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Urinalysis and Body Fluids > All Questions > Flashcards

All Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which statement regarding renal function is true?

A. Glomeruli are far more permeable to H2O and salt than other capillaries
B. The collecting tubule reabsorbs sodium and secretes potassium in response to antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
C. The collecting tubule is permeable to H2O only in the presence of aldosterone
D. The thick ascending limb is highly permeable to H2O and urea

A

A. Glomeruli are far more permeable to H2O and salt than other capillaries

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2
Q

Which statement regarding normal salt and H2O handling by the nephron is correct?

A. The ascending limb of the tubule is highly permeable to salt but not H2O
B. The stimulus for ADH release is low arterial pressure in the afferent arteriole
C. The descending limb of the tubule is impermeable to urea but highly permeable to salt
D. Renin is released in response to high plasma osmolality

A

A. The ascending limb of the tubule is highly permeable to salt but not H2O

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3
Q

Which statement concerning renal tubular
function is true?

A. In salt deprivation, the kidneys will conserve sodium at the expense of potassium
B. Potassium is not excreted when serum
concentration is below 3.5 mmol/L
C. No substance can be excreted into urine at a rate that exceeds the glomerular filtration rate
D. When tubular function is lost, the specific gravity of urine will be below 1.005

A

A. In salt deprivation, the kidneys will conserve sodium at the expense of potassium

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4
Q

Which of the following is inappropriate when collecting urine for routine bacteriologic culture?

A. The container must be sterile
B. The midstream void technique must be used
C. The collected sample must be plated within 2 hours unless refrigerated
D. The sample may be held at 2°C-8°C for up to 48 hours prior to plating

A

D. The sample may be held at 2°C-8°C for up to 48 hours prior to plating

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5
Q

Which statement about sample collection for routine urinalysis is true?

A. Preservative tablets should be used for collecting random urine specimens
B. Containers may be washed and reused if rinsed in deionized H2O
C. Samples may be stored at room temperature for up to 2 hours
D. First morning voided samples are not acceptable when renal disease is suspected

A

C. Samples may be stored at room temperature for up to 2 hours

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6
Q

Which urine color is correlated correctly with the pigment-producing substance?

A. Smoky red urine with homogentisic acid
B. Dark amber urine with myoglobin
C. Deep yellow urine and yellow foam with
bilirubin
D. Red-brown urine with biliverdin

A

C. Deep yellow urine and yellow foam with
bilirubin

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7
Q

Which of the following substances will cause urine to produce red fluorescence when examined with an ultraviolet lamp (360 nm)?

A. Myoglobin
B. Porphobilinogen (PBG)
C. Urobilin
D. Coproporphyrin

A

D. Coproporphyrin

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8
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with normal urine color but produces red fluorescence when urine is examined with an ultraviolet (Wood’s) lamp?

A. Acute intermittent porphyria
B. Lead poisoning
C. Erythropoietic porphyria
D. Porphyria cutanea tarda

A

B. Lead poisoning

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9
Q

Which statement regarding porphyria is accurate?

A. Porphyria is exclusively inherited
B. All types cause an increase in urinary porphyrins
C. All types are associated with anemia
D. Serum, urine, and fecal tests may be needed for diagnosis

A

D. Serum, urine, and fecal tests may be needed for diagnosis

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10
Q

Which is the most common form of porphyria?

A. Erythropoietic porphyria
B. Acute intermittent porphyria
C. Variegate porphyria
D. Porphyria cutanea tarda

A

D. Porphyria cutanea tarda

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11
Q

Which of the following methods is the least
sensitive and specific for measuring PBG in urine?

A. Watson-Schwartz test
B. LC-MS
C. Ion exchange chromatography-Ehrlich’s reaction
D. Isotope dilution-MS

A

A. Watson-Schwartz test

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12
Q

A brown or black pigment in urine can be
caused by:

A. Gantrisin (Pyridium)
B. Phenolsulfonphthalein
C. Rifampin
D. Melanin

A

D. Melanin

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13
Q

Urine that is dark red or port wine in color may be caused by:

A. Lead poisoning
B. Porphyria cutanea tarda
C. Alkaptonuria
D. Hemolytic anemia

A

B. Porphyria cutanea tarda

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14
Q

Which of the following tests is affected least by standing or improperly stored urine?

A. Glucose
B. Protein
C. pH
D. Bilirubin

A

B. Protein

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15
Q

Which type of urine sample is needed for a
D-xylose absorption test on an adult patient?

A. 24-hour urine sample collected with 20 mL of 6 N HCl
B. 2-hour timed postprandial urine preserved with boric acid
C. 5-hour timed urine kept under refrigeration
D. Random urine preserved with formalin

A

C. 5-hour timed urine kept under refrigeration

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16
Q

Which of the following is inappropriate
when collecting a 24-hour urine sample for
catecholamines?

A. Urine in the bladder is voided and discarded at the start of the test
B. At 24 hours, any urine in the bladder is voided and added to the collection
C. All urine should be collected in a single container that is kept refrigerated
D. Ten mL of 1N sodium hydroxide should be added to the container before collection

A

D. Ten mL of 1N sodium hydroxide should be added to the container before collection

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17
Q

Urine production of less than 400 mL/day is:

A. Consistent with normal renal function and H2O balance
B. Termed isosthenuria
C. Defined as oliguria
D. Associated with diabetes mellitus

A

C. Defined as oliguria

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18
Q

Which of the following contributes to SG, but not to osmolality?

A. Protein
B. Salt
C. Urea
D. Glucose

A

A. Protein

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19
Q

Urine with an SG consistently between 1.002 and 1.003 indicates:

A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Renal tubular failure
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. Addison’s disease

A

C. Diabetes insipidus

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20
Q

In which of the following conditions is the urine SG likely to be below 1.025?

A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Drug overdose
C. Chronic renal failure
D. Prerenal failure

A

C. Chronic renal failure

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21
Q

Which statement regarding methods for
measuring SG is true?

A. To correct a urinometer, subtract 0.001 per each 3°C below 15.5°C
B. Colorimetric SG tests are falsely elevated when a large quantity of glucose is present
C. Colorimetric SG readings are falsely elevated when pH is alkaline
D. Refractometry should be performed before the
urine is centrifuged

A

A. To correct a urinometer, subtract 0.001 per each 3°C below 15.5°C

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22
Q

What is the principle of the colorimetric reagent strip determination of SG in urine?

A. Ionic strength alters the pKa of a polyelectrolyte
B. Sodium and other cations are chelated by a ligand that changes color
C. Anions displace a pH indicator from a mordant, making it water soluble
D. Ionized solutes catalyze oxidation of an azo dye

A

A. Ionic strength alters the pKa of a polyelectrolyte

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23
Q

Which statement regarding urine pH is true?

A. High-protein diets promote an alkaline urine pH
B. pH tends to decrease as urine is stored
C. Contamination should be suspected if urine pH is less than 4.5
D. Bacteriuria is most often associated with a low urine pH

A

C. Contamination should be suspected if urine pH is less than 4.5

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24
Q

In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is:

A. Consistently acid
B. Consistently alkaline
C. Neutral
D. Variable, depending upon diet

A

B. Consistently alkaline

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25
Q

The normal daily urine output for an adult is approximately:

A. 0.2-0.5 L
B. 0.6-1.6 L
C. 2.7-3.0 L
D. 3.2-3.5 L

A

B. 0.6-1.6 L

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26
Q

The SG of the filtrate in Bowman’s space is
approximately:

A. 1.000-1.002
B. 1.004-1.006
C. 1.008-1.010
D. 1.012-1.014

A

C. 1.008-1.010

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27
Q

A patient with partially compensated respiratory alkalosis would have a urine pH of:

A. 4.5-5.5
B. 5.5-6.5
C. 6.5-7.5
D. 7.5-8.5

A

D. 7.5-8.5

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28
Q

Which of the following is most likely to cause a false-positive dry reagent strip test for urinary protein?

A. Urine of high SG
B. Highly buffered alkaline urine
C. Bence-Jones protein
D. Salicylates

A

B. Highly buffered alkaline urine

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29
Q

When testing for urinary protein with
sulfosalicylic acid (SSA), which condition
may produce a false-positive result?

A. Highly buffered alkaline urine
B. The presence of x-ray contrast media
C. Increased urinary SG
D. The presence of red blood cells (RBCs)

A

B. The presence of x-ray contrast media

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30
Q

A discrepancy between the urine SG determined by measuring refractive index and urine osmolality would be most likely to occur:

A. After catheterization of the urinary tract
B. In diabetes mellitus
C. After an intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
D. In uremia

A

C. After an intravenous pyelogram (IVP)

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31
Q

Which of the following is likely to result in a
false-negative dry reagent strip test for
proteinuria?

A. Penicillin
B. Aspirin
C. Amorphous phosphates
D. Bence-Jones protein

A

D. Bence-Jones protein

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32
Q

Daily loss of protein in urine normally does not exceed:

A. 30 mg
B. 50 mg
C. 100 mg
D. 150 mg

A

D. 150 mg

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33
Q

Which of the following is least likely to cause a false-positive result with turbidimetric protein tests?

A. Tolbutamide
B. X-ray contrast media
C. Penicillin or sulfa antibiotics
D. Ascorbic acid

A

D. Ascorbic acid

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34
Q

Which statement best describes the clinical utility of tests for microalbuminuria?

A. Testing may detect early renal involvement in diabetes mellitus
B. Microalbuminuria refers to a specific subfraction of albumin found only in persons with diabetic nephropathy
C. A positive test result indicates the presence of orthostatic albuminuria
D. Testing should be part of the routine urinalysis

A

A. Testing may detect early renal involvement in diabetes mellitus

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35
Q

Dry reagent strip tests for microalbuminuria that compare albumin to creatinine determine the creatinine concentration based upon which
principle?
A. Formation of a Cu+2-creatinine complex
B. Enzymatic assay using sarcosine oxidase and peroxidase
C. Reaction of creatinine with alkaline sodium picrate
D. Change in pH as creatinine is converted to creatine

A

A. Formation of a Cu+2-creatinine complex

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36
Q

Which of the following conditions is least likely to be detected by dry reagent strip tests for proteinuria?

A. Orthostatic albuminuria
B. Chronic renal failure
C. Pyelonephritis
D. Renal tubular proteinuria

A

D. Renal tubular proteinuria

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37
Q

The normal renal threshold for glucose is:

A. 70-85 mg/dL
B. 100-115 mg/dL
C. 130-145 mg/dL
D. 165-180 mg/dL

A

D. 165-180 mg/dL

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38
Q

In which of the following conditions is glycosuria most likely?

A. Addison’s disease
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Pregnancy
D. Hypopituitarism

A

C. Pregnancy

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39
Q

In addition to ascorbate, the glucose oxidase reaction may be inhibited by which substance?

A. Acetoacetic acid (AAA)
B. ε-Aminocaproic acid
C. Creatinine
D. Azopyridium

A

A. Acetoacetic acid (AAA)

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40
Q

A positive glucose oxidase test and a negative test for reducing sugars indicates:

A. True glycosuria
B. False-positive reagent strip test
C. False-negative reducing test caused by ascorbate
D. Galactosuria

A

A. True glycosuria

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41
Q

A negative glucose oxidase test and a positive test for reducing sugars in urine indicates:

A. True glycosuria
B. A false-negative glucose oxidase reaction
C. The presence of a nonglucose reducing sugar such as galactose
D. A trace quantity of glucose

A

C. The presence of a nonglucose reducing sugar such as galactose

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42
Q

In what condition may urinary ketone tests
underestimate ketosis?

A. Acidosis
B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Renal failure
D. Excessive use of vitamin C

A

A. Acidosis

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43
Q

AAA is detected in urine by reaction with:

A. Sodium nitroprusside
B. o-Toluidine
C. m-Dinitrobenzene
D. m-Dinitrophenylhydrazine

A

A. Sodium nitroprusside

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44
Q

Nondiabetic ketonuria can occur in all of the following except:

A. Pregnancy
B. Renal failure
C. Starvation
D. Lactate acidosis

A

B. Renal failure

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45
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the classical nitroprusside reaction for ketones is true?

A. The reaction is most sensitive to acetone
B. Nitroprusside reacts with acetone, AAA, and β-hydroxybutyric acid
C. It may be falsely positive in phenylketonuria
D. The reaction is recommended for diagnosing ketoacidosis

A

C. It may be falsely positive in phenylketonuria

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46
Q

Hemoglobin in urine can be differentiated from myoglobin using:

A. 80% ammonium sulfate to precipitate
hemoglobin
B. Sodium dithionite to reduce hemoglobin
C. o-Dianisidine instead of benzidine as the color indicator
D. The dry reagent strip blood test

A

A. 80% ammonium sulfate to precipitate
hemoglobin

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47
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with a negative blood test and an increase in urine urobilinogen?

A. Calculi of the kidney or bladder
B. Malignancy of the kidney or urinary system
C. Crush injury
D. Extravascular hemolytic anemia

A

D. Extravascular hemolytic anemia

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48
Q

Which statement about the dry reagent strip blood test is true?

A. The test is based on the reaction of hemoglobin with peroxidase
B. Abnormal color may be absent from the urine when the reaction is positive
C. A nonhemolyzed trace is present when there are 1-2 RBCs per high-power field
D. Salicylates cause a false-positive reaction

A

B. Abnormal color may be absent from the urine when the reaction is positive

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49
Q

A moderate-positive blood test and trace protein test are seen on the dry reagent strip, and 11-20 red blood cells per high-power field are seen in the microscopic exam. These results are most likely caused by which of the following?

A. Transfusion reaction
B. Myoglobinuria
C. Intravascular hemolytic anemia
D. Recent urinary tract catheterization

A

D. Recent urinary tract catheterization

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50
Q

Which of the following results are discrepant?

A. Small amount of blood but negative protein
B. Moderate amount of blood but no RBCs in microscopic exam
C. Negative blood but 6-10 RBCs/high-power field (HPF)
D. Negative blood, positive protein

A

C. Negative blood but 6-10 RBCs/high-power
field (HPF)

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51
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the dry reagent strip test for bilirubin is true?

A. A positive test is seen in prehepatic, hepatic, and posthepatic jaundice
B. The test detects only conjugated bilirubin
C. Standing urine may become falsely positive due to bacterial contamination
D. High levels of ascorbate will cause positive interference

A

B. The test detects only conjugated bilirubin

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52
Q

Which of the following reagents is used to detect urobilinogen in urine?

A. p-Dinitrobenzene
B. p-Aminosalicylate
C. p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
D. p-Dichloroaniline

A

C. p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

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53
Q

Which of the following statements regarding urinary urobilinogen is true?

A. Diurnal variation occurs with highest levels seen in the early morning
B. High levels occurring with a positive bilirubin test indicate obstructive jaundice
C. Dry reagent strip tests do not detect decreased levels
D. False-positive results may occur if urine is stored for more than 2 hours

A

C. Dry reagent strip tests do not detect decreased levels

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54
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the test for nitrite in urine is true?

A. It detects more than 95% of clinically significant bacteriuria
B. Formation of nitrite is unaffected by the
urine pH
C. The test is dependent upon an adequate dietary nitrate content
D. A positive test differentiates bacteriuria from in vitro bacterial contamination

A

C. The test is dependent upon an adequate dietary nitrate content

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55
Q

Which statement about the dry reagent strip test for leukocytes is true?

A. The test detects only intact white blood
cells (WBCs)
B. The reaction is based upon the hydrolysis of substrate by WBC esterases
C. Several antibiotics may give a false-positive reaction
D. The test is sensitive to 2-3 WBCs per HPF

A

B. The reaction is based upon the hydrolysis of substrate by WBC esterases

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56
Q

Which of the following statements about
creatinine clearance is correct?

A. Dietary restrictions are required during the 24 hours preceding the test
B. Fluid intake must be restricted to below 600 mL in the 6 hours preceding the test
C. Creatinine clearance is mainly determined by renal tubular function
D. Creatinine clearance is dependent upon lean body mass

A

D. Creatinine clearance is dependent upon lean body mass

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57
Q

A male patient’s eGFR is 75 mL/min. This
indicates:

A. Normal glomerular filtration rate
B. The patient is uremic and will be hyperkalemic
C. Renal tubular dysfunction
D. Reduced glomerular filtration without uremia

A

D. Reduced glomerular filtration without uremia

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58
Q

Which of the following tests is a specific measure of glomerular filtration?

A. p-Aminohippuric acid (PAH) clearance
B. Fishberg concentration test
C. Mosenthal dilution test
D. Cystatin C

A

D. Cystatin C

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59
Q

Which statement regarding urea is true?

A. Urea is 100% filtered by the glomeruli
B. Blood urea levels are independent of diet
C. Urea is not significantly reabsorbed by the tubules
D. Urea excretion is a specific measure of glomerular function

A

A. Urea is 100% filtered by the glomeruli

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60
Q

Given the following data, calculate the creatinine clearance.
Serum creatinine = 1.2 mg/dL;
urine creatinine = 100 mg/dL;
urine volume = 1.4 L/day;
body surface area = 1.80 m2

A. 47 mL/min
B. 78 mL/min
C. 100 mL/min
D. 116 mL/min

A

B. 78 mL/min

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61
Q

Which of the following dyes are used in
Sternheimer-Malbin stain?

A. Hematoxylin and eosin
B. Crystal violet and safranin
C. Methylene blue and eosin
D. Methylene blue and safranin

A

B. Crystal violet and safranin

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62
Q

Which of the following statements regarding WBCs in urinary sediment is true?

A. “Glitter cells” seen in the urinary sediment are a sign of renal disease
B. Bacteriuria in the absence of WBCs indicates lower urinary tract infection (UTI)
C. WBCs other than PMNs are not found in
urinary sediment
D. WBC casts indicate that pyuria is of renal, rather than lower urinary, origin

A

D. WBC casts indicate that pyuria is of renal, rather than lower urinary, origin

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63
Q

Which description of sediment with
Sternheimer-Malbin stain is correct?

A. Transitional epithelium: cytoplasm pale blue, nucleus dark blue
B. Renal epithelium: cytoplasm light blue, nucleus dark purple
C. Glitter cells: cytoplasm dark blue, nucleus dark purple
D. Squamous epithelium: cytoplasm pink, nucleus pale blue

A

A. Transitional epithelium: cytoplasm pale blue, nucleus dark blue

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64
Q

SITUATION: A 5-mL urine specimen is submitted for routine urinalysis and analyzed immediately. The SG of the sample is 1.012 and the pH is 6.5.
The dry reagent strip test for blood is a large positive (3+) and the microscopic examination shows 11-20 RBCs per HPF. The leukocyte esterase reaction is a small positive (1+), and the microscopic examination shows 0-5 WBCs per
HPF. What is the most likely cause of these
results?

A. Myoglobin is present in the sample
B. Free hemoglobin is present
C. Insufficient volume is causing microscopic results to be underestimated
D. Some WBCs have been misidentified as RBCs

A

C. Insufficient volume is causing microscopic results to be underestimated

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65
Q

Which of the following statements regarding epithelial cells in the urinary system is correct?

A. Caudate epithelial cells originate from the upper urethra
B. Transitional cells originate from the upper urethra, ureters, bladder, or renal pelvis
C. Cells from the proximal renal tubule are usually round in shape
D. Squamous epithelium line the vagina, urethra, and wall of the urinary bladder

A

B. Transitional cells originate from the upper urethra, ureters, bladder, or renal pelvis

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66
Q

Which of the statements regarding examination of unstained sediment is true?

A. Renal cells can be differentiated reliably from WBCs
B. Large numbers of transitional cells are often seen after catheterization
C. Neoplastic cells from the bladder are not found in urinary sediment
D. RBCs are easily differentiated from nonbudding yeast

A

B. Large numbers of transitional cells are often seen after catheterization

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67
Q

Which of the following statements regarding cells found in urinary sediment is true?

A. Transitional cells resist swelling in hypotonic urine
B. Renal tubular cells are often polyhedral and have an eccentric round nucleus
C. Trichomonads have an oval shape with a
prominent nucleus and a single anterior
flagellum
D. Clumps of bacteria are frequently mistaken for blood casts

A

B. Renal tubular cells are often polyhedral and have an eccentric round nucleus

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68
Q

Which of the following statements regarding RBCs in the urinary sediment is true?

A. Yeast cells will lyse in dilute acetic acid but RBCs will not
B. RBCs are often swollen in hypertonic urine
C. RBCs of glomerular origin often appear
dysmorphic
D. Yeast cells will tumble when the cover glass is touched but RBCs will not

A

C. RBCs of glomerular origin often appear
dysmorphic

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69
Q

Renal tubular epithelial cells are shed into the urine in largest numbers in which condition?

A. Malignant renal disease
B. Acute glomerulonephritis
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection of the kidney

A

D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection of the kidney

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70
Q

The ova of which parasite may be found in the
urinary sediment?
A. T. vaginalis
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Schistosoma hematobium
D. Trichuris trichiura

A

C. Schistosoma hematobium

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71
Q

Oval fat bodies are often seen in:

A. Chronic glomerulonephritis
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Acute tubular nephrosis
D. Renal failure of any cause

A

B. Nephrotic syndrome

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72
Q

All of the following statements regarding urinary casts are true except:

A. Many hyaline casts may appear in sediment after jogging or exercise
B. An occasional granular cast may be seen in a normal sediment
C. Casts can be seen in significant numbers even when protein tests are negative
D. Hyaline casts will dissolve readily in alkaline urine

A

C. Casts can be seen in significant numbers even when protein tests are negative

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73
Q

Which condition promotes the formation of casts in the urine?

A. Chronic production of alkaline urine
B. Polyuria
C. Reduced filtrate formation
D. Low urine SG

A

C. Reduced filtrate formation

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74
Q

The mucoprotein that forms the matrix of a
hyaline cast is called:

A. Bence-Jones protein
B. β-Microglobulin
C. Tamm-Horsfall protein
D. Arginine-rich glycoprotein

A

C. Tamm-Horsfall protein

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75
Q

“Pseudocasts” are often caused by:

A. A dirty cover glass or slide
B. Bacterial contamination
C. Amorphous urates
D. Mucus in the urine

A

C. Amorphous urates

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76
Q

Which of the following statements regarding urinary casts is correct?

A. Fine granular casts are more significant than coarse granular casts
B. Cylindruria is always clinically significant
C. The appearance of cylindroids signals the onset of end-stage renal disease
D. Broad casts are associated with severe renal tubular obstruction

A

D. Broad casts are associated with severe renal tubular obstruction

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77
Q

A sediment with moderate hematuria and RBC casts most likely results from:

A. Chronic pyelonephritis
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Acute glomerulonephritis
D. Lower urinary tract obstruction

A

C. Acute glomerulonephritis

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78
Q

Urine sediment characterized by pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts indicates:

A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Polycystic kidney disease
D. Cystitis

A

B. Pyelonephritis

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79
Q

Which type of casts signals the presence of chronic renal failure?

A. Blood casts
B. Fine granular casts
C. Waxy casts
D. Fatty casts

A

C. Waxy casts

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80
Q

SITUATION: Urinalysis of a sample from a
patient suspected of having a transfusion reaction reveals small yellow-brown crystals in the microscopic examination. Dry reagent strip tests are normal with the exception of a positive blood reaction (moderate) and trace positive protein.
The pH of the urine is 6.5. What test should be performed to positively identify the crystals?

A. Confirmatory test for bilirubin
B. Cyanide-nitroprusside test
C. Polarizing microscopy
D. Prussian blue stain

A

D. Prussian blue stain

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81
Q

When examining urinary sediment, which of the following is considered an abnormal finding?

A. 0-2 RBCs per HPF
B. 0-1 hyaline casts per low-power field (LPF)
C. 0-1 renal cell casts per LPF
D. 2-5 WBCs per HPF

A

C. 0-1 renal cell casts per LPF

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82
Q

SITUATION: A urine sample with a pH of
6.0 produces an abundance of pink sediment after centrifugation that appears as densely packed yellow- to reddish-brown granules under the microscope. The crystals are so dense that no other formed elements can be evaluated. What is
the best course of action?

A. Request a new urine specimen
B. Suspend the sediment in prewarmed saline, then repeat centrifugation
C. Acidify a 12-mL aliquot with three drops of glacial acetic acid and heat to 56°C for
5 minutes before centrifuging
D. Add five drops of 1N HCl to the sediment and examine

A

B. Suspend the sediment in prewarmed saline, then repeat centrifugation

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83
Q

How can hexagonal uric acid crystals be
distinguished from cystine crystals?

A. Cystine is insoluble in hydrochloric acid but uric acid is soluble
B. Cystine gives a positive nitroprusside test after reduction with sodium cyanide
C. Cystine crystals are more highly pigmented
D. Cystine crystals form at neutral or alkaline pH, uric acid forms at neutral to acidic pH

A

B. Cystine gives a positive nitroprusside test after reduction with sodium cyanide

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84
Q

The presence of tyrosine and leucine crystals together in a urine sediment usually indicates:

A. Renal failure
B. Chronic liver disease
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Hartnup disease

A

B. Chronic liver disease

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85
Q

Which of the following crystals is considered nonpathological?

A. Hemosiderin
B. Bilirubin
C. Ammonium biurate
D. Cholesterol

A

C. Ammonium biurate

86
Q

At which pH are ammonium biurate crystals usually found in urine?

A. Acid urine only
B. Acid or neutral urine
C. Neutral or alkaline urine
D. Alkaline urine only

A

D. Alkaline urine only

87
Q

Which of the following crystals is seen commonly in alkaline and neutral urine?

A. Calcium oxalate
B. Uric acid
C. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
D. Cholesterol

A

C. Magnesium ammonium phosphate

88
Q

Which crystal appears in urine as a long, thin hexagonal plate, and is linked to ingestion of large amounts of benzoic acid?

A. Cystine
B. Hippuric acid
C. Oxalic acid
D. Uric acid

A

B. Hippuric acid

89
Q

Small yellow needles are seen in the sediment of a urine sample with a pH of 6.0. Which of the following crystals can be ruled out?

A. Sulfa crystals
B. Bilirubin crystals
C. Uric acid crystals
D. Cholesterol crystals

A

D. Cholesterol crystals

90
Q

Oval fat bodies are derived from:

A. Renal tubular epithelium
B. Transitional epithelium
C. Degenerated WBCs
D. Mucoprotein matrix

A

A. Renal tubular epithelium

91
Q

Oval fat bodies are often associated with:

A. Lipoid nephrosis
B. Acute glomerulonephritis
C. Aminoaciduria
D. Pyelonephritis

A

A. Lipoid nephrosis

92
Q

Urine of constant SG ranging from 1.008 to 1.010 most likely indicates:

A. Addison’s disease
B. Renal tubular failure
C. Prerenal failure
D. Diabetes insipidus

A

B. Renal tubular failure

93
Q

Which of the following characterizes prerenal failure, and helps to differentiate it from acutemrenal failure caused by renal disease?

A. BUN:creatinine ratio of 20:1 or higher
B. Urine:plasma osmolal ratio less than 2:1
C. Excess loss of sodium in the urine
D. Dehydration

A

A. BUN:creatinine ratio of 20:1 or higher

94
Q

Which of the following conditions characterizes chronic glomerulonephritis and helps to differentiate it from acute glomerulonephritis?

A. Hematuria
B. Polyuria
C. Hypertension
D. Azotemia

A

B. Polyuria

95
Q

Which of the following conditions is seen in acute renal failure and helps to differentiate it from prerenal failure?

A. Hyperkalemia and uremia
B. Oliguria and edema
C. Low creatinine clearance
D. Abnormal urinary sediment

A

D. Abnormal urinary sediment

96
Q

Which of the following conditions characterizes acute renal failure and helps to differentiate it from chronic renal failure?

A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hematuria
C. Cylindruria
D. Proteinuria

A

A. Hyperkalemia

97
Q

The serum concentration of which analyte is likely to be decreased in untreated cases of acute renal failure?

A. Hydrogen ions
B. Inorganic phosphorus
C. Calcium
D. Uric acid

A

C. Calcium

98
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with the greatest proteinuria?

A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Chronic glomerulonephritis
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Acute pyelonephritis

A

C. Nephrotic syndrome

99
Q

Which of the following conditions is often a cause of glomerulonephritis?

A. Hypertension
B. Cytomegalovirus infection
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Heavy metal poisoning

A

C. Systemic lupus erythematosus

100
Q

Acute pyelonephritis is commonly caused by:

A. Bacterial infection of medullary interstitium
B. Circulatory failure
C. Renal calculi
D. Antigen-antibody reactions within the glomeruli

A

A. Bacterial infection of medullary interstitium

101
Q

All of the following are common characteristics of the nephrotic syndrome except:

A. Hyperlipidemia
B. Hypoalbuminemia
C. Hematuria and pyuria
D. Severe edema

A

C. Hematuria and pyuria

102
Q

Which of the following conditions is a
characteristic finding in patients with
obstructive renal disease?

A. Polyuria
B. Azotemia
C. Dehydration
D. Alkalosis

A

B. Azotemia

103
Q

Whewellite and weddellite kidney stones are composed of:

A. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
B. Calcium oxalate
C. Calcium phosphate
D. Calcium carbonate

A

B. Calcium oxalate

104
Q

Which of the following abnormal crystals is often associated with formation of renal calculi?

A. Cystine
B. Ampicillin
C. Tyrosine
D. Leucine

A

A. Cystine

105
Q

Which statement about renal calculi is true?

A. Calcium oxalate and calcium phosphate account for about three-fourths of all stones
B. Uric acid stones can be seen by x-ray
C. Triple phosphate stones are found principally in the ureters
D. Stones are usually comprised of single salts

A

A. Calcium oxalate and calcium phosphate account for about three-fourths of all stones

106
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is formed by
ultrafiltration of plasma through the:

A. Choroid plexus
B. Sagittal sinus
C. Anterior cerebral lymphatics
D. Arachnoid membrane

A

A. Choroid plexus

107
Q

Which statement regarding CSF is true?

A. Normal values for mononuclear cells are higher for infants than adults
B. Absolute neutrophilia is not significant if the
total WBC count is less than 25/μL
C. The first aliquot of CSF should be sent to the microbiology laboratory
D. Neutrophils compose the majority of WBCs in normal CSF

A

A. Normal values for mononuclear cells are higher for infants than adults

108
Q

When collecting CSF, a difference between
opening and closing fluid pressure greater than 100 mm H2O indicates:

A. Low CSF volume
B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
C. Meningitis
D. Hydrocephalus

A

A. Low CSF volume

109
Q

Which of the following findings is consistent with a subarachnoid hemorrhage rather than a traumatic tap?

A. Clearing of the fluid as it is aspirated
B. A clear supernatant after centrifugation
C. Xanthochromia
D. Presence of a clot in the sample

A

C. Xanthochromia

110
Q

The term used to denote a high WBC count in the CSF is:

A. Empyema
B. Neutrophilia
C. Pleocytosis
D. Hyperglycorrhachia

A

C. Pleocytosis

111
Q

Which of the adult CSF values in the following table are consistent with bacterial meningitis? WBCs Lymph Mono Eos Neu Neuroectodermal Cells

A. 50/μL 44% 55% 0% 0% 1%
B. 300/μL 75% 21% 3% 0% 1%
C. 2,000/μL 5% 15% 0% 80% 0%
D. 2,500/μL 40% 50% 0% 10% 0%

A

C. 2,000/μL 5% 15% 0% 80% 0%

112
Q

Given the following data, determine the corrected CSF WBC count. CSF Values Peripheral Blood Values RBCs 6,000/μL 4.0 × 106/μL WBCs 150/μL 5.0 × 103/μL

A. 8 WBC/μL
B. 142 WBC/μL
C. 120 WBC/μL
D. 145 WBC/μL

A

B. 142 WBC/μL

113
Q

SITUATION: What is the most likely cause of the following CSF results? CSF glucose 20 mg/dL; CSF protein 200 mg/dL; CSF lactate 50 mg/dL (reference range 5-25 mg/dL)

A. Viral meningitis
B. Viral encephalitis
C. Cryptococcal meningitis
D. Acute bacterial meningitis

A

D. Acute bacterial meningitis

114
Q

Which of the following conditions is most often associated with normal CSF glucose and protein?

A. Multiple sclerosis
B. Malignancy
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D. Viral meningitis

A

D. Viral meningitis

115
Q

The diagnosis of multiple sclerosis is often based upon which finding?

A. The presence of elevated protein and low glucose
B. A decreased IgG index
C. The presence of oligoclonal bands by
electrophoresis
D. An increased level of CSF β microglobulin

A

C. The presence of oligoclonal bands by
electrophoresis

116
Q

Which of the following results is consistent with fungal meningitis?

A. Normal CSF glucose
B. Pleocytosis of mixed cellularity
C. Normal CSF protein
D. High CSF lactate

A

B. Pleocytosis of mixed cellularity

117
Q

In what suspected condition should a wet prep using a warm slide be examined?

A. Cryptococcal meningitis
B. Amoebic meningoencephalitis
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection
D. Neurosyphilis

A

B. Amoebic meningoencephalitis

118
Q

Which of the following CSF test results is most commonly increased in patients with multiple sclerosis?

A. Glutamine
B. Lactate
C. IgG index
D. Ammonia

A

C. IgG index

119
Q

Which of the following is an inappropriate
procedure for performing routine CSF analysis?

A. A differential is done only if the total WBC
count is greater than 10/μL
B. A differential should be done on a stained CSF concentrate
C. A minimum of 30 WBCs should be differentiated
D. A Wright’s-stained slide should be examined rather than a chamber differential

A

A. A differential is done only if the total WBC
count is greater than 10/μL

120
Q

Which cell is present in the CSF in greater
numbers in newborns than in older children or adults?

A. Eosinophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. Neutrophils

A

C. Monocytes

121
Q

Neutrophilic pleocytosis is usually associated with all of the following except:

A. Cerebral infarction
B. Malignancy
C. Myelography
D. Neurosyphilis

A

D. Neurosyphilis

122
Q

Which statement about CSF protein is true?

A. An abnormal serum protein electrophoretic pattern does not affect the CSF pattern
B. The upper reference limit for CSF total protein in newborns is one-half adult levels
C. CSF IgG is increased in panencephalitis,
malignancy, and neurosyphilis
D. Antibodies to Treponema pallidum disappear after successful antibiotic therapy

A

C. CSF IgG is increased in panencephalitis,
malignancy, and neurosyphilis

123
Q

Which of the following statements regarding routine microbiological examination of CSF is true?

A. A Gram stain is performed on the CSF prior to concentration
B. The Gram stain is positive in fewer than 40% of cases of acute bacterial meningitis
C. India ink and acid fast stains are indicated if neutrophilic pleocytosis is present
D. All CSF specimens should be cultured using sheep blood agar, chocolate agar, and upplemented broth

A

D. All CSF specimens should be cultured using
sheep blood agar, chocolate agar, and
supplemented broth

124
Q

Which organism is the most frequent cause of bacterial meningitis in neonates?

A. Neisseria meningitidis
B. Group B Streptococcus
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

B. Group B Streptococcus

125
Q

Following a head injury, which protein will
identify the presence of CSF leakage through the nose?

A. Transthyretin
B. Myelin basic protein
C. Tau protein
D. C-reactive protein

A

C. Tau protein

126
Q

Which of the following statements regarding serous fluids is true?

A. The normal volume of pleural fluid is 30-50 mL
B. Mesothelial cells, PMNs, lymphocytes, and macrophages may be present in normal fluids
C. X-ray can detect a 10% increase in the volume of a serous fluid
D. Normal serous fluids are colorless

A

B. Mesothelial cells, PMNs, lymphocytes, and macrophages may be present in normal fluids

127
Q

The term effusion refers to:

A. A chest fluid that is purulent
B. A serous fluid that is chylous
C. An increased volume of serous fluid
D. An inflammatory process affecting the
appearance of a serous fluid

A

C. An increased volume of serous fluid

128
Q

Which of the following laboratory results is
characteristic of a transudative fluid?

A. SG = 1.018
B. Total protein = 3.2 g/dL
C. LD fluid/serum ratio = 0.25
D. Total protein fluid/serum ratio = 0.65

A

C. LD fluid/serum ratio = 0.25

129
Q

Which observation is least useful in distinguishing a hemorrhagic serous fluid from a traumatic tap?

A. Clearing of fluid as it is aspirated
B. Presence of xanthochromia
C. The formation of a clot
D. Diminished RBC count in successive aliquots

A

C. The formation of a clot

130
Q

Which of the following laboratory results on a serous fluid is most likely to be caused by a traumatic tap?

A. An RBC count of 8,000/μL
B. A WBC count of 6,000/μL
C. A hematocrit of 35%
D. A neutrophil count of 55%

A

A. An RBC count of 8,000/μL

131
Q

Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with an exudative effusion?

A. Congestive heart failure
B. Malignancy
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Cirrhosis

A

B. Malignancy

132
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with a chylous effusion?

A. Necrosis
B. Pulmonary infarction or infection
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus or rheumatoid
arthritis
D. Lymphatic obstruction

A

D. Lymphatic obstruction

133
Q

Which of the following conditions is most
often associated with a pleural fluid glucos
below 30 mg/dL?

A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Pancreatitis
C. RA
D. Bacterial pneumonia

A

C. RA

134
Q

In which condition is the pleural fluid pH likely to be above 7.3?

A. Bacterial pneumonia with parapneumonic exudate
B. Rheumatoid pleuritis
C. Esophageal rupture
D. Pneumothorax

A

D. Pneumothorax

135
Q

Which of the following hematology values best frames the upper reference limits for peritoneal fluid? WBC Count % of PMNs RBC Count

A. 300/μL 25% 100,000/μL
B. 10,000/μL 50% 500,000/μL
C. 50,000/μL 50% 500,000/μL
D. 100,000/μL 75% 1,000,000/μL

A

A. 300/μL 25% 100,000/μL

136
Q

Which of the following characteristics is higher for synovial fluid than for the serous fluids?

A. SG
B. Glucose
C. Total protein
D. Viscosity

A

D. Viscosity

137
Q

In which type of arthritis is the synovial WBC count likely to be greater than 50,000/μL?

A. Septic arthritis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. RA
D. Hemorrhagic arthritis

A

A. Septic arthritis

138
Q

hat type of cell is a “ragocyte”?

A. Cartilage cell seen in inflammatory arthritis
B. A PMN with inclusions formed by immune complexes
C. A plasma cell seen in RA
D. A macrophage containing large inclusions

A

B. A PMN with inclusions formed by immune complexes

139
Q

Which of the following crystals is the cause
of gout?

A. Uric acid or monosodium urate
B. Calcium pyrophosphate or apatite
C. Calcium oxalate
D. Cholesterol

A

A. Uric acid or monosodium urate

140
Q

Which crystal causes “pseudogout”?

A. Oxalic acid
B. Calcium pyrophosphate
C. Calcium oxalate
D. Cholesterol

A

B. Calcium pyrophosphate

141
Q

A synovial fluid sample is examined using a
polarizing microscope with a red compensating filter. Crystals are seen that are yellow when the long axis of the crystal is parallel to the slow vibrating light. When the long axis of the crystal is perpendicular to the slow vibrating light, the crystals appear blue. What type of crystal is
present?

A. Calcium oxalate
B. Calcium pyrophosphate
C. Uric acid
D. Cholesterol

A

C. Uric acid

142
Q

In which condition is the synovial fluid glucose most likely to be within normal limits?

A. Septic arthritis
B. Inflammatory arthritis
C. Hemorrhagic arthritis
D. Gout

A

C. Hemorrhagic arthritis

143
Q

Which statement about synovial fluid in RA
is true?

A. Synovial/serum IgG is usually 1:2 or higher
B. Total hemolytic complement is elevated
C. Ninety percent of RA cases test positive for rheumatoid factor in synovial fluid
D. Demonstration of rheumatoid factor in joint fluid is diagnostic for RA

A

A. Synovial/serum IgG is usually 1:2 or higher

144
Q

Which of the following organisms accounts for the majority of septic arthritis cases in young and middle-age adults?

A. H. influenzae
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Borrelia burgdorferi

A

B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

145
Q

Which of the following hematology values best frames the upper reference limits for synovial fluid? WBC Count %of PMNs RBC Count

A. 200/μL 25% 2,000/μL
B. 5,000/μL 50% 10,000/μL
C. 10,000/μL 50% 50,000/μL
D. 20,000/μL 5% 500,000/μL

A

A. 200/μL 25% 2,000/μL

146
Q

Which of the following statements about
amniotic fluid bilirubin measured by scanning spectrophotometry is true?

A. The 410-nm peak is due to hemoglobin and the 450-nm peak is due to bilirubin
B. Baseline correction is not required if a scanning spectrophotometer is used
C. Chloroform extraction is necessary only when meconium is present
D. In normal amniotic fluid, bilirubin increases with gestational age

A

A. The 410-nm peak is due to hemoglobin and the 450-nm peak is due to bilirubin

147
Q

Which test best correlates with the severity
of HDN?

A. Rh antibody titer of the mother
B. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio
C. Amniotic fluid bilirubin
D. Urinary estradiol

A

C. Amniotic fluid bilirubin

148
Q

Which is the reference method for determining fetal lung maturity?

A. Human placental lactogen
B. L/S ratio
C. Amniotic fluid bilirubin
D. Urinary estriol

A

B. L/S ratio

149
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the L/S ratio is true?

A. A ratio of 2:1 or greater usually indicates
adequate pulmonary surfactant to prevent
respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
B. A ratio of 1.5:1 indicates fetal lung maturity in pregnancies associated with diabetes mellitus
C. Sphingomyelin levels increase during the third trimester, causing the L/S ratio to fall slightly during the last 2 weeks of gestation
D. A phosphatidylglycerol (PG) spot indicates the presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid

A

A. A ratio of 2:1 or greater usually indicates
adequate pulmonary surfactant to prevent
respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)

150
Q

Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause a falsely low L/S ratio?

A. The presence of PG in amniotic fluid
B. Freezing the specimen for one month at -20°C
C. Centrifugation at 1,000 × g for 10 minutes
D. Maternal diabetes mellitus

A

C. Centrifugation at 1,000 × g for 10 minutes

151
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describes hCG levels in pregnancy?

A. Levels of hCG rise throughout pregnancy
B. In ectopic pregnancy, serum hCG doubling time is below expected levels
C. Molar pregnancies are associated with lower levels than expected for the time of gestation
D. hCG returns to nonpregnant levels within 2 days following delivery, stillbirth, or abortion

A

B. In ectopic pregnancy, serum hCG doubling time is below expected levels

152
Q

Which of the following statements regarding pregnancy testing is true?

A. β Subunits of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) are very similar
B. Antibodies against the β subunit of hCG
cross-react with luteinizing hormone (LH)
C. A false-positive result may occur in patients with heterophile antibodies
D. Serum should not be used for pregnancy tests because proteins interfere

A

C. A false-positive result may occur in patients with heterophile antibodies

153
Q

SITUATION: A pregnant female was seen by her physician who suspected a molar pregnancy. An hCG test was ordered and found to be low. The sample was diluted 10-fold and the assay was repeated. The result was found to be grossly elevated. What best explains this situation?

A. The wrong specimen was diluted
B. A pipeting error was made in the first analysis
C. Antigen excess caused a falsely low result in the undiluted sample
D. An inhibitor of the antigen-antibody reaction was present in the sample

A

C. Antigen excess caused a falsely low result in the undiluted sample

154
Q

Most cases of Down syndrome are the result of:

A. Nondisjunction of an E chromosome (E trisomy)
B. Nondisjunction of chromosome 21 (G trisomy)
C. A 14-21 chromosome translocation
D. Deletion of the long arm of chromosome 21

A

B. Nondisjunction of chromosome 21 (G trisomy)

155
Q

Which assay result is often approximately 25% below the expected level in pregnancies associated with Down syndrome?

A. Serum unconjugated estriol
B. L/S ratio
C. Amniotic fluid bilirubin
D. Urinary chorionic gonadotropin

A

A. Serum unconjugated estriol

156
Q

Which of the following statements about AFP is correct?

A. Maternal serum may be used to screen for open neural tube defects
B. Levels above 4 ng/mL are considered positive
C. Elevated levels in amniotic fluid are specific for spina bifida
D. AFP levels increase in pregnancies associated
with Down syndrome

A

A. Maternal serum may be used to screen for open neural tube defects

157
Q

First-trimester screening for Down syndrome can be performed using which markers?

A. Alpha fetoprotein and unconjugated estriol
B. Free β hCG and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A
C. Intact hCG and dimeric inhibin A
D. Dimeric inhibin B and α fetoprotein

A

B. Free β hCG and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A

158
Q

When performing marker screening tests for Down syndrome, why are results expressed in multiples of the median (MoM) rather than concentration?

A. Concentration is not normally distributed
B. MoM normalizes for gestational age
C. Some tests cannot be reported in mass units
D. Mean cannot be determined accurately for these analytes

A

B. MoM normalizes for gestational age

159
Q

Which statement regarding the fetal fibronectin test is true?

A. A positive test is correlated with a low probability of delivery within 14 days
B. The test should not be performed before
week 24 or after the end of week 34
C. The test is performed on amniotic fluid
D. The test is used to identify amniotic fluid after rupture of the fetal membranes

A

B. The test should not be performed before
week 24 or after the end of week 34

160
Q

What is the term for sperm when the anterior portion of the headpiece is smaller than normal?

A. Azoospermia
B. Microcephaly
C. Acrosomal deficiency
D. Necrozoospermia

A

C. Acrosomal deficiency

161
Q

What is the most common cause of male
infertility?

A. Mumps
B. Klinefelter’s syndrome
C. Varicocele
D. Malignancy

A

C. Varicocele

162
Q

Which of the following values is the lower
limit of normal for sperm concentration?

A. 15 million per mL
B. 40 million per mL
C. 60 million per mL
D. 100 million per mL

A

A. 15 million per mL

163
Q

Which morphological abnormality of sperm is most often associated with varicocele?

A. Tapering of the head
B. Cytoplasmic droplet below the neckpiece
C. Lengthened neckpiece
D. Acrosomal deficiency

A

A. Tapering of the head

164
Q

Which of the following stains is used to determine sperm viability?

A. Eosin Y
B. Hematoxylin
C. Papanicolaou
D. Methylene blue

A

A. Eosin Y

165
Q

Which of the following semen analysis results is abnormal?

A. Volume 1.0 mL
B. Liquefaction 40 minutes at room temperature
C. pH 7.6
D. Motility 50% progressive movement

A

A. Volume 1.0 mL

166
Q

Which of the following sample collection and processing conditions will lead to inaccurate seminal fluid analysis results?

A. Sample stored at room temperature for 1 hour
before testing
B. Sample collected following coitus
C. Sample collected without an anticoagulant
D. Sample collected without use of a condom

A

B. Sample collected following coitus

167
Q

When performing a seminal fluid analysis, what is the upper limit of normal for WBCs?

A. 1 × 106/mL
B. 5 × 106/mL
C. 10 × 106/mL
D. 20 × 106/mL

A

A. 1 × 106/mL

168
Q

Which carbohydrate measurement is clinically useful when performing a seminal fluid analysis?

A. Glucose
B. Galactose
C. Fructose
D. Maltose

A

C. Fructose

169
Q

Which condition is most often associated with gastric ulcers?

A. Cancer of the stomach
B. H. pylori infection
C. Zollinger-Ellison (Z-E) syndrome
D. Pernicious anemia

A

B. H. pylori infection

170
Q

In which condition is the highest level of serum gastrin usually seen?

A. Atrophic gastritis
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Z-E syndrome
D. Cancer of the stomach

A

C. Z-E syndrome

171
Q

In determining free HCl, the gastric fluid is
titrated to pH ___.

A. 6.5
B. 4.5
C. 3.5
D. 2.0

A

C. 3.5

172
Q

Which test can identify persons with gastrin- secreting tumors who do not demonstrate a definitively increased plasma gastrin concentration?

A. Secretin stimulation
B. Pentagastrin
C. Cholecystokinin-pancreozymin
D. Trypsinogen

A

A. Secretin stimulation

173
Q

Which of the following tests would be normal in pancreatic insufficiency?

A. Secretin stimulation
B. D-Xylose absorption
C. Twenty-four-hour fecal fat
D. β Carotene absorption

A

B. D-Xylose absorption

174
Q

Which of the following is commonly associated with occult blood?

A. Colon cancer
B. Atrophic gastritis
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Pancreatitis

A

A. Colon cancer

175
Q

Which test is most sensitive in detecting persons with chronic pancreatitis?

A. Fecal trypsin
B. Fecal chymotrypsin
C. Fecal elastin-1
D. Plasma lipase

A

C. Fecal elastin-1

176
Q

Given the following dry reagent strip urinalysis results, select the most appropriate course of action:
pH = 8.0 Protein = 1+ Glucose = Neg Blood = Neg Ketone = Neg Nitrite = Neg Bilirubin = Neg

A. Report the results, assuming acceptable quality control
B. Check pH with a pH meter before reporting
C. Perform a turbidimetric protein test and report instead of the dipstick protein
D. Request a new specimen

A

C. Perform a turbidimetric protein test and report instead of the dipstick protein

177
Q

Given the following urinalysis results, select the most appropriate course of action:
pH = 8.0 Protein = Trace Glucose = Neg
Ketone = Small Blood = Neg Nitrite = Neg
Microscopic findings:
RBCs = 0-2/HPF WBCs = 20-50/HPF
Bacteria = Large Crystals = Small, CaCO3

A. Call for a new specimen because urine was contaminated in vitro
B. Recheck pH because calcium carbonate (CaCO3) does not occur at alkaline pH
C. No indication of error is present; results indicate a UTI
D. Report all results except bacteria because the nitrite test was negative

A

C. No indication of error is present; results indicate a UTI

178
Q

SITUATION: A 6-mL pediatric urine sample is processed for routine urinalysis in the usual manner. The sediment is prepared by centrifuging all of the urine remaining after performing the biochemical tests. The following results are obtained:
SG = 1.015 Protein = 2+ Blood = Large
RBCs: 5-10/HPF WBCs: 5-10/HPF
Select the most appropriate course of action.

A. Report these results; blood and protein correlate with microscopic results
B. Report biochemical results only; request a new sample for the microscopic examination
C. Request a new sample and report as quantity not sufficient (QNS)
D. Recentrifuge the supernatant and repeat the microscopic examination

A

B. Report biochemical results only; request a new sample for the microscopic examination

179
Q

Given the following urinalysis results, select the most appropriate course of action:
pH = 6.5 Protein = Neg Glucose = Neg
Ketone = Trace Blood = Neg Bilirubin = Neg
Microscopic findings:
Mucus = Small Ammonium urate = Large

A. Recheck urine pH
B. Report these results, assuming acceptable quality control
C. Repeat the dry reagent strip tests to confirm the ketone result
D. Request a new sample and repeat the urinalysis

A

A. Recheck urine pH

180
Q

Given the following urinalysis results, select the most appropriate course of action:
pH = 6.0 Protein = Neg Glucose = Neg
Ketone = Neg Blood = Neg Bilirubin = Neg
Other findings:
Color: Amber Transparency: Microscopic: Crystals Clear Bilirubin granules = Small

A. Perform a tablet test for bilirubin before
reporting
B. Request a new sample
C. Recheck the pH
D. Perform a test for urinary urobilinogen

A

A. Perform a tablet test for bilirubin before
reporting

181
Q

A biochemical profile gives the following results:
Creatinine = 1.4 mg/dL
BUN = 35 mg/dL
K = 5.5 mmol/L
All other results are normal and all tests are in control. Urine from the patient has an osmolality of 975 mOsm/kg. Select the most appropriate course of action.

A. Check for hemolysis
B. Repeat the BUN and report only if normal
C. Repeat the serum creatinine and report only if elevated
D. Report these results

A

D. Report these results

182
Q

A 2 p.m. urinalysis has a trace glucose by the dry reagent strip test. A fasting blood glucose drawn 8 hours earlier is 100 mg/dL. No other results are abnormal. Select the most appropriate course of action.

A. Repeat the urine glucose and report if positive
B. Perform a test for reducing sugars and report the result
C. Perform a quantitative urine glucose; report as trace if greater than 100 mg/dL
D. Request a new urine specimen

A

A. Repeat the urine glucose and report if positive

183
Q

Following a transfusion reaction, urine from a patient gives positive tests for blood and protein. The SG is 1.015. No RBCs or WBCs are seen in the microscopic examination. These results:

A. Indicate renal injury induced by transfusion reaction
B. Support the finding of an extravascular
transfusion reaction
C. Support the finding of an intravascular
transfusion reaction
D. Rule out a transfusion reaction caused by RBC incompatibility

A

C. Support the finding of an intravascular
transfusion reaction

184
Q

A urine sample taken after a suspected transfusion reaction has a positive test for blood, but intact RBCs are not seen on microscopic examination. Which one test result would rule out an intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction?

A. Negative urine urobilinogen
B. Serum unconjugated bilirubin below 1.0 mg/dL
C. Serum potassium below 6.0 mmol/L
D. Normal plasma haptoglobin

A

D. Normal plasma haptoglobin

185
Q

Given the following urinalysis results, select the most appropriate course of action:
pH = 5.0 Protein = Neg Glucose = 1,000 mg/dL Blood = Neg Bilirubin = Neg
Ketone = Moderate SSA protein = 1+

A. Report the SSA protein result instead of the dry reagent strip result
B. Call for a list of medications administered to the patient
C. Perform a quantitative urinary albumin
D. Perform a test for microalbuminuria

A

B. Call for a list of medications administered to the patient

186
Q

Urinalysis results from a 35-year-old woman are:
SG = 1.015 pH = 7.5 Protein = Trace
Glucose = Small Ketone = Neg Blood = Neg
Leukocytes = Moderate
Microscopic findings:
RBCs: 5-10/HPF WBCs: 25-50/HPF
Select the most appropriate course of action.

A. Recheck the blood reaction; if negative, look for budding yeast
B. Repeat the WBC count
C. Report all results except blood
D. Request a list of medications

A

A. Recheck the blood reaction; if negative, look for budding yeast

187
Q

A routine urinalysis gives the following results:
pH =6.5 Protein = Neg Blood = Neg
Glucose= Trace Ketone = Neg
Microscopic findings:
Blood casts: Mucus: Crystals:
5-10/LFP Small Large, Amorphous
These results are most likely explained by:

A. False-negative blood reaction
B. False-negative protein reaction
C. Pseudocasts of urate mistaken for true casts
D. Mucus mistaken for casts

A

C. Pseudocasts of urate mistaken for true casts

188
Q

SITUATION: When examining a urinary sediment under 400× magnification, the technologist noted many red blood cells to have cytoplasmic blebs and an irregular distribution of the hemoglobin. This phenomenon is most often caused by:

A. Intravascular hemolytic anemia
B. Glomerular disease
C. Hypotonic or alkaline urine
D. Severe dehydration

A

B. Glomerular disease

189
Q

SITUATION: A urine specimen is dark orange and turns brown after storage in the refrigerator overnight. The technologist requests a new specimen. The second specimen is bright orange and is tested immediately. Which test result would differ between the two specimens?

A. Ketone
B. Leukocyte esterase
C. Urobilinogen
D. Nitrite

A

C. Urobilinogen

190
Q

A patient’s random urine consistently contains a trace of protein but no casts, cells, or other biochemical abnormality. The first voided morning sample is consistently negative for protein. These findings can be explained by:

A. Normal diurnal variation in protein loss
B. Early glomerulonephritis
C. Orthostatic or postural albuminuria
D. Microalbuminuria

A

C. Orthostatic or postural albuminuria

191
Q

A urine sample with a pH of 8.0 and a specific gravity of 1.005 had a small positive blood reaction, but is negative for protein and no RBCs are present in the microscopic examination of urinary sediment. What best explains these findings?

A. High pH and low SG caused a false-positive blood reaction
B. The blood reaction and protein reaction are discrepant
C. Hemoglobin is present without intact RBCs due to hemolysis
D. An error was made in the microscopic
examination

A

C. Hemoglobin is present without intact RBCs due to hemolysis

192
Q

A urine sample has a negative blood reaction and 5-10 cells per high-power field that resemble red blood cells. What is the best course of action?

A. Mix a drop of sediment with 1 drop of WBC counting fluid and reexamine
B. Report the results without further testing
C. Repeat the blood test and if negative report the results
D. If the leukocyte esterase test is positive, report the cells as WBCs

A

A. Mix a drop of sediment with 1 drop of WBC counting fluid and reexamine

193
Q

A toluidine blue chamber count on CSF gives the following values: CSF Counts Peripheral Blood Counts WBCs 10 × 106/L WBCs 5 × 109/L RBCs 1,000 × 106/L RBCs 5 × 1012/L After correcting the WBC count in CSF, the technologist should next:

A. Report the WBC count as 9 × 106/L without additional testing
B. Report the WBC count and number of PMNs identified by the chamber count
C. Perform a differential on a direct smear of the CSF
D. Concentrate CSF using a cytocentrifuge and perform a differential

A

D. Concentrate CSF using a cytocentrifuge and perform a differential

194
Q

A blood-tainted pleural fluid is submitted for culture. Which test result would be most conclusive in classifying the fluid as an exudate? Test Result

A.LD fluid/serum 0.65
B. Total protein 3.2 g/dL
C. RBC count 10,000/μL
D. WBC count 1500/μL

A

A.LD fluid/serum 0.65

195
Q

A pleural fluid submitted to the laboratory is milky in appearance. Which test would be most useful in differentiating between a chylous and pseudochylous effusion?

A. Fluid to serum triglyceride ratio
B. Fluid WBC count
C. Fluid total protein
D. Fluid to serum LD ratio

A

A. Fluid to serum triglyceride ratio

196
Q

A cerebrospinal fluid sample from an 8-year-old child with a fever of unknown origin was tested for glucose, total protein, lactate, and IgG index. The glucose was 180 mg/dL but all other results were within the reference range. The CSF WBC count was 9 × 106/L and the RBC count was 10 × 106/L. The differential showed 50% lymphocytes, 35% monocytes, 10% macrophages, 3% neutrophils, and 2% neuroectodermal cells. What is the most likely cause of these results?

A. Aseptic meningitis
B. Traumatic tap
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D. Hyperglycemia

A

D. Hyperglycemia

197
Q

A WBC count and differential performed on
ascites fluid gave a WBC count of 20,000μL with 90% macrophages. The gross appearance of the fluid was described by the technologist as “thick and bloody.” It was noted on the report that
several clusters of these cells were observed and that the majority of the cells contained many vacuoles resembling paper-punch holes. What do the observations above suggest?

A. Malignant mesothelial cells were counted as macrophages
B. Adenocarcinoma from a metastatic site
C. Lymphoma infiltrating the peritoneal cavity
D. Nodular sclerosing type Hodgkin’s disease

A

A. Malignant mesothelial cells were counted as macrophages

198
Q

Given the following data for creatinine clearance, select the most appropriate course of action. Volume = 2.8 L/day; surface area = 1.73 m2; urine creatinine = 100 mg/dL; serum creatinine = 1.2 mg/dL

A. Report a creatinine clearance of 162 mL/min
B. Repeat the urine creatinine; results point to a dilution error
C. Request a new 24-hour urine sample
D. Request the patient’s age and sex

A

C. Request a new 24-hour urine sample

199
Q

An elevated amylase is obtained on a stat serum collected at 8 p.m. An amylase performed at 8 a.m. that morning was within normal limits. The technologist also noted that a urine amylase was measured at 6 p.m. Select the most appropriate course of action.

A. Repeat the stat amylase; report only if within normal limits
B. Repeat both the a.m. and p.m. serum amylase and report only if they agree
C. Request a new specimen; do not report results of the stat sample
D. Review the amylase result on the 6 p.m. urine sample; if elevated, report the stat amylase

A

D. Review the amylase result on the 6 p.m. urine sample; if elevated, report the stat amylase

200
Q

Results of a fetal lung maturity (FLM) study from a patient with diabetes mellitus are as follows: L/S ratio = 2.0; Phosphatidyl glycerol = Pos; Creatinine = 2.5 mg/dL Given these results, the technologist should:

A. Report the result and recommend repeating the L/S ratio in 24 hours
B. Perform scanning spectrophotometry on the fluid to determine if blood is present
C. Repeat the L/S ratio after 4 hours and report those results
D. Report results as invalid

A

A. Report the result and recommend repeating the L/S ratio in 24 hours

201
Q

A 24-hour urine sample from an adult submitted for catecholamines gives a result of 140 μg/day (upper reference limit 150 μg/day). The 24-hour urine creatinine level is 0.6 g/day. Select the best course of action.

A. Check the urine pH to verify that it is less
than 2.0
B. Report the result in μg catecholamines per mg creatinine
C. Request a new 24-hour urine sample
D. Measure the VMA and report the catecholamine result only if elevated

A

C. Request a new 24-hour urine sample

202
Q

A 5-hour urinary D-xylose test on a 7-year-old boy who was given 0.5 g of D-xylose per pound is 15%. The 2-hour timed blood D-xylose is 15 mg/dL (lower reference limit 30 mg/dL). Select the most appropriate action.
A. Request that a β carotene absorption test be performed
B. Repeat the urinary result because it is borderline
C. Request a retest using a 25-g dose of D-xylose
D. Request a retest using only a 1-hour timed blood sample

A

D. Request a retest using only a 1-hour timed blood sample

203
Q

A quantitative serum hCG is ordered on a male patient. The technologist should:

A. Perform the test and report the result
B. Request that the order be cancelled
C. Perform the test and report the result if
negative
D. Perform the test and report the result only if greater than 25 IU/L

A

A. Perform the test and report the result

204
Q

SITUATION: A lamellar body count (LBC) was performed on an amniotic fluid sample that was slightly pink in color within 1 hour of specimen collection. The sample was stored at 4°C prior to analysis. The result was 25,000/μL, classified as intermediate risk of respiratory distress syndrome. The physician waited 24 hours and collected a new sample that was counted within 2 hours of collection on the same instrument. The LCB count of the new sample was 14,000/ μL and the patient was reclassified as high risk. Which statement best explains these results?

A. Loss of lamellar bodies occurred in the second sample because of storage
B. Blood caused a falsely elevated result for the first sample
C. The fetal status changed in 24 hours owing to respiratory illness
D. The difference in counts is the result of day-to-day physiological and instrument variance

A

B. Blood caused a falsely elevated result for the first sample

205
Q

When testing for drugs of abuse in urine, which of the following test results indicate dilution and would be cause for rejecting the sample?
A. Temperature upon sample submission 92°F
B. Specific gravity 1.002; Creatinine 15 mg/dL,
C. pH 5.8; temperature 94°C
D. Specific gravity 1.012, creatinine 25 mg/dL

A

B. Specific gravity 1.002; Creatinine 15 mg/dL,

206
Q

SITUATION: A urine specimen has a specific
gravity of 1.025 and is strongly positive for nitrite. All other dry reagent strip test results are normal, and the microscopic exam was unremarkable, showing no WBCs or bacteria. The urine sample was submitted as part of a preemployment
physical exam that also includes drug testing. Which most likely caused these results?

A. A viral infection of the kidney
B. A urinary tract infection in an immunosuppressed person
C. An adulterated urine specimen
D. Error in reading the nitrite pad caused by poor reflectometer calibration

A

C. An adulterated urine specimen

207
Q

A CSF sample submitted for cell counts has a visible clot. What is the best course of action?

A. Count RBCs and WBCs manually after diluting the fluid with normal saline
B. Tease the cells out of the clot before counting, then dilute with WBC counting fluid
C. Request a new sample
D. Perform a WBC count without correction

A

C. Request a new sample

208
Q

Total hemolytic complement and glucose are ordered on a synovial fluid sample that is too viscous to pipet. What is the best course of action?

A. Dilute the sample in saline
B. Add 1 mg/mL hyaluronidase to the sample and incubate at room temperature for 30 minutes
C. Warm the sample to 65°C for 10 minutes
D. Request a new specimen

A

B. Add 1 mg/mL hyaluronidase to the sample and incubate at room temperature for 30 minutes

209
Q

A CSF CytoPrep smear shows many smudge cells and macrophages with torn cell membranes. What most likely caused this problem?

A. Failure to add albumin to the cytospin cup
B. Failure to collect the CSF in EDTA
C. Centrifuge speed too low
D. Improper alignment

A

A. Failure to add albumin to the cytospin cup

210
Q

An automated electronic blood cell counter was used to count RBCs and WBCs in a turbid pleural fluid sample. The WBC count was 5 × 1010/L (50,000/μL) and the RBC count was 5.5 × 1010/L (55,000/ μL). What is the significance of the RBC count?

A. The RBC count is not significant and should be reported as 5,000/μL
B. The RBC count should be reported as
determined by the analyzer
C. A manual RBC count should be performed
D. A manual RBC and WBC count should be
performed and reported instead

A

A. The RBC count is not significant and should be reported as 5,000/μL

Urinalysis and Body Fluids (1 decks)

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