Altered function Flashcards

1
Q

what is the classic triad of Parkinson’s disease symptoms?

A

resting tremor- ‘pill rolling tremor’, improves on voluntary movement
rigidity- resistance to passive movement, cogwheel rigidity
bradykinesia- movements become slower and smaller e.g. shuffling gait, smaller handwriting, reduced facial movements/expressions

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2
Q

what are the Parkinson’s plus syndromes?

A

multi system atrophy
dementia with levy bodies
progressive subnuclear palsy
corticobasal degeneration

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3
Q

what are the treatments of Parkinsons disease?

A

levodopa- synthetic dopamine, usually given with a drug which reduces breakdown (co-carledopa, co-benyldopa)
COMT inhibitors- e.g. entacapone, inhibits breakdown of levodopa
dopamine agonists- e.g. pergolide, stimulates dopamine receptors
monoamine oxidase-B inhibitors- e.g. selegine, rasagline, monoamine oxidase-B breaks down neurotransmitters such as dopamine

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4
Q

what are the components of total anterior circulation stroke (TACS)?

A
unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) of at least 2 of face, arm or leg 
homonymous hemianopia 
higher cortical deficit (dysphasia, visuospatial loss)
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5
Q

what are the components of a posterior circulation stroke?

A

ipsilateral cranial nerve palsy and contralateral motor/sensory deficit
bilateral sensory/motor deficit
cerebellar dysfunction
isolated homonymous hemianopia

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6
Q

how is stroke managed?

A

CT head to rule out haemorrhage
aspirin 300mg stat (after CT) and continued for 2 weeks
thrombolysis for Altepase (tissue plasminogen activator) if it can be administered within 4.5 hours of symptom onset
thrombectomy- mechanical removal of clot

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7
Q

what is a TIA?

A

focal neurological deficit which completely resolves within 24 hours of onset

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8
Q

what is the typical history and CT signs of an extradural haemorrhage?

A

typical history- young patient with a traumatic head injury, rupture of middle meningeal artery
CT scan- bi-convex shape

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9
Q

what is the typical history and CT signs of an subdural haemorrhage?

A

typical history- occur most commonly in elderly or alcoholic patients (more atrophy, rupture of bridging veins
CT scan- crescent shaped

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10
Q

what is the typical history of subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

sudden onset occipital headache (thunderclap headache) which occurs during strenuous activity

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11
Q

what are the cerebellar signs?

A
DANISH 
Dysiadochokinesia- inability to perform rapid alternating movements 
Ataxia
Nystagmus
Intention tremor 
Slurred, staccato speech 
Hypotonia
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12
Q

what are the most common causes of bacterial meningitis?

A

Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcal meningitis) and strep pneumonia (pneumococcal meningitis)

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13
Q

what are the typical symptoms of bacterial meningitis?

A

fever, neck stiffness, headache, photophobia, altered consciousness and seizures
non-blanching rash- meningococcal septicaemia

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14
Q

how is meningitis managed?

A

blood culture and lumbar puncture
antibiotics according to local guidelines
steroids to prevent hearing loss
inform public health

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15
Q

what are the most common causes of viral meningitis?

A

herpes simplex virus
enterovirus
varicella zoster virus

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16
Q

what is the management of migraine?

A

conservative- dark, quiet room, sleep
paracetamol
NSAIDs- ibuprofen, naproxen
Triptans- sumatriptan as migraine starts
prophylaxis- propanolol, topiramate, amitryptyline

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17
Q

red flags for raised intracranial pressure

A

posture dependant headache
nausea and vomiting
sleep disturbance
decreased level of consciousness

18
Q

how is otitis externa managed?

A

mild- acetic acid

moderate- topical antibiotic and steroid (e.g gentamicin and hydrocortisone)

19
Q

what is the 1st line antibiotic in otitis media?

A

amoxicillin

20
Q

what is a cholesteatoma?

A

an accumulation of benign keratinising squamous cells which are hyperproliferating. they produce proteolytic enzymes which are locally destructive, eroding adjacent bone.
presentation- foul smelling discharge, conductive hearing loss, attic retraction, discharging attic perforation

21
Q

what are some causes of sensorineural hearing loss?

A

prebycusis- age related
noise-related hearing loss
labrynthitis- associated with tinnitus, pressure and vertigo
merniere’s disease- vertigo, fluctuating hearing loss, tinnitus, feeling of fullness
ototoxin exposure
infection- measles, meningitis, shingles, mumps

22
Q

what are the 4 sets of paranasal sinuses?

A

maxillary, ethmoid, frontal, and sphenoidal

23
Q

where do the sinuses drain?

A

frontal, maxillary and anterior ethmoids drain into the middle meatus
posterior ethmoids drain into the superior meatus
sphenoid sinus drains into the sphenoethmoidal recess

24
Q

how is rhinosinusitis manages?

A

analgesia- paracetamol, NSAIDs
nasal decongestant spray- xylometozaline
saline nasal irrigation
if no improvement- high dose steroid nasal spray for 14 days (mometasone or fluticasone)

25
what nerve innervates the laryngeal muscles?
vagus nerve via its branches the superior laryngeal nerve (cricothyroid) and the recurrent laryngeal nerve (all other muscles)
26
what are some causes of hoarseness?
functional dysphonia infection/inflammation- acute/chronic laryngitis benign vocal cord leisions- nodules (singers nodes), cysts, polyps malignancy- laryngeal cancer neurological- laryngeal nerve palsy, stroke, Parkinsons, motor neurone disease, myasthenia graves
27
what is benign paroxysmal positional vertigo?
otoconia (calcium carbonate crystals) become displaced into the semicircular canals. symptoms are triggered by movement
28
what is the dix-hallpike manoeuvre?
used to diagnosed BPPV
29
what is the epley manoeuvre?
treats BPPV
30
what are the signs of diabetic retinopathy?
``` dot and blot haemorrhages microaneurysms hard exudates cotton wool spots neovascularisation ```
31
how is diabetic retinopathy treated?
``` laser photocoagulation (pan retinal photocoagulation)- reduces the oxygen demand of the retina thus reducing the VEGF produced due to ischaemia which reduces neovascularisation anti-VEGF- not recommended as photocoagulation is better and injection carries risk of endopthalmitis ```
32
what are the signs of hypertensive retinopathy?
``` sliver/copper wiring ateriovenous nipping cotton wool spots hard exudates retinal haemorrhages- flame haemorrhages papilloedema ```
33
how does retinal detachment present?
painless peripheral vision loss- like a shadow coming down sudden onset flashes and floaters cobwebs blurred/distorted vision
34
what are the different types of retinal detachment?
rhegmatogenous- commonest form of retinal detachment. as the virtuous skinks and partly separates from the retina a tear may develop allowing fluid to enter the sub retinal space causing detachment exudative- fluid/exudate forms underneath retina, often due to inflammation or malignancy tractional- seen in diabetic retinopathy, where abnormal vasculature causes contraction of the virtuous which pulls on the retina
35
how is retinal detachment managed?
seal retinal tears- laser therapy, cryotherapy | retinal detachment surgery- vitrectomy, scleral buckling
36
what is glaucoma?
progressive optic neuropathy causing specific optic nerve abnormalities (disc cupping) and field defects (arcuate field defects). it is commonly associated with raised intra-ocular pressure
37
how does acute angle closure glaucoma happen?
iris bulges forward and seals off the trabecular meshwork causing blockage to the outflow of queues humour causing raised ocular pressure
38
how is glaucoma investigated?
``` visual acuity/visual fields intra-ocular pressure- goldmann tonometer assessing the angle- gonioscope fundoscopy- cup-disc ratio optical coherence tomography ```
39
how to manage glaucoma?
aim is to reduce intra-ocular pressure, to slow the progression PHARMACOLOGICAL prostaglandin analogue (latanoprost) eye drops- increase outflow beta-blockers (timolol)- decrease production carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (brimonidine)- decrease production sympathomimetics (brimondine)- decrease production and increase outflow INTERVENTIONAL selective laser tracbeculoplasty trabeculectomy
40
what is the presentation of acute angle closure glaucoma?
``` severely painful red eye blurred vision haloes around lights headache, nausea, vomiting O/E- hazy cornea, decreased visual acuity, fixed dilated pupil ```
41
how is acute angle closure glaucoma managed?
refer to ophthalmologist pilocarpine eye drops- constricts pupil IV diamox- carbonic anhydrase inhibitor-decreases production of aqueous humour laser iridectomy- makes a hole in the iris to allow aqueous humour to flow
42
what are serious causes of acute red eye?
keratitis scleritis acute angle closure glaucoma anterior uveitis