All PMHP Flashcards

1
Q

definition of clinical governance

A

Clinical governance is the term used to describe a systematic approach to maintaining and improving the quality of patient care within a health system

“A framework through which NHS organisations are accountable for continuously improving the quality of their services and safeguarding high standards of care by creating an environment in which excellence in clinical care will flourish

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2
Q

name dimensions of quality healthcare (6)

A
person centred
efficient
effective
safe
equitable
timely
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3
Q

define dimensions of quality healthcare

A

Person-centred
Partnership between patient, families and those delivering healthcare which respects individual needs and values and demonstrates compassion, continuity, clear communication and shared decision-making

Safe
No avoidable injury or harm from healthcare received
Appropriate, clean and safe environment provided for delivery of healthcare services

Effective
Does the intervention work?
The most appropriate interventions, support and services provided to everyone

Efficient
Is the output (benefit) maximised for the given input (costs)?
Wasteful or harmful variation eradicated

Equitable
Are all patients fairly treated ?
Is the distribution of care based on need ?
High quality services provided to everyone, no matter who they are or where they live.

Timely
Appropriate treatment, support and services provided at the right time for everyone

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4
Q

factors contributing to adverse events

A

human factors such as teamwork, communication, stress and burnout;
structural factors such as reporting systems, infrastructure, workforce loads and the environment;
clinical factors such as complexity of care and length of stay.

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5
Q

components of clinical governance

A
Research and development
education and training
clinical audit
clinical effectiveness
openess
risk management
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6
Q

how can the dimensions of healthcare/clinical governance be implemented

A

Setting quality standards

Delivering quality standards

Monitoring quality standards

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7
Q

definition of a clinical guideline

aim

A

Systematically developed statements which assist in the decision-making about appropriate health care for specific clinical conditions”
-Aim
To improve the quality of healthcare

Clinical guidelines can:

provide recommendations for the treatment and care of individuals
be used to develop standards for clinical audit
be used in education & training of health professionals
help patients to make informed decisions
improve communication between patient and health professional

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8
Q

how much CPD should be carried out and how is this recorded/monitored

A

Mandatory CPD (2017 onwards):
Requirement: 100 hours verifiable CPD within 5-year cycle and at least 10 years verifiable every 2 years
Enhanced CPD scheme
Dentist to maintain own records
Verifiable = concise educational aims & obj / ILOs / quality controls (provide documentary evidence (certificate)
Checked by GDC
If requirements not met, can be taken off GDC register and not allowed back on until met all CPD requirements

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9
Q

name some formats of CPD

A
Courses and lectures 
Training days 
Peer Review 
Clinical Audit 
Reading journals 
Attending conferences 
E-learning activity
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10
Q

name some highly recommended CPD topics

A

a. Medical Emergencies: at least 10 hours in every CPD cycle – and we recommend that you do at least two hours of CPD in this every year;
b. Disinfection and Decontamination: we recommend that you do at least five hours in every CPD cycle; and
c. Radiography and radiation protection: we recommend that you do at least five hours in every CPD cycle. If you are a Dental Technician you can do CPD in materials and equipment instead of radiography and radiation protection: at least five hours in every CPD cycle.

We also recommend that you keep up to date by doing CPD (verifiable or general) in the following areas:
■ Legal and ethical issues
■ Complaints handling
■ Oral Cancer: Early detection
■ Safeguarding children and young people / safeguarding vulnerable adults

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11
Q

definition of clinical audit

A

Clinical audit is a process that has been defined as “a quality improvement process that seeks to improve patient care and outcomes through systematic review of care against explicit criteria and the implementation of change”.

The key component of clinical audit is that performance is reviewed (or audited) to ensure that what should be done is being done, and if not it provides a framework to enable improvements to be made.

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12
Q

clinical audit steps

A

Select topic
Set agreed standards & decide on data requirements
Observe practice and collect data
Analyse data and determine any deviation from standard
Identify any areas of change required
Make necessary changes
Repeat audit process and determine whether improvements have occurred

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13
Q

clinical audit cycle

A
  • identify problem/issue
  • set criteria and standard
  • observe practice/data collect
  • compare performance to criteria/standard
  • implement change
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14
Q

what is peer review

A

Peer review provides an opportunity for groups of dentists to get together to review aspects of practice.

The aim is to share experiences and identify areas in which changes can be made with the objective of improving the quality of care/service offered to patients, share learning and implement change

Has a structured process for setting up, conducting, and reporting

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15
Q

how is alcohol disributed in body
where is conc’ greatest and why
when is absorption quickest

A

distributed through body water
Concentration in liver is greater because blood
comes directly to it from the stomach and small
intestine via the portal vein
Very little alcohol enters body fat
Water soluble
¡ Slowly absorbed from the stomach
¡ More rapidly absorbed in small intestine
¡ Rate of absorption quicker on empty stomach at
concentration of 20-30% (sherry)
¡ Spirits (40%) delay gastric emptying and are absorbed
more slowly
¡ Aerated alcohol e.g. champagne gets into the system
more quickly
¡ Food retards absorption

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16
Q

where is alcohol metabolised

A

90% metabolised in liver
¡ 2-5% excreted in sweat, urine or
breath

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17
Q

what drugs increase/decrease gastric absorption of alcohol

A

Drugs like cimetidine will delay gastric emptying
and reduce absorption
Drugs like antihistamines have the opposite effect

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18
Q

when is peak blood alcohol conc’
how long does it take to reduce
what rate is it excreted at

A

Peaks 1 hour after drinking on empty stomach
Declines over next 4 hours
Removed at rate of 15mg/100ml/hr
Detectable levels still present for several hours
After 3 pints of beer blood alcohol will be detectable in the morning

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19
Q

how are heavy drinkers affected - metabolism

A

Normal metabolism increases
¡ Microsomal ethanol oxidising system comes into
play i.e. enzyme induction occurs, this system can
also be induced by drugs (gamma GT will be
increased in heavy drinkers)

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20
Q

how does intoxication affect a person

what is the current legal driving limit in the uk

A

Mild sedative
Mild anaesthetic
Stimulates dopamine and serotonin
Sense of wellbeing relaxation and dis-inhibition
50mg/100ml is current legal driving limit in the
UK

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21
Q

How is a person affect by ingesting
100mg/100ml
200mg/100ml
>400mg/ml

what can occur that causes consumption to become fatal

A
100mg/100ml people become elated and
aggressive
¡ 200mg/100ml slurred speech and unsteadiness
¡ >400mg/100ml commonly fatal
§ atrial fibrillation
§ respiratory failure
§ inhalation of vomit
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22
Q

safe daily alcohol limits for:
men
women
pregnant women

A
Men- no more than 2-3 units per day spread
over more than 3 days(14 units per week)
Women- no more than 2-3 units per day
spread over more than 3 days (14 units per
week)
Pregnant women-no alcohol during
pregnancy. Can also cause problems with
conception
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23
Q

medical issues associated with heavy drinking

A
GI tract
§ Acute gastritis
§ Liver problems
§ GI bleeding
§ Oral, oesophageal, stomach, bowel
cancer
§ Pancreatic disease
§ Obesity and
malnutrition
§ Vitamin deficiencyfolic acid, Vits B1, B2,
B6, E, B1 and D 
Heart
§ Cardiomyopathy
§ Cardiac arrhythmias
§ Hypertension
§ Increased triglycerides and LDL cholesterol
Traumatic injuries
¡ Skin, muscles, nerves
and bones
§ Acute or chronic
myopathy
§ Osteoporosis
§ Osteomalacia
¡ Blood
§ Macrocytosis
§ Thrombocytopenia
§ Leucopoenia
¡ Chest
¡ Gynaecological
problems
¡ Obstetric problems
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24
Q

medical conditions with a dental effect in association with chronic alcohol consumption

A
Bleeding
¡ Poor wound healing
¡ Drugs
§ Drug metabolism
§ Drug interactions
§ Non-compliance
§ Interactions with illicit
drugs
¡ Patients with Hepatitis C
¡ Hormones and metabolism
§ Pseudo-Cushing's
syndrome
¡ Immune system
¡ Mental health
¡ Nervous system
§ Epilepsy
§ Wernicke-Korsakoff
syndrome
§ Cerbral atrophy
¡ Renal
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25
Q

oral issues with chronic alcohol consumption

A
Salivary gland
enlargement-sialosis
¡ Xerostomia
¡ Poor wound healing and
osteomyelitis
§ Suppression of immune
system by alcohol
§ Dental erosion-
§ Bruxism
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26
Q

liver issues in realtion to dentistry

A
Reduced synthesis of clotting factors in damaged
liver
Combined with reduced absoption of Vitamin K
 II, VII, IX, X
Thrombocytopenia due to splenomegaly
associated with portal hypertension
Megakaryocyte maturation is also reduced also
leading to fewer platelets
Platelet aggregation is reduced
Both will lead to prolonged bleeding 
Drug metabolism
In patients without liver damage
Heavy drinking induces liver enzymes
This may increase the metabolism of some drugs
More rapid destruction
Reduced plasma concentration
Lack of effects
In patients with liver damage
Reduced drug metabolism
LA, analgesia, sedatives and antibiotics
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27
Q

how can alcohol interact with drugs

-why is paracetemol contraindicated with alcohol

A

Alcohol will interact with drugs producing a sedative effect on the nervous system and increase or prolong the effect
-In heavy drinkers paracetemol can be converted to anintermediate metabolite which is very hepatotoxic

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28
Q

why should patient with hepatitis c abstain from alcohol

A

25% patients with hepatitis C will develop cirrhosis
¡ Alcohol in any amount leads to more rapid
development of severe liver disease
¡ Patients with hepatitis C should abstain from alcohol
completely

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29
Q

alcoholics are generally malnourished, explain some of their nutritional deficits

A
Alcoholics are generally malnourished
§ General neglect
§ Substitution of food with alcohol
§ Deficiencies of
▪ Thiamine-beriberi,Wernicke’s
encephalopathy
▪ Folic acid-macrocytosis
▪ Vitamin C-scurvy
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30
Q

what kinds of cardiac issues can alcohol cause

A
Cardiomyopathy
¡ Cardiac arrhythmias
¡ Hypertension
¡ Stroke
¡ Protective effects
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31
Q

what is cardiomyopathy

A

Degenerative heart disease with no
coronary artery disease-various aetiologies
¡ Well-established complication of chronic
alcohol abuse
¡ Most cases asymptomatic
¡ Can lead to arrhythmias, cardiomegaly and
congestive heart failure (dyspnea and
peripheral oedema)

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32
Q

name some cardiac arrythmias

A
ECG changes can be marked
§ Atrial fibrillation
§ Prolonged Q-T interval
§ Inverted T waves
§ Heart block
§ Ventricular arrhythmias
¡ ‘Holiday heart syndrome’ and sudden death
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33
Q

how can chronic drinkers be affected by hypertension

  • how much a day can > risk
  • cessation of alcohol intake takes how long to reduce risk
A

Chronic intake of 30 g/day or more alcohol
¡ Hypertension reverses within 2 to 3 weeks of
cessation of alcohol intake even in heavy
drinkers

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34
Q

how can alcohol contribute to oral cancer

A

Ethanol metabolite acetaldehyde promotes
tobacco initiated tumours
§ Damages DNA and alters oncogene production
§ Alcohol facilitates absorption of carcinogenic
substances across the oral mucosa
§ Partly due to thinning of oral mucosa due to
nutritional deficiency

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35
Q

how can alcohol cause NCTSL

A
Alcohol is very acidic
¡ Gastro oesophageal
reflux disease (GORD)-
acid in alcohol directly
relaxes the oesophageal
sphincter
¡ Vomiting
¡ Multifactorial-bruxism
¡ Restoration difficult until
problem controlled
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36
Q

what is one unit of alcohol

A
One unit
§ One standard measure of spirits (pub
measure)
§ One standard 125ml glass of wine
§ Half pint of beer/lager
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37
Q

what is the definition of screening

A

The purpose of screening is to identify
people who need more comprehensive
assessment for substance misuse disorders. It
does so by uncovering indicators of serious
substance-related problems among
adolescent. As such, it covers the general
areas in a client’s life that pertain to
substance use without making an involved
diagnosis or assessment.

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38
Q

what is the CAGE intervention method for alcohol screening

A

Have you ever felt you ought to Cut down on your
drinking?
¡ Do you get Annoyed at criticism of your drinking?
¡ Do you every feel Guilty about your drinking?
¡ Do you ever take an Early morning drink first thing in
the morning to get the day started or eliminate the
shakes?
Yes’, ‘sometimes’ or ‘often’ to 2 or more questions
may indicate an alcohol problem

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39
Q

name some alcohol screening tools

A

CAGE
FAST
AUDIT

40
Q

How does AUDIT score a patient

A

Scores for each question are beside each response
¡ Minimum score is 0 for non-drinkers with a maximum score
of 40
¡ =/> 8 indicates strong likelihood of hazardous alcohol
consumption
¡ =/> 13 women
=/> 15 men indicates harmful alcohol consumption
¡ =/> 20 indicates possible alcohol dependence

41
Q

definne

  • hazardous
  • harmful
  • depedant drinking
A

Hazardous drinking-at risk
of developing problems due to alcohol

Harmful drinking problems due to alcohol
are evident

Dependent drinkingdisplays symptoms of
dependence on
alcohol

42
Q

what are the stages of change

A

Precontemplation What problem? There’s no need to
change. My friends drink more than me.

Contemplation I hear what you are saying. I know it is
bad for me, but I enjoy drinking.

Preparation I am going to cut down after new year/
next week.

Action I have cut down my drinking.

Maintenance I‘ve only been drinking once a week for
the last 6 months. For the last 6 months
I’ve only drank 2-3 drinks per night.

43
Q

what are brief motivational interviews

A

Behaviour change style of counselling
¡ Typically an interaction lasting between 5 and 20 minutes
¡ Suitable as an opportunistic intervention for patients whose
main reason for contact is not their drinking behaviour i.e.
dental patients
¡ Pioneered by Miller and Rollnick who see BMI as not a
technique, but as way of being with people
¡ Patient encouraged to recognise ambivalence between their
actual and ideal behaviour and that the responsibility of
change rests with them

44
Q

What is the frames style of motivational interview

A

¡ FRAMES style
§ Feedback
§ Responsibility
§ Advice
§ Menu of options
§ Empathic
§ Self-efficacy
Feedback is given to patient about behaviour
¡ Responsibility for change is placed on the patient
¡ Advice to change is given by practitioner
¡ Menu of self-directed change options/treatment is offered
¡ Empathic style using warmth, respect and understanding
¡ Self-efficacy is engendered to encourage change

45
Q

fluoridation optimum in water

A

1ppm (1mg/l)

46
Q

fluoride delivery methods

A

-varnish - 22600ppm, >2yr, 2-4x year
-fluoride mw 225ppm, >7yr
- fluoride supplement
>6yr, 1mg F/day
3-6yr - 0.5mg/day
6mth-3yr - 0.25mg/day
0-6mg, 0mg/day

47
Q

toothpaste strength for ages

A
first tooth-3yr - 1000ppm
4-16yr - 1000-1500ppm (standard risk)
<10yr - 1500ppm
>10yr - 2800ppm
>16yr - 5000ppm
48
Q

protected characteristics under equality act

A

age/diability/race/religion/sex/sexual orientation/marriage or civil partnership

49
Q

primary definition of inequalities eg. socio economic

A

education/income/occupational social class/housing/area based measures

50
Q

what is SIMD, what does it depend on

A

Scottish Index of Multiple Deprivation

education, employment, income, crime, geographic access to services, housing

51
Q

what is the inverse care law

A

availability of good medical care tends to vary inversely with need for it

52
Q

social determinants of OH (4)

A
  1. economic and environmental - poverty/housing
  2. social and community context - religion/social norm
  3. oral health related behaviour - smoking/diet/alcohol
    4 individual - sex/age/genetics
53
Q

name an example of:
upstream policy
midstream policy
downstream policy

A
  • upstream: smoking ban in public places
  • midstream: community development/dental health support workers
  • downstream- smoking cessation serviced
54
Q

adverse childhood events, examples

  • abuse
  • neglect
  • household dysfuntion
A
  • abuse - physical/emotional/sexual
  • neglect - physical/emotional
  • HD - mental illness/substance abuse/divorce
55
Q

signs of domestic abuse

A
repeated injuries
bruises at various healing stages
facial bruising 
TMJ issue
unlikely explanation for injury
partner speaking on behalf/strange relationship
insist on female clinician
contact partner during appt
56
Q

How to enquire about abuse (pneumonic)

A

Ask - private setting
Validate - show concern
Document - specific and detailed
Refer (signpost)

57
Q

oral cancer aetiology

A
smoking
alcohol
HPV
sunlight
pre-existing mucosal abnormalities
58
Q

Examples of nicotine replacement therapy (NRT)

A

Champix

Zyban

59
Q

2 examples of brief advice for smoking cessation

A
  • 5A’s - ask, advise, assess, assist, arrange follow up

- 2A’s & R - Ask, Advise and Refer

60
Q

where to refer smokers for cessation

A

smokeline
NHS GGC Smoke free
Pharmacy
Specialist

61
Q

smoking effect on mouth

A

staining/smoker’s palate/greater risk of perio or tooth loss/delayed healing/halitosis/oral cancer risk/black heairy tingue

62
Q
benefits of stopping 
20 min
8hrs
24hr
2-12week
1yr
A

20 mins - BP/HR return to normal
8hr - o2 levels return to normal
24hr - nicotine gone, taste and smell return
2-12 week - greater circulation
1yr - chance of heart attack reduced by 1/2

63
Q

9 GDC standards

A
  1. Put patient’s interests first
    2 Communicate effectively with patients
    3.Obtain valid consent
  2. Maintain and protect patient information
    5 Have a clear and effective patient complaint system
  3. work with colleagues in a way that is in patients’ best interests
  4. maintain, develop and work within your professional knowledge and skills
  5. raise concern if patients at risk
  6. make sure personalbehaviour maintains patients in you and profession
64
Q

2 conditions for consent

A

valid and legal

65
Q

3 components of VALID consent

A
  • Specific for dental procedure
  • remains current (patient still agrees)
  • was obtained recently enough
66
Q

3 components of LEGAL consent

A

=Ability - The patient has the ability to make an informed decision

=Informed - The patient has enough information to make a decision

=Voluntary - The patient has made the decision

67
Q

6 main components of consent

A
  • voluntary
  • with capacity
  • not coerced
  • not manipulated
  • informed
  • valid
68
Q

5 components of capacity

A
  • to act
  • to communicate
  • to retain
  • to make a reasoned decision
  • to understand decision
69
Q

what are the ages of presumed consetn in Scotland and england/wales

A

There is a presumption of capacity in all patients from age 16 unless they are assessed otherwise
Parental responsibility ends at age 16 (in Scotland) or age 18 (in England & Wales

70
Q

who has parental responsibility

A

When an adult is giving consent for a child’s treatment, you must be satisfied that the person has parental responsibility:
Mum — this is automatic
Dad — must be married to mum or named on birth certificate after 4 May 2006 (Scotland), 15 Apr 2002 (N.I.), 1 Dec 2003 (E&W)
Others, including step-parents — requires court authority, parental responsibility agreement, or adoption; similarly foster parents

71
Q

what should a patient know before making a decision about a treatment

A
  • benefits/risks of treatment
  • consequences of not having treatment
  • other options
  • cos
  • likely prognosis
  • how long it’s guarenteed for
  • recommended option
  • reminder that patient can change mind at any time
72
Q

what is a material risk

A

Material risks are where:

A reasonable person, if warned of the risks, would be likely to attach significance to these

73
Q

-24 people skiing, 6 fall
what’s the risk of falling
-whats the formula for risk

A

6/24 = 25% risk of falling

no. of events of interest/total no. of events

74
Q

-24 people skiing, 6 fall
what’s the odds of falling
-what’s the formula for odds

A

6/18 = 0.33
chance of falling = 3 against 1
-no. of events of interest/no. without event

75
Q
How to calculate absolute risk difference for pain relief
eg. 
-no pain relief 
paracetemol - 23 / placebo -22
-pain relief
paracetemol -40 / placebo -5
-total
paracetemol - 63 / placebo - 27

-what is the value of no difference in absolute risk difference

A

Absolute risk difference - difference of risk between groups

-pain relief 40/63 =63% / 5/27=18%
63-18 = 45%

-ARD value of no difference = 0%
means no benefit of paracetemol over placebo

76
Q

what is number needed to treat

-how is this calculated

A

the number of patients needed to treated in order to produce 1 desired effect

77
Q

When would a confidence interval show insufficient evidence of difference

A

when the confidence interval straddles the value of no difference

78
Q

how to calculate the odds ration
eg
-paracetemol 40 success, 23 no success
-placebo 5 success, 22 no success

-what the value of no difference for this

A

success/non success then divide the 2 results by the desired investigation
40/23=1.74
5/22=0.23

  • 1.74/0.23 = 7.56
  • value of no difference = 1
79
Q

study types

order of evidence levels

A
  1. systematic review/meta analysis
  2. RCT
  3. Cohort study
  4. Case-control study
  5. Cross sectional study
  6. Case series/report
80
Q

what is a case report/study

  • what does it identify
  • disadvantages
A

reports on single/series of patients

  • identify disease outcome/hypotheses generation
  • dis - lack of control group
81
Q

what is a cross sectional study

  • what does it identify
  • disadvantage
A

observe defined populationat single point in time/interval
-exposure/outsome identified so can identify prevalence of disease/risk factors

dis - recall bias

82
Q

what is a case control study

  • what does it dentify
  • dis
A

people with a disease vs a control group, exposure to risk factors
-cause of a disease

dis - time relationship/recall bias

83
Q

what is a cohort study

  • what does it identify
  • dis
A

establish a group, measure exposures and follow up throughout disease
-incidence if disease and prognosis

-dis - blinding difficult/control difficult to identify

84
Q

4 important elements to an RCT

A

blinding
randomisation
control
specification of participants

85
Q

what are the elements of PICO

A

Population
Intevention
Comparison
Outcome

86
Q

ADV and DIS of a split mouth study

A

ADV - patricipant acts as own control/requires less people

DIS - carry across effect /selsct patient with bilsteral caries/need greater sophistication of statistical analysis

87
Q

Describe the 5 step process to conducting a Systematic Review

A
  1. well formulated question
  2. comprehensive data search
  3. unbiased selection/abstraction process
  4. assessment of papers
  5. synthesis of data
88
Q

explanation of a well formulated q

A

USE PICO!!

89
Q

explain comprehensive data search

A

You want to find ALL the relevant papers/data- published and unpublished that deal with the PICO
• Avoid cherry picking (examples in lecture)
• Lots of different databases.
• Some databases more comprehensive than others/but none singularly definitive
• All languages (why?)
• Hand searching
• Unpublished-why?
• Use a Trials Search Coordinator

90
Q

explain unbiased selection/abstraction process

-what criteria are included

A

Called the “screening” phase. Where all papers identified by the detailed search are screened for relevance/inclusion.
PICO is used.
Inclusion and Exclusion criteria are predefined (in protocol) and agreed on.
Data extraction form produced and piloted.
Screeners (at least 2) will calibrate. Disagreements will be discussed with third party.
Clear reasons given for Including or Excluding a study.
PRISMA Flow diagram

91
Q

explain assessment of papers (risk of bias)

-hosw is this worked out

A

Cochrane formalises this process using a Risk of Bias tool that allows us to assess RoB for each included study-and provides a visual tool to assess the overall RoB of the included studies.
- Should be done in duplicate (at least) with disagreements discussed with a third party.

92
Q

what do they weights in a meta analysis account for (3)

A
  • number if study participants
  • number of events
  • standard deviation ofof outcome measures
93
Q

what is the I squared value

A

the level of statistical heterogeneity

94
Q

SICPs

A
  1. Patient placement
  2. Hand hygiene
  3. Cough and reap hygiene
  4. PPE
  5. Safe management of care environment
  6. Safe management of care equipment
  7. Safe management of linen
  8. Safe management of waste
  9. Safe management of blood and bodily fluid spillage
  10. Occupational and sharps management
95
Q

GDC standards (9)

A
  • Put patient 1st
  • effective communication with patient
  • obtain valid consent
  • maintain and protect patient info
  • have effective and clear complaints procedure
  • work with colleagues to work for what’s best for patient
  • maintain/develop/work within skills and knowledge
  • raise concern if patients is at risk
  • ensure personal behaviour maintains patients confidence in you and profession