agitation - Diaphoresis - Cardiac abnormalities
47
What is the onset and duration for delirium tremens?
- Onset 48-96 hours from last drink | - Duration of up to 7 days
48
What are risk factors for delirium tremens?
- Hx sustained drinking - Hx prior DT - > 30 yo - Significant w/drawal in presence of elevated BAC - >Longer period (2days) last drink
49
What is the mortality risk associated w/ DTs?
5% mainly due to cardiac arrhythmia
50
What is hallmark sx control and supportive care?
- BZDs agitation and prevent progression - IV fluids - Nutritional supplementation - Frequent clinical reassessment
51
What is given to DT patients to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy?
- Thiamine | - Glucose
52
What BZDs are preferred for DT tx?
- Lorazepam or Diazepam | - In case of advanced cirrhosis Lorazepam or Oxazepam
53
When hospitalizing pts that have Hx of seizures, DT, or prologned heavy drinking tx prophylactically with what?
Chlordiazepoxide
54
What score from the clinical institute withdrawal assessment from alcohol-revised is consistent with no detoxification needed?
<8
55
What score from the clinical institute withdrawal assessment from alcohol-revised is consistent with ambulatory detoxification needed?
8-15
56
What score from the clinical institute withdrawal assessment from alcohol-revised is consistent with inpatient detoxification needed?
>15
57
What criteria must be met for a pt to undergo ambulatory detox?
- CIWA 8-15 no DT sx - Able to take PO meds - Reliable support monitor pt continuously 3-7 days - Commit to daily medical visits - No unstable medical or psychiatric conditions - Not pregnant - No concurrent other substance abuse - No hx DTs or ETOH-related seizures
58
What are alternatives to BZDs in ambulatory detox?
Anticonvulsants Carbamazepine and Valproate
59
What other type of tx do these ambulatory detox pts receive?
-multivitamin -Thiamine -Folate "banana bag"
60
What is required for alcohol tx?
Pts that are MOTIVATED to reduce alcohol consumption
61
What are the drugs for treating chronic ETOH?
Naltrexone, Antabuse, Campral
62
What are requirements of a patient using Naltrexone?
- Pt can not be taking opioids (MOA block mu receptor) | - C/I in acute heptatits or liver failure
63
What ADRs associated with Naltrexone use?
- Nausea - HA - Dizziness
64
What are options in Naltrexone use?
- Depot formulation (monthly) | - PO daily
65
What is advantageous about the use of Campral?
Safe for liver dysfunction pts
66
What are CIs for antabuse?
- Severe myocardial disease - Psychosis - Pregnant - Nursing mothers
67
How does Antabuse work?
Causes unpleasant physiologic reactions when alcohol is consumed
68
What type of immunity is vaccine?
Active (takes 2 weeks)
69
What vaccinations are Subcutaneous?
- MMR - Varicella - Zoster
70
What are rules for giving SubQ vaccination?
- Use tricep - 23-25 gauge, 5/8 needle - pinch up skin and insert 45 degree angle - Separate multi-injection >1 inch
71
What rules for giving IM injection?
- Use deltoid - Long needle 22-25 gauage and 1-1.5 inch wide - Insert needle 90 degrees - Separate multi-injection >1 inch
72
Should live viruses and immune globulins be administered on the same day?
No
73
What is required of a practitioner in regard to vaccines?
- Provide pt with vaccination information statement prior to vaccine - Report adverse events
74
What are examples of reportable events?
- Anaphylaxis shock w/in 7 days | - Encephalopathy, encephalitis, or seizures
75
What are the type of allergic reactions to vaccines?
- Immediate (w/in 1 hour IgE mediated) | - Delayed (several hours to days rarely IgE)
76
What specific drugs should be given to mothers prior to conception?
-Live attenuated (MMR & Varicella)
77
What drugs can be given to mothers during pregnancy?
Tdap and Influenza
78
When is Tdap/ Td recommended in adults?
- Tdap: once every pregnancy and one dose as an adult | - Td every 10 years
79
When is MMR given and how many times?
- 2 times | - 12 to 15 months & 4 to 6 years
80
When is varicella vaccination given?
Adults w/o evidence of immunity receive 2 doses
81
Herpes zoster immunization given?
Single dose 60+ regardless of whether prior episode
82
How many doses of HPV are given in males/females? Age ranges?
- 3 doses | - 11-26 yo
83
At what age are PPSV23 and PCV13 given?
1 dose each at 65+ or <65 w/ immunocompromising conditions including smoking!
84
How does alcohol progress through the brain?
Highest cortical structures to the lowest
85
What receptors does alcohol work on?
GABA-A Receptors (depressant)
86
What does rate of absorption change due to?
Food in the stomach
87
How much of alcohol is absorbed by the stomach? What organ absorbs the rest?
- 10% | - Small intestines
88
What short term effects does mairjuana cause?
- Distorted perception - Problems w/ memory or learning - Loss of coordination - Trouble w/ thinking and problem solving - Increased heart rate
89
What effects do marijuana cause on different organs?
- Lungs: similar to cigarettes burning and stinging of throat, mouth - Brain: Hallucinations, delusions, impaired memory, and disorientation - Heart: increased 20-50 BPM increasing risk of heart attack
90
What is cannaboid hyperemesis syndrome?
- Recurrent N/V - Colicky abdominal pain - Results from at least weekly use of marijuana
91
What effects do K2/ spice have?
- loss of control - decreased pain sensitivity - Agitation - Pale skin - Sweating - Spastic movements - Dysphoria - Paranoia
92
What major effects does K2/spice have?
- Similar sx withdrawls to heroin withdrawls - Worsen previously stable psychotic disorders - Trigger chronic psychosis - Cause myocardial infarction
93
What effects do opioids cause on different systems?
- PNS: reduce heart rate, BP, and respiration rate, constipation, dry mouth - CNS: Drowsiness, Euphoria, delirium, disorientation, analgesia - Withdrawl: sweating, anxiety, depression, crying, diarrhea, goose flesh, cramps, fever
94
What kind of effects do methamphetamine cause?
- Degeneration of dopamine terminals - Cognitive effects - Meth mouth (dental erosion)
95
What are consequences/ signs of meth abuse?
- Heart failure - Cardiac hypertrophy - Stroke - Kidney failure - Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations - Premature aging - Death from hyperthermia or dehydration
96
What effects on systems does cocaine cause?
- Systemic: increased HR, BP, vasoconstriction, and platelet aggregation - CNS: Euphoria, hyperactivity, increased alertness, decreased appetite - Withdrawal: Irritability, agitation, depression, insomnia, tremors, muscle pain, and drug cravings
97
What are long term effects of cocaine use?
- Decreased brain metabolism - Cognitive impairments - Heart attacks - Stroke - Psychosis - Oral and skin necrosis
98
How does ecstasy work?
It promotoes serotonin release and blocks the reuptake of serotonin
99
What signs/ sx does Ecstasy cause?
- Increased energy - Euphoria - Emotional warmth - Self acceptance
100
What are side effects of ecstasy?
- Jaw clenching - Long lasting confusion - Inability to regulate body temp - Kidney damage - Down regulation of serotonin receptors
101
What effect do salvia and bath salts have?
Both are hallucinogenic effects