All Sections Flashcards
(232 cards)
1
Q
When a candle burns, its molecules consisting of hydrogen and carbon atoms combine with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water. The physical science that is BEST for dealing with how the light from the candle travels through space is
Chemistry
Physics
Earth Science
Zoology
A
Physics
2
Q
Auroras are bursts of light that happen when charged particles from the sun interact with Earth’s magnetic field and atoms and molecules in our atmosphere.
Which physical science is BEST SUITED explain the interactions of the charged particles with magnetic field?
Physics
Chemistry
Life Science
Zoology
A
Physics
3
Q
The physical science that is BEST for finding the best locations to drill for the petroleum used to make the candles is
Chemistry
Physics
Earth Science
Life science
A
Earth Science
4
Q
The science BEST for studying how hydrogen sulfide and carbon dioxide react is
Physics
Earth Science
Chemistry
Life Science
A
Chemistry
5
Q
Acidic soil reacts with common rock-forming minerals to release ions to form new minerals. Which physical science is BEST for studying these processes?
chemistry
physics
earth science
zoology
A
Chemistry
6
Q
The science BEST for studying photosynthetic bacteria is
Physics
Earth Science
Chemistry
Life Science
A
Life Science
7
Q
What is usually the main advantage of being able to do a laboratory experiment rather than a field study if both investigations allow you to collect similar information?
It is possible to change only one variable at a time.
Working conditions are always better indoors.
The measuring equipment will be more precise.
The data processing can be done right there.
A
It is possible to change only one variable at a time.
8
Q
Which of the following terms best describes a research project that involves sending a space probe to a distant asteroid to land on it and collect data?
a controlled experiment
a laboratory experiment
an observational study
a statistical model
A
an observational study
9
Q
A space probe is an unmanned spacecraft. Which of these terms BEST describes a research project in which a space probe is sent to collect soil samples on planet Mars and then report the data back to Earth?
a controlled experiment
a laboratory experiment
a field study
a statistical survey
A
a field study
10
Q
Which of these fields depends the MOST on observational studies?
physics
Earth science
chemistry
Zoology
A
Earth Science
11
Q
The kinetic theory of gases is based on the assumption that the molecules that form the gas are in random motion and bounce off the walls of their container and off each other as if they were billiard balls. The forces between real molecules are more complicated.
This is an example of
using a model
formulating a hypothesis
carrying out an observational study
performing a field study
A
Using a model
12
Q
Why can’t astronomers carry out a scientific research study to determine which visible star, other than our sun, is the nicest?
Existing telescopes aren’t powerful enough.
There is no way to prove any answer wrong.
The Hubble telescope has better uses.
A project of that sort cannot get funding.
A
There is no way to prove any answer wrong.
13
Q
In 1811, physicist Amedo Avogadro proposed that the same volume of two different gases at the same temperature and pressure contain the same number of molecules. His proposal received little attention until the 1850s, when chemist Stanislao Cannizzaro, in particular, argued that Avogadro’s idea agreed with all the physical and chemical laws discovered up to that time.
Today, Avogadro’s statement about gases is sometimes referred to as “Avogadro’s hypothesis” or “Avogadro’s law.” Which statement describes when each of those two terms would be MOST accurately applied?
It is most accurately described as a law throughout.
It is most accurately described as a hypothesis throughout.
It is most accurately described as a hypothesis starting in 1811, but a law after the 1850’s.
It is most accurately described as a law starting in 1811, but a hypothesis after the 1850’s.
A
It is most accurately described as a hypothesis starting in 1811, but a law after the 1850’s.
14
Q
Albert Einstein developed a detailed and far-reaching explanation of gravity being caused by the bending of space and time by the presence of matter. This explanation made far-reaching predictions of phenomena that were later confirmed, such as the bending of the path of light when the path passed close by a star. It is currently the basis for many phenomena observed in astronomy.
Einstein’s explanation would be MOST accurately described as a
hypothesis
theory
law
fact
A
Theory
15
Q
Which of these describes a statement that has usually NOT yet been tested?
law
model
theory
hypothesis
A
Hypothesis
16
Q
Which of these is generally regarded by scientists to be the basis for deciding issues in science?
the reputation of the researchers for careful work
empirical evidence including experiments and observations
personal faith in the particular idea proposed
whether the idea is the simplest one the researcher can think of
A
empirical evidence including experiments and observations
17
Q
Which statement MOST accurately describes how our present knowledge of the structure of atoms, as being composed of electrons, protons, and neutrons, developed?
Our modern understanding of atoms was provided by Dalton’s explanation of chemical laws.
Our understanding of atoms came from the ancient Greeks, who postulated that atoms were composed of electrons, neutrons, and protons.
Our understanding of atoms came piece by piece from many different scientific researchers.
Our understanding of atoms was provided by Rutherford’s experiment that led him to propose a planetary model.
A
Our understanding of atoms came piece by piece from many different scientific researchers.
18
Q
The origin of water on Earth is not yet fully understood. To test one of
the hypotheses, scientists launched a gigantic observational balloon to
the height of almost 130,000 feet to measure the amounts of water in
comets and asteroids based on the light reflected from these objects.
The science BEST SUITED to calculating the forces required to launch the
balloon to the required altitude is
Physics
Earth Science
Chemistry
Life Science
A
Physics
19
Q
The sun produces its energy by nuclear fusion reactions, in which smaller nuclei are combined to produce larger nuclei. Forces responsible for the nuclear fusion are called nuclear forces. The physical science that studies nuclear forces is
Chemistry
Physics
Earth Science
Zoology
A
Physics
20
Q
The observational balloon is filled with helium and vented to the atmosphere. The height it reaches depends on the changes of the atmospheric pressure during the day and night cycle. The science BEST for studying this daily warming and cooling of the atmosphere is
Physics
Earth Science
Chemistry
Life Science
A
Earth Science
21
Q
Which physical science is the BEST to study the composition of Earth’s atmosphere?
Physics
Chemistry
Earth Science
Zoology
A
Earth Science
22
Q
When a candle burns, its molecules consisting of hydrogen and carbon atoms combine with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water.
The physical science that is BEST for dealing with the changes of the paraffin into carbon dioxide and water is
Chemistry
Physics
Earth Science
Zoology
A
Chemistry
23
Q
Which physics topic would be the MOST important in chemistry?
how atoms bond to each other because of electric attraction of oppositely charged electrons and nuclei
how gravity affects the motion of spacecraft
how the flow of a liquid through a pipe depends on the pressure, pipe diameter, and other variables
how the flow of air around an airplane keeps it in the air
A
how atoms bond to each other because of electric attraction of oppositely charged electrons and nuclei
24
Q
Which of these terms BEST describes a research project in which a big telescope is placed on a high mountain in Arizona to study the brightness stability of the sun?
a controlled experiment
a laboratory experiment
an observational study
a statistical survey
A
an observational study
25
A main reason to do a field study rather than a laboratory experiment is if
the phenomenon being studied cannot be reproduced in a laboratory setting
it is summer and the weather is nice
the data processing needs to be done right where the observations are being made there
Science should only be performed in the lab
the phenomenon being studied cannot be reproduced in a laboratory setting
26
Some students carry out an experiment in which they tilt a wooden plank by propping up one end with books, so that its height is a distance h above the table. The students release a steel ball bearing at different positions along the ramp measured as x. Each time they do this for a different value of x, they measure the speed of the ball bearing at the end of the ramp. The independent variable is?
h
x
speed
none of the above
x
27
Callisto is a moon of the planet Jupiter. Which of these terms BEST describes a research project in which telescopes are used to study ice sheets on Callisto?
a controlled experiment
a laboratory experiment
an observational study
a statistical survey
an observational study
28
Which of these fields depends the MOST on field studies?
physics
Earth science
chemistry
zoology
Earth Science
29
In what sense was Rutherford’s planetary model of the atom a model?
It represented the atom in terms of a more familiar system to which it was analogous.
It was constructed from wood and glue to look like an atom.
It was an ideal atom for other atoms to imitate.
It remained to be further tested.
It represented the atom in terms of a more familiar system to which it was analogous.
30
Galileo found that when air resistance can be ignored, heavier and lighter objects fall in the same way. He tested this rule and confirmed it was consistent with all available data.
The rule Galileo found can BEST be described as a
hypothesis
theory
law
fact
law
31
Isaac Newton was reportedly thinking about the motion of the moon when
he noticed an apple fall. He got the idea that the same force of gravity pulling the apple toward Earth controls the motion of the moon. Before Newton had tested this idea by doing calculations and comparing them with astronomical data, Newton’s idea would MOST accurately be called a
hypothesis
theory
law
fact
Hypothesis
32
A team of scientists wants to investigate whether objects slide on sand with less friction if the sand is wet. Suppose they have not yet carried out any experiments.
The statement they are investigating, that the friction of sliding on sand is reduced if the sand is wet, is an example of a(n)
hypothesis
theory
law
observation
Hypothesis
33
It is often said that you can never prove a scientific theory right. Why?
It is impossible to directly test every single instance in which it applies.
A theory is just a guess.
Science can never prove anything either right or wrong.
A theory becomes a law once it is tested that thoroughly.
It is impossible to directly test every single instance in which it applies.
34
Different explanations for the origin of the universe were favored at different times. The static model stated that the universe always existed as it is now. Another explanation was the steady state model that the universe has no beginning and matter is being created to fill in as the universe expands. The third was the big bang model.
What led scientists to settle on the big bang explanation that the universe began from a tiny point?
The big bang explanation is more consistent with the account in the Bible of the universe having a beginning.
Evidence was found such as the leftover radiation from the big bang and the correct fractions of certain kinds of atoms.
The ways that matter would have to be created in the steady-state explanation was not yet known.
It was difficult to imagine the universe to have always existed.
Evidence was found such as the leftover radiation from the big bang and the correct fractions of certain kinds of atoms.
35
Which of the following describes how scientific investigations are carried out?
Scientists all follow the same list of four steps to make a discovery: observe something, hypothesize about it, test the hypothesis, and form a theory.
Scientists use different procedures but rely on evidence and repeated testing to confirm their ideas.
Scientists settle scientific issues by staging a debate to decide which side gave the best presentation.
Scientists settle scientific issues by forming a consensus in the scientific community about which explanation is the most appealing.
Scientists use different procedures but rely on evidence and repeated testing to confirm their ideas.
36
Why is it important to have standard measures for physical quantities?
To allow for the comparison of measurements with anyone familiar with the measurement system.
To make it more difficult for scientists to exchange and compare results of their measurements.
To make measurements, such as length, easier to perform.
To allow scientists from other countries to use standard measures and not make up their own units
To allow for the comparison of measurements with anyone familiar with the measurement system.
37
Which of the following units is NOT a derived unit?
km/hr
m/s
kilometer
g/cm3
kilometer
38
What is the official SI base unit for mass?
kilogram
gram
meter
second
kilogram
39
What is the official SI base unit for length?
kelvin
meter
gram
kilometer
meter
40
What is the official SI base unit for time?
meters/second
hour
second
kilograms
second
41
Which of these has values that are expressed in terms of a derived unit in the SI system?
area
length
time
mass
Area
42
Which of these is NOT a base unit in the SI system?
meter
kilogram
kilometer
second
kilometer
43
Which of these is a derived quantity?
mass
time
temperature
volume
volume
44
What characteristic of a sample of liquid does the tool shown here measure?
(cylinder)
mass
volume
density
weight
Volume
45
What device is commonly used to measure temperature?
scale
thermometer
ruler
clock
thermometer
46
Which device could NOT be used to measure length?
tape measure
meter stick
ruler
balance scale
balance scale
47
Which of the following pairs of variables has an inverse relationship?
the volume of a sample of liquid and the mass of the sample
Your driving speed and the time required to drive a certain distance
how hard an object is pushed and how fast it moves
the speed of a hurricane's winds and the amount of damage they cause"
Your driving speed and the time required to drive a certain distance
48
Which of the following pairs of variables have a direct relationship?
the mass of a car and the amount of force needed to move the car
the steepness of a ramp and the amount of time needed for a ball to roll down the ramp
how fast water flows out of a faucet and how long it takes the water to fill a bucket
the number of people working on a project and the time it takes to finish the project.
the mass of a car and the amount of force needed to move the car
49
Which of the following derived units do NOT measure speed?
m/s
km/hr
cm/day
mm/min^2
mm/min^2
50
If the net force is zero on a motorcycle traveling at 20 m/s, which of the following statements is true concerning the motion of the motorcycle?
The motorcycle will accelerate at a rate of 20 m/s2.
The motorcycle will come to a stop.
The motorcycle will continue traveling at 20 m/s.
The motorcycle’s motion will change.
The motorcycle will continue traveling at 20 m/s.
51
For which case is there a net force acting on the object?
An apple that has fallen to the ground
A hockey puck sliding across the ice at a constant speed in a straight line
A rocket accelerating upward at a rate of 5 m/s2
A 300 pound weight being held motionless over the head of a weightlifter
A rocket accelerating upward at a rate of 5 m/s2
52
A non-zero net force is necessary to
maintain constant velocity
cause acceleration
keep an object at rest
increase the mass of an object
cause acceleration
53
Which of the following force statements is FALSE?
A force is a push or a pull.
A force is not needed to cause acceleration.
A force can cause a change in motion.
Acceleration is caused by a force.
A force is not needed to cause acceleration.
54
A car’s engine provides a force of 200 N forward, while a force of 150 N from air resistance acts to oppose the car’s motion. What is the net force and its direction on the car?
50 N, forward
50 N, backward
350 N, forward
350 N, backward
50 N, forward
55
If the net force acting on an object is halved, how will the acceleration change?
The acceleration will be half as much.
The acceleration will double.
The acceleration will remain the same.
The acceleration will change in an unpredictable way.
The acceleration will be half as much. The acceleration
56
Two tug boats attach their lines to a separate barges with the same masses in a shipping channel. If one tugboat pulls Barge A towards the west while the other tugboat pulls Barge B in the same direction applying twice as much force, which barge will accelerate more?
Barge B
Barge A
Neither, they will accelerate at the same rate.
Neither will accelerate.
Barge B
57
Which of the following statements regarding inertia is FALSE?
Objects with more inertia are easier to accelerate.
Inertia is the tendency of an object to keep its same motion.
Objects with less mass have less inertia.
It is more difficult to cause objects with more inertia to change velocity.
Objects with more inertia are easier to accelerate.
58
Inertia depends on an object’s
weight
acceleration
mass
direction
mass
59
A moving van worker notices that the amount of force that he has to apply to get a couch to start moving across a room depends on the __________ of the couch because of inertia.
size
color
mass
length
mass
60
If you press your hand downward on a book lying on a table, the reaction force to your hand is __________.
the book pushing up against your hand
your hand pushing the book down against the table
the table pushing up against your hand
gravity pulling your hand downward
the book pushing up against your hand
61
Which of the following scenarios involves an action-reaction force pair?
A ball is hit by a bat, and the force of gravity pulls the ball downward.
A kangaroo pushes off the ground, and the ground pushes the kangaroo forward.
A person pushes down on a chair, and the chair pushes down on the ground.
Two ice skaters (John and Elisa) push off from each other. As John pushes Elisa forward, his muscles push him backward causing him to slide across the ice.
A kangaroo pushes off the ground, and the ground pushes the kangaroo forward.
62
Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement regarding action-reaction forces?
Action and reaction forces are always equal and opposite.
Both action and reaction forces are real forces.
For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
Objects that are interacting must be moving for Newton’s third law to apply to them.
Objects that are interacting must be moving for Newton’s third law to apply to them.
63
During your trip, your car goes through several different types of motion changes. After a few minutes of driving at a constant ____________ of 25 m/s toward the East, you approach a stop sign and come to a stop.
speed
velocity
acceleration
direction
velocity
64
Identify which of the following is NOT an action-reaction force pair.
Action - A horse pulls a cart forward. Reaction - The cart pulls back against the horse.
Action - The Earth pulls a falling rock downward toward it. Reaction - The rock pulls the Earth upward toward it.
Action - A bird flapping its wings pushes air downward. Reaction - The air pushes up on the bird’s wings.
Action - A rocket taking off blasts exhaust gases against the ground. Reaction - The ground pushes the rocket upward.
Action - A rocket taking off blasts exhaust gases against the ground. Reaction - The ground pushes the rocket upward.
65
If the acceleration of an empty truck is 1.5 m/s2, what will happen to its acceleration if it is fully loaded and its total mass doubles?
The acceleration will not change.
The acceleration will be half as much.
The acceleration will double.
The acceleration will be zero.
The acceleration will be half as much.
66
A driver uses a forklift to push a full cart of bricks halfway down an aisle with a force of 20 newtons. If the driver pushes an empty cart the rest of the way down the aisle using the same 20 newtons of force, how does the acceleration of the empty cart compare with that of the full cart of bricks?
The acceleration will be the same.
The acceleration will be zero.
The acceleration of the empty cart will be less than that of the full cart because it has less mass.
The acceleration of the empty cart will be more than that of the full cart because it has less mass.
The acceleration of the empty cart will be more than that of the full cart because it has less mass.
67
If the mass of an object is halved and its speed doubled, its momentum will __________.
not change
double
halve
increase by a factor of 4
not change
68
The law of conservation of total linear momentum states that __________.
Any momentum lost by one object in a collision will be gained by the other.
The total momentum in a system is different before and after a collision.
The type of collision determines whether or not the total momentum is conserved.
The momentum of any object involved in a collision does not change.
Any momentum lost by one object in a collision will be gained by the other.
69
Friction usually acts to oppose, or slow down, the velocity of objects. Which situation is an example of friction causing an INCREASE in velocity?
a golf ball rolling downhill on a putting green
air flow over an airplane wing
a box sitting on a flatbed truck as the truck accelerates forward
the fan on an airboat
a box sitting on a flatbed truck as the truck accelerates forward
70
Which of the following is a disadvantage of friction?
Friction makes it possible for you to grasp items with your hand.
Friction enables you to walk.
Friction reduces the efficiency of engines and other machines by converting parts of their kinetic energy into heat.
Air resistance of a parachute slows down the descent of a skydiver.
Friction reduces the efficiency of engines and other machines by converting parts of their kinetic energy into heat.
71
You are able to walk forward because as your foot pushes backward on the
ground, the reaction force of the ground pushes you forward. If your
foot doesn’t slip in this process, the reaction force of the ground
pushing you forward is an example of?
static friction
mass
kinetic friction
force
static friction
72
If you tried to walk forward on ice, your foot would slip This would be an example of ____.
static friction
mass
kinetic friction
force
kinetic friction
73
Friction is a force that usually slows down or prevents motion. However, friction can sometimes cause an object to speed up, such as when you walk forward. The frictional force between the ground and your foot is what actually pushes you forward (as your foot pushes backward on the ground). Identify which instance below describes a scenario in which the frictional force is NOT responsible for slowing the object down.
Air resistance on a moving car
Sliding a book across your desk
A package on a moving conveyer belt
A sled on snow
A package on a moving conveyer belt
74
Which of the following factors has no effect on the force of friction between two solid objects?
the smoothness of the surfaces between the objects
the type of materials the objects are made of
the relative speed of the objects to each other
the magnitude of the contact force between the objects
the relative speed of the objects to each other
75
A brick is dragged across a concrete floor. The type of friction that acts between the brick and the floor is ________ friction.
kinetic
static
fluid
rolling
kinetic
76
Why is an applied force necessary to keep most objects in our world moving at a constant velocity?
Because the natural tendency of any object is to come to rest
Because a frictional force opposing motion acts on most objects
Because the object’s weight acts to slow it down
Because a force is needed to accelerate an object
Because a frictional force opposing motion acts on most objects
77
Which of the following statements is inaccurate about gravity?
It would be impossible to walk without gravity.
Gravity is an attractive force.
The force of gravity is what holds us to Earth’s surface.
Only very large objects exert a gravitational force.
Only very large objects exert a gravitational force.
78
If we could stop a planet for just an instant and then let it go, what would happen to it?
It would continue orbiting the sun.
It would spiral away from the sun into space.
It would fall into the sun.
It would remain motionless.
It would fall into the sun.
79
Consider a box lying on a table. If another box is stacked on top of it, how will the gravitational force (weight) of the top box affect the frictional force between the bottom box and the table if someone pushes slowly on the lower box?
The frictional force will decrease.
The frictional force will remain the same.
The frictional force will increase.
It is impossible to determine how the frictional force will change.
The frictional force will increase.
80
If the distance between Earth and sun were decreased, how would the gravitational force between them change?
The gravitational force would remain the same.
The gravitational force would increase.
The gravitational force would decrease.
The gravitational force is not relevant
The gravitational force would increase.
81
If the mass of the Earth were doubled (while keeping its size the same), how much more would you weigh at the surface?
You would weigh the same.
You would weigh half as much.
You would weigh twice as much.
You would weigh four times as much.
You would weigh twice as much.
82
For which of the following cases is work NOT done on the specified object?
a librarian holding a book in her hands (object is the book)
lifting a glass (object is the glass)
racing up stairs (object is your body)
pressing the key of a piano (object is the piano key)
a librarian holding a book in her hands (object is the book)
83
The ability to do work is called
acceleration
force
energy
momentum
energy
84
The unit of work is a
meter (m)
watt (W)
newton (N)
joule (J)
joule (J)
85
Work always results in
the transfer of energy from one object (or place) to another
the loss of energy
an increase in an object’s speed
an increased ability to do work
the transfer of energy from one object (or place) to another
86
The energy stored in a compressed spring is called
electromagnetic energy
elastic potential energy
kinetic energy
thermal energy
elastic potential energy
87
Which of the following would increase an object’s kinetic energy the most?
changing its direction
doubling its speed
bringing it to a complete stop
reversing its direction of motion
doubling its speed
88
If you triple your car’s speed, it will__________ the kinetic energy.
increase
decrease
not change
halve
increase
89
If a rock is raised to twice its original height, it will _________ the gravitational potential energy.
halve
increase
not change
decrease
increase
90
Thermal energy that is transferred is called
temperature
heat
kelvins
work
heat
91
Which of the following is an INCORRECT interpretation of the law of conservation of energy?
Energy can be converted from one form to another.
Energy cannot be created.
Energy cannot be destroyed.
The total energy involved in any process does not remain constant.
The total energy involved in any process does not remain constant.
92
When a toy dart gun is fired, the potential energy stored in the compressed spring is converted to __________ energy of the dart.
thermal
chemical potential
kinetic
electromagnetic
kinetic
93
When the brakes of a car lock its wheels, causing the car to slide, the frictional force between the wheels and ground cause the energy of motion of the car to become _________ energy.
thermal
chemical potential
gravitational potential
kinetic
thermal
94
In which of the following situations would thermal energy be transferred from the given object to the surroundings? Ignore the effects of friction.
a roller-coaster car rolling down the track
a hot hard-boiled egg placed in a bowl of cold water
a stereo speaker causing the floor to vibrate
a waterfall causing a mill wheel to turn
a hot hard-boiled egg placed in a bowl of cold water
95
Plants convert sunlight into useful energy that is stored in the form of carbohydrates (a process called photosynthesis). Which energy conversion best describes this process?
electromagnetic energy to chemical potential energy
electromagnetic energy to kinetic energy
chemical potential energy to electromagnetic energy
gravitational potential energy to chemical potential energy
electromagnetic energy to chemical potential energy
96
Which energy conversion BEST describes the process of a bomb exploding?
thermal energy to gravitational potential energy
electromagnetic energy to potential energy
thermal energy to kinetic energy
chemical potential energy to kinetic energy
chemical potential energy to kinetic energy
97
The law of conservation of energy states that
energy can sometimes be destroyed
energy can only be transferred, not converted into a different form
the total energy of the universe remains constant
an object’s energy remains constant
the total energy of the universe remains constant
98
What type of wave would be produced by light from a flashlight?
electromagnetic
mechanical
sound
spring
electromagnetic
99
What type of wave could you produce waving a rope?
electromagnetic
mechanical
sound
spring
mechanical
100
A spring with a small steel block attached hangs from the ceiling. The block comes to rest at location B. Next the block is pulled to position C, and then released. As the block moves, it passes point B then point A, then again goes from A to B to C, and so on, moving up and down.
What point represents the equilibrium position of the block?
Ceiling
A
B
C
B
101
A spring with a small steel block attached hangs from the ceiling, and
the block comes to rest at location B. Next, the block is displaced to
position C and released. As the block moves, it passes point B then
point A, then again goes from A to B to C, and so on.
What point represents the trough positions of the block?
Ceiling
A
B
C
c
102
As the end of this coiled spring is moved back and forth along the direction of the spring, what kind of wave travels along the coiled spring?
a longitudinal wave
a transverse wave
a electromagnetic wave
a sound wave
a longitudinal wave
103
Which of the following characteristics distinguishes a longitudinal wave from a transverse wave?
the speed at which the wave travels
the amplitude of the wave’s vibration
the frequency of the wave’s vibration
the direction of the wave’s vibration
the direction of the wave’s vibration
104
Deep ocean waves carry energy long distances across the the ocean. In the image below, how does the wave carry the energy it needs to move the life preserver from a long distance?
The ocean currents carry the moving water to the life preserver.
The wave pattern travels along the water without carrying the water itself very far.
The entire ocean moves back and forth to create energy.
The wind that causes the waves also moves the life preserver.
The wave pattern travels along the water without carrying the water itself very far.
105
How does a sound wave carry energy from a loudspeaker to the ear of the listener?
The vibrating molecules move from the speaker to the ear of the listener.
The pattern of compressions travels; the air itself remains in about the same place.
Air currents move with the sound to carry the vibrating molecules to the listener.
Sound waves are transferred through empty space independent of matter molecules
The pattern of compressions travels; the air itself remains in about the same place.
106
A difference in which of the following characteristics distinguishes radio waves from X-rays?
amplitude
speed
ability to travel in vacuum
wavelength
wavelength
107
If you are told the wavelength of the light emitted by a laser, what could you infer about that light?
its amplitude
its intensity
its color
its speed in a vacuum
its color
108
Microwaves are commonly used for
cell phone communication
medical imaging
treating tumors
illumination for reading
cell phone communication
109
Radio waves are commonly used for which of the following purposes?
medical imaging of bone fractures
controlling air traffic by locating planes
verifying the authenticity of a hundred dollar bill
providing plants with the energy for photosynthesis
controlling air traffic by locating planes
110
111
Visible light is commonly used for which of the following purposes?
medical imaging of bone fractures
air traffic control routing airplanes
verifying the authenticity of a hundred dollar bill
providing plants with the energy for photosynthesis
providing plants with the energy for photosynthesis
112
What kind of electromagnetic radiation is likely to cause a nasty sunburn if you don’t use sunscreen at the beach?
infrared
radio waves
visible light
ultraviolet
ultraviolet
113
Which wave from the list below is known to require a medium to travel?
electromagnetic waves
sound waves
elastic waves
coil waves
sound waves
114
Which wave from the list below is known to travel through a vacuum?
electromagnetic waves
sound waves
elastic waves
coil waves
electromagnetic waves
115
Which wave from the list below has the greatest speed?
electromagnetic waves
sound waves
elastic waves
coil waves
electromagnetic waves
116
What type of wave would be produced by the motion of a slinky (spring)?
electromagnetic
mechanical
sound
spring
mechanical
117
the signal from the button you press on the key fob to lock your car doors remotely
electromagnetic
mechanical
sound
spring
electromagnetic waves
118
A spring with a small steel block attached hangs from the ceiling, and
the block comes to rest at location B. Next, the block is displaced to
position C and released. As the block moves, it passes point B then
point A, then again goes from A to B to C, and so on.
What point represents the crest position of the wavelength of the block?
Ceiling
A
B
C
ceiling
119
A spring with a small steel block attached hangs from the ceiling, and
the block comes to rest at location B. Next, the block is displaced to
position C and released. As the block moves, it passes point B then
point A, then again goes from A to B to C, and so on.
What point represents the equilibrium positions of the block?
Ceiling
A
B
C
b
120
As the end of the coiled spring is moved up and down, what kind of wave travels along the coiled spring?
a longitudinal wave
a transverse wave
a electromagnetic wave
a sound wave
a transverse wave
121
The ______ of a sound waves defines how loud or soft a sound will be.
amplitude
frequency
wavelength
direction
amplitude
122
When one end of a long rope is secured in a stationary spot and you move the other end of the rope rope up and down, you will create waves in the rope. Those waves carry energy. How is that energy carried along the length of the rope a wave?
The wave form travels along the rope without each small segment of rope moving very far.
The entire rope moves back and forth together.
A longitudinal compression wave moves down the rope.
Vibrations in the air and surroundings carry the energy of the rope.
The wave form travels along the rope without each small segment of rope moving very far.
123
Which of the following statements BEST describes why the sound produced by a major explosion on the moon would never be heard on the Earth?
Sound waves have too low a speed to travel that far a distance.
Sound waves have too small an amplitude to carry the sound to Earth.
Sound waves require a medium to transport their energy.
Sound waves have too long a wavelength to travel through space.
Sound waves require a medium to transport their energy.
124
If an electromagnetic wave’s wavelength is equal to the diameter of Earth, what kind of electromagnetic wave is it?
X-ray
microwave
gamma ray
radio wave
radio wave
125
Which of the following sets correctly lists colors of light in order of increasing wavelength?
red, blue, green
red, green, blue
blue, green, red
blue, red, green
blue, green, red
126
X-rays waves are commonly used for which of the following purposes?
medical imaging of bone fractures
controlling air traffic by locating planes
verifying the authenticity of a hundred dollar bill
providing plants with the energy for photosynthesis
medical imaging of bone fractures
127
Ultraviolet light is commonly used for which of the following purposes?
medical imaging of bone fractures
controlling air traffic by locating planes
verifying the authenticity of a hundred dollar bill
providing plants with the energy for photosynthesis
verifying the authenticity of a hundred dollar bill
128
Electromagnetic radiation travels as waves, and the amount of energy it delivers when absorbed by matter, or, the damage it can cause, depends on its wavelength. Which kind of light delivers the most energy and is the most damaging?
X-rays
infrared
microwaves
radio waves
X-rays
129
Which wave from the list below is known to travel incredibly fast?
electromagnetic waves
sound waves
elastic waves
coil waves
electromagnetic waves
130
Which wave from the list below is known to travel in a transverse pattern?
electromagnetic waves
sound waves
elastic waves
coil waves
electromagnetic waves
131
Which wave from the list below is known to travel in a longitudinal pattern?
electromagnetic waves
sound waves
elastic waves
coil waves
sound waves
132
When lightning strikes, it may take several seconds before you hear the sound of thunder. This happens because?
the light has more energy than the sound
light is much faster than sound
light can travel in a vacuum
light travels more slowly in air than in a vacuum
light is much faster than sound
133
Which of the following is a type of matter?
air in a balloon
electricity running through a wire
both air in a balloon and electricity running through a wire
neither air in a balloon nor electricity running through a wire
air in a balloon
134
Which of the following particles is described as the basic building block of matter?
compounds
mixtures
pure substances
atoms
atoms
135
Which of the following subatomic particles are located in the nucleus of the atom?
protons and neutrons
protons only
neutrons only
electrons only
protons, neutrons, and electrons
protons and neutrons
136
Which of the following BEST describes the location of electrons within the atom?
in the nucleus
outside of the nucleus
in orbits around the nucleus
in an electron cloud around the nucleus
in an electron cloud around the nucleus
137
Two atoms each have 20 protons and 20 electrons. However, one of these atoms has 20 neutrons and the other has 22 neutrons. What is the relationship between these atoms?
They are the same element.
They are different elements.
They are the same molecule.
They are different molecule.
they are the same element
138
The atomic number of iron (Fe) is 26. What does this tell you about an atom of iron?
The sum of protons and neutrons in an atom of iron is 26.
An atom of iron has 26 protons.
An atom of iron has 26 neutrons.
The sum of protons, neutrons, and electrons in an atom of iron is 26.
An atom of iron has 26 protons.
139
Which of the following statements about the masses of subatomic particles is true?
Electrons have very little mass compared to protons and neutrons.
Protons, neutrons, and electrons all have about the same mass.
Electrons have no mass.
Neutrons have very little mass compared to electrons and protons.
Protons and neutrons have very little mass compared to electrons.
Electrons have very little mass compared to protons and neutrons.
140
Which of the following subatomic particles is electrically neutral?
neutrons
protons
electrons
protons and electrons
neutrons
141
Which of the following subatomic particles is negatively charged?
neutrons
protons
electrons
protons and electrons
electrons
142
Which of the following subatomic particles is positively charged?
neutrons
protons
electrons
protons and electrons
protons
143
What is the significance of valence electrons?
Valence electrons are involved in forming chemical bonds.
Valence electrons contribute significantly to the mass of an atom.
Valence electrons cause an atom to move very rapidly when it is in its gaseous state.
Valence electrons have a different charge than those electrons that are closer to the nucleus.
Valence electrons are involved in forming chemical bonds.
144
Which of the following statements is true of valence electrons?
Valence electrons are those electrons that are furthest away from the nucleus of an atom.
Valence electrons are those electrons that are closest to the nucleus of an atom.
Valence electrons have more electrical charge than other electrons.
Valence electrons have less electrical charge than other electrons.
Valence electrons are those electrons that are furthest away from the nucleus of an atom.
145
When two atoms form a chemical bond with one another, which subatomic particles are involved?
protons
neutrons
electrons
protons and electrons
electrons
146
Which of the following statements regarding the formation of compounds from elements is true?
When elements combine to form compounds, chemical bonds form between the atoms of the compound.
When elements combine to form compounds, chemical bonds are broken between the atoms of the compound.
When elements combine to form compounds, the number of neutrons in each atom changes.
When elements combine to form compounds, the atoms change into something new
When elements combine to form compounds, chemical bonds form between the atoms of the compound.
147
Which of the following are considered pure substances?
mixture
compound
element
elements and compounds
compounds and mixtures
elements and compounds
148
Which of the following statements about elements is true?
Some elements exist as molecules.
Some elements contain different types of atoms.
All elements exist as molecules.
An element never exists as a molecule.
Some elements exist as molecules.
149
Which of the following is the correct scientific definition for a pure substance?
A pure substance contains only one element or compound.
A pure substance contains only one type of atom.
A pure substance has all impurities removed.
A pure substance is always a compound.
A pure substance contains only one element or compound.
150
Which of the following correctly describes a microscopic property of a liquid that results in an observed macroscopic property?
A liquid pours because particles slide past one another.
A liquid cannot be compressed because particles slide past one another.
A liquid can be compressed because particles are far apart.
A liquid pours because particles are close together.
A liquid pours because particles slide past one another.
151
Why does a solid have a fixed shape?
The particles vibrate in place but do not move past each other.
The particles in a solid do not move at all.
The particles in a solid repel each other, so they are spread far apart and cannot be pushed closer together.
Solids can change shape when wet.
The particles vibrate in place but do not move past each other.
152
A chemist is working with three different samples of the same substance. Each sample is a different state. In which state of matter are the particles moving the fastest: solid, liquid, or gas?
gas
solid
liquid
plasma
gas
153
Which of the following is a chemical change?
A metal bridge turns brown as it rusts.
Water evaporates off a hot stovetop.
Rocks become smooth when they tumble in the surf.
Hot wax is poured into a candle mold.
a metal bridge turns brown as it rusts.
154
Salt dissolves in water to form saltwater. Is this considered a chemical change or a physical change?
This is a physical change.
This is a chemical change.
This is a chemical change and physical change
This is neither a chemical change and physical change
This is a physical change.
155
The fuel in a lighter is butane. When butane burns, the following change takes place.
2C4H10 + 13O2 → 8CO2 + 10H2O
Is this a chemical change or a physical change?
This is a physical change.
This is a chemical change.
This is a chemical change and physical change
This is neither a chemical change and physical change
This is a chemical change.
156
Two atoms of nitrogen bond together to form N2. What type of chemical is N2?
N2 is an element.
N2 is a compound.
N2 is a mixture.
N2 is a proton
N2 is an element.
157
Cu+1 is an ion of copper with a charge of plus one. If Cu+1 loses an electron, what will be formed?
Cu+2
Cu
Ni+1
Zn+1
Cu+2
158
What type of bond forms when electrons are shared between 2 non-metal atoms?
covalent bond
ionic bond
metallic bond
hydrogen bond
covalent bond
159
Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin. What type of bond holds bronze together?
metallic bond
ionic bond
covalent bond
hydrogen bond
metallic bond
160
What happens to the electrons when a metallic bond is formed?
Electrons float free in an electron sea.
Electrons are shared between two atoms.
Electrons are transferred from one atom to another.
Electrons float away.
Electrons float free in an electron sea.
161
Which of the following statements about metalloids is true?
Metalloids are shiny and have intermediate conductivity.
Metalloids are dull and have intermediate conductivity.
Metalloids are shiny and have high conductivity.
Metalloids are shiny and have low conductivity.
Metalloids are shiny and have intermediate conductivity.
162
You conduct experiments on a sample of an unknown element and find that it is shiny, malleable, ductile, and conducts electricity well. In which of the following categories does this element MOST LIKELY belong?
metalloid
nonmetal
metal
noble gas
metal
163
Aluminum (Al) and chlorine (Cl2) can react to form aluminum chloride (AlCl3) according to the following balanced chemical equation:
2Al+3Cl2→2AlCl3
If 10 g of aluminum reacts with 39 g of chlorine, how many grams of aluminum chloride will form?
10 g
29 g
39 g
49 g
49g
164
An inflated balloon expands when placed in the hot sun. Why?
The heat creates new matter.
A chemical reaction occurs that causes the matter to take up more space.
The particles of matter in the balloon spread out more, which increases the size of the balloon.
More air was added to the balloon.
The particles of matter in the balloon spread out more, which increases the size of the balloon.
165
An ice cube has a mass of 100 g. How much liquid water is present when the ice cube melts?
100 g
more than 100 g
less than 100g
there is no way to tell
100g
166
Two molecules of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) react to form two molecules of water (H2O) and one molecule of oxygen (O2) according to the following balanced chemical equation:
2H2O2→2H2O+O2
What substances are reactants in this reaction?
H2O and O2 are both reactants.
H2O2, H2O, and O2 are all reactants.
H2O2 is the only reactant.
2H2O2 and H2O are both reactants.
H2O2 is the only reactant.
167
Which statement is true about chemical and physical changes?
Matter is conserved in chemical changes, but not physical changes.
Matter is conserved in physical changes, but not chemical changes.
Matter is not conserved during any type of change.
Matter is conserved in both chemical and physical changes.
Matter is conserved in both chemical and physical changes.
168
The temperature increases as the result of the following chemical reaction:
A + B → C
What happens to the motion and kinetic energy of particles of matter?
The motion and kinetic energy of particles decreases.
The motion and kinetic energy of particles increases.
The motion and kinetic energy of particles stays the same.
there is no way to measure the kinetic energy of a particle.
The motion and kinetic energy of particles increases.
169
Which of the following processes result in an increase in the motion and kinetic energy of particles?
condensation and freezing
melting and evaporation
melting and condensation
evaporation and freezing
melting and evaporation
170
Wearing damp clothes can make you feel cold. Why?
The water has an equal temperature to the surrounding air.
The water has a lower temperature than the surrounding air.
The water condenses, a process that absorbs heat from your body.
The water evaporates, a process that absorbs heat from your body.
The water evaporates, a process that absorbs heat from your body.
171
The Orion molecular cloud complex is the most active region of star formation nearest to Earth’s own sun. A new star would be MOST likely to form in the cloud complex where the amount of hydrogen, helium and lithium is the __________ because of the gravitational attraction between the dust particles.
brightest
coldest
most dense
least dense
most dense
172
The core of a star is an intense environment. The temperatures can be greater than 15 million Kelvin when nuclear fusion of hydrogen takes place in the core of a star, which is achievable because _________ creates the tremendous pressure needed to force the hydrogen atoms together.
helium
fission
gravity
sound
gravity
173
Stars are grouped together in _______ because of the attraction for each other due to gravity.
constellations
nebulae
solar systems
galaxies
galaxies
174
Gravity is the unifying force of attraction in the universe. Gravity explains why the moon orbits Earth, Jupiter orbits the sun and the sun orbits ______ in the Milky Way Galaxy
the solar system
other stars
a black hole
the universe
a black hole
175
Newton’s first law of motion says that planets continue to move in a straight line in the same direction until an outside force acts on them. Newton’s law of universal gravitation says that planets are attracted to the sun by gravity. To obey both laws, the planets _____
spin on their axis
move in a straight line
move in a circular or elliptical orbit
stop moving
move in a circular or elliptical orbit around the
176
In which of the following pairs, does the first planet listed have an orbit closer to the sun?
Venus and Mercury
Mars and Jupiter
Uranus and Saturn
Earth and Venus
Mars and Jupiter
177
Which of the following planets has the highest density?
Mars
Uranus
Jupiter
Saturn
Neptune
Mars
178
Gravitational collapse accounts for how the primordial gas _____ mainly evolved into _______where the process ______ of produced other elements with heavier nuclei. In addition, it accounts for the orbit of the moon around Earth.
nitrogen, planets, fission
nitrogen, stars, fusion
hydrogen, planets, fission
hydrogen, stars, fusion
hydrogen, stars, fusion
179
When the sun and planets formed, heavier and more massive elements collected closer to the sun. The largest of the planets, Jupiter, would be composed of _______ than Earth.
heavier elements
lighter elements
more elements
less elements
lighter elements
180
All of the following move in orbits; however, the ________ are mainly located in the area of space between Mars and Jupiter.
asteroids
comets
planets
moons
asteroids
181
As Earth orbits around the sun once per year, it also spins on its axis once per day. This spinning motion causes the __________ . Namely the side of Earth facing the sun experiences day, and the opposite side night.
tilt of Earth
change between night and day
change in seasons
sun to rotate, which causes the tides
change between night an dday
182
The cause of seasons on Earth is due to the
distance of Earth from the sun
spinning of Earth on its axis
tilt of Earth’s axis
tidal pulling of the moon on Earth’s oceans.
tilt of the Earth's axis
183
The Northern hemisphere and Southern hemisphere are unequally heated by the sun so that when the north pole of Earth is tilted ________ the sun, the season in the Northern hemisphere is summer because the sunlight strikes more directly into the ground rather than at a glancing angle.
perpendicular to
parallel to
away from
toward
toward
184
When Earth’s axis is tilted so that the northern hemisphere is pointing away from the sun, the variation in temperature at the north pole would be ________ if Earth was not tilted at all.
exactly the same
a little more than
a lot more than
a lot less than
a lot more than
185
The tilt of the axis as Earth orbits the sun results in ________ geographic variations of solar radiation at Earth’s equator than at the poles. When more sunlight falls on the Northern hemisphere than the Southern, then:
the Northern hemisphere experiences __________, while
the Southern hemisphere experience the ____________ season.
larger, summer, winter
smaller, summer, winter
larger, winter, summer
smaller, winter, summer
smaller, summer, winter
186
Which of Earth's layer is the thickest and and is made of hot, solid rock?
inner core
outer core
oceanic crust
mantle
mantle
187
Which of Earth’s layers is as hot as the surface of the sun, yet is solid due to extreme pressure?
outer core
where the crust meets the mantle
inner core
mantle
inner core
188
Stone Mountain is a granite rock dome in Stone Mountain State Park in
North Carolina near the Virginia border. The mountain’s surface is
indented with rounded, irregularly shaped pit depressions in the rock.
When the water freezes and thaws, the rock surface breaks apart. If the particle is completely dislodged and moves out from the pit, the process is called?
meander
deposition
erosion
weathering
erosion
189
The tallest dunes in North America are the shifting, golden Great Sand Dunes at the base of the Sangre de Cristo Mountains near Alamosa, Colorado and were designated as a National Park in 2000. The huge dunes of sand that lack any covering vegetation were formed when sand carried by the Rio Grande River and its tributaries was placed in the river valley by a process known as what?
deposition
weathering
erosion
wind
wind
190
When sand storms sting our eyes and fill the windows of beachside cabins with fine grains of sand, the nearby beach is left a little smaller because of erosion by
glaciers
gravity
wind
flowing water
wind
191
The Mississippi River has the 7th largest __________ in the world, created from the deposition of water-carried sediments and nutrients derived from a drainage basin comprising 41 percent of the continental United States.
river valley
meander
delta
deposition
delta
192
Weathering and water erosion carved _________ where the Connecticut River, the largest river in the New England watershed, drains through Vermont and New Hampshire as it flows past rolling hills, forests, fields, communities, and residential areas, dropping more than 755 meters in elevation as it winds south to the border of Massachusetts.
dunes
alluvial fans
deltas
river valleys
river valleys
193
In order for a dune to form, it is necessary that _________ be present to cause deposition of the sand.
water
waves
obstacles
trees
obstacles
194
A popular trend in cosmetics is to use mica in eyeshadow, nail polish, and makeup to add lovely flecks of sparkle. Mica is mined as flakey, layered sheets of silicates that are ground up for use in makeup. Mica is classified as a
mineral
sediment
glacier
vitamin
mineral
195
Calcite is a very common component of the Earth’s crust. Calcite is made up of one type of molecule (CaCO3), and is classified as a
mineral
rock
sediment
glacier
mineral
196
Lava is comprised of molten rock released from active volcanos. Lava that flows down the sides of a mountain and eventually cools becomes _________ rock.
igneous
metamorphic
sedimentary
magma
igneous
197
Hydraulic fracturing (or “fracking”) and horizontal drilling release natural gas trapped in shale rock formations between 1 and 2 km below Earth’s surface. Shales are ________ rocks that form when particles are cemented together.
igneous
metamorphic
sedimentary
magma
sedimentary
198
Dinosaurs lived in the ______ era.
Mesozoic
Precambrian
Proterozoic
Paleozoic
Mesozoic
199
The very few organisms preserved as fossils are more likely to be found in _______ rocks than in the other rock types because fossils are best preserved in environments without high pressure and temperature, and where there is also a lack of oxygen.
igneous
metamorphic
sedimentary
magma
sedimentary
200
Alfred Wegener noticed that the coastline of the western edge of Africa looked like it would fit almost perfectly with the coastline of _______ , which in part led him to develop the theory of plate tectonics.
Europe
Antarctica
Australia
South America
South America
201
Blast furnaces heated to around 1650 °C are used to produce iron from iron ore for subsequent processing into steel. Which of Earth’s layers has average temperatures three times higher than a blast furnace, or about 5000 °C, and is composed largely of iron in a liquid state?
the outer core
the mantle
the crust
the inner core
the outer core
202
Stone Mountain is a granite rock dome in Stone Mountain State Park in North Carolina near the Virginia border. The mountain’s surface is indented with rounded, irregularly shaped pit depressions in the rock. When the water freezes and thaws, the rock surface breaks apart. When a tiny particle is loosened, chemically or mechanically, but stays in the pit of its rock, the process is called?
weathering
erosion
deposition
meander
weathering
203
Thousands of delicately carved spires known as “hoodoos” rise in brilliant rose pink color in Bryce Canyon National Park in Utah. What process occurs to shape and etch the hoodoos from the pink cliffs as the dissolved and fractured rock is removed from the cliffs?
deposition
glacial erosion
erosion
wind weathering
erosion
204
Landslides are a rapid erosion in which large amounts of weathered rock suddenly fall down a cliff or mountainside because of
glaciers
gravity
wind
flowing water
gravity
205
A cause of erosion that moves particles like soil, sand, and even some gravel rapidly for great horizontal distances is
wind
flowing water
glaciers
gravity
flowing water
206
The Shenandoah River flows northeast along the western edge of the Blue Ridge with an average gradient typically less than 1 meter per kilometer. As the slowly flowing river flows through a fertile plain with a fairly constant elevation, the winding of the river could BEST be described as
alluvial fans
meanders
river valleys
deltas
meanders
207
Sleeping Bear Dunes on the eastern shore of Lake Michigan have landform features arising from erosion of small particles of sand carried by _________ that are deposited on the lakeshore.
wind
animals
glaciers
rivers
wind
208
A trend in home remodeling has been to upgrade kitchens to granite countertops because of the strength and durability of granite, and the choice of hundreds of different colors available. There are so many color choices because granite is a
mountain
mineral
sediment
rock
rock
209
_________ rock forms when rock is partially buried under conditions of high temperature and pressure that cause it to deform.
Igneous
Metamorphic
Sedimentary
mineral
Metamorphic
210
Rain, wind and gravity are likely to contribute to transforming _______ through weathering and erosion.
igneous rocks to metamorphic rocks
igneous rocks to sedimentary rocks
metamorphic rocks to magma
metamorphic rocks to igneous rocks
igneous rocks to sedimentary rocks
211
In the _____________ era, one of largest scale diversifications of life forms occurred and resulted in many species of fish, reptiles and invertebrates.
Precambrian
Paleozoic
Mesozoic
Cenozoic
Paleozoic
212
Geologists have found trilobites, marine animals that lived during the Paleozoic era, in Nebraska. This discovery suggests that during the Paleozoic era, the state was
dry
volcanic
a river valley
part of an ancient sea
part of on ancient sea
213
Areas with an increased risk of both earthquakes and volcanic activity are located
under the sea
near the center of a tectonic plate
near the convergent tectonic plate boundaries
near transform tectonic plate boundaries
near the convergent tectonic plate boundaries
214
When divergent plates move away from each other, the space between them gets filled with __________, which rises to the surface of the oceanic crust, cools, and forms mid-oceanic ridges.
water
rocks
air
magma
magma
215
The movement of tectonic plates toward each other occurs at ________ boundaries.
convergent
divergent
transform
oceanic
convergent
216
The most precise and most direct method to monitor the motion of the continents is by
GPS
paleomagnetic
geometric
seismic
GPS
217
The MOST abundant chemical element in Earth's atmosphere is
nitrogen
oxygen
argon
carbon
Nitrogen
218
Compared to the air pressure at the foot of a mountain, the air pressure at the top of a mountain is
higher
lower
the same
no way to tell
lower
219
Air molecules that are just above Earth’s surface belong to
the stratosphere
the thermosphere
the troposphere
the exosphere
the troposphere
220
Which atmospheric layer contains the ozone layer?
the troposphere
the mesosphere
the thermosphere
the stratosphere
the stratosphere
221
A light display that is typically visible in polar regions and is created by electrical activity in the ionosphere is called a(n)
lightning
ozone layer
aurora
Coriolis
Aurora
222
An air mass is warmed by the sun. What happens to the atmospheric pressure?
it decreases
it increases
it remains the same
It varies
it decreases
223
If Earth did not rotate, global air masses would move
from west to east
from east to west
from the continents toward the oceans
from the poles toward the equator
from the poles to the equator
224
Air pressure changes between various regions are the main causes of
clouds
winds
hail
snow
winds
225
A front is the boundary between
two air masses of different temperatures
two water masses of different temperatures
two air masses of different size
two land masses of different temperatures
two air masses of different temperatures
226
Water heats up more slowly than land. As a result, the land surface is warmer than the sea in the daytime. This creates a wind close to the surface that blows
from the sea toward the land
from the land toward the sea
from sea to sea
from land to land
from the sea toward the land
227
The hydrologic cycle is the motion of
liquid and solid water between the ocean, atmosphere and lakes
solid and gaseous water between the ocean, atmosphere, and land
liquid, gaseous, and solid water between the ocean, atmosphere, and land
liquid and solid water between the ocean, atmosphere, and land
almost all of it
228
When ice pellets travel up and down in clouds, becoming larger as they add layers of ice, _______ forms.
hail
snow
rain
ice clouds
hail
229
A column of fast-moving air that spins counter-clockwise in the northern hemisphere and is created when moist, warm air near the ocean surface is pulled upward is called a
hurricane
tornado
blizzard
whirlpool
hurricane
230
What is the MOST abundant greenhouse gas in the atmosphere?
nitrogen
oxygen
carbon dioxide
water vapor
water vapor
231
The greenhouse effect is
not a natural process
happening because too much solar radiation is reaching Earth
the absorption of solar radiation by greenhouse gases in the lower atmosphere
A hoax
the absorption of solar radiation by greenhouse gases in the lower atmosphere
232
