Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Principles of Disease > AMCT- DRUGS > Flashcards

AMCT- DRUGS Flashcards

1
Q

Benzyl Penicillin

A
  • gram positive
  • meningococci
  • normally IV
  • B-lactam
  • disrupts peptidoglycan synthesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Amoxicillin + Ampicillin

A
  • oral absorption good

- better at attacking gram negative organisms than benzyl penicillin but 20-30% of coliforms resistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Co-amoxiclav

A
  • combines amoxiclav with B-lactamase inhibitor clavulanic acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Flucloxacillin

A
  • B-lactamase resistant

- first line of treatment for staph infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Methicillin

A

-similar to flucloxacillin in that it is B-lactamase resistant. used to represent flucloxacillin in the lab, but is not used clinically. (MRSA = Methicillin resistant staphylococcal aureus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Piperacillin

A
  • broad spectrum penicillin with gram negative cover
  • active against pseudomonas
  • has anti-anaerobic activity so it can cover serious intra-abdominal infection
  • now commonly used with B-lactamase inhibitor tazobactum, which together combine to make tazocin (commonly referred to as “pip/taz”)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Imipenem + Meropenem

A
  • carbapenems (close relatives of penicillin)
  • have widest spectrum of all ‘penicillin type’ antibiotics
  • active against most bacteria including anaerobes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cephalosporins

A
  • 3 generations
  • gram positive resistance increasing
  • gram negative activity increasing
  • use of cephalosporins has decreased recently as they appear to encourage C.Diff infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Gentamicin

A
  • amino-glycoside
  • gram negative activity including pseudomonas
  • most staph sensitive
  • strep not sensitive
  • high potential toxicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Vancomycin, Teicoplanin

A
  • glycopeptides
  • only active against gram positive
  • aerobic and anaerobic activity
  • levels of vancomycin must be monitored for toxicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Clarithromycin/ erythromycin

A
  • mainly active against gram positive
  • often used as an alternative to penicillin for patients with a hypersensitivity to penicillin
  • macrolides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Azithromycin

A
  • macrolide

- single dose chlamydia treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ciprofloxacin

A
  • quinolone
  • nearly all gram negative organisms
  • oral treatment for pseudomonas
  • can’t be used in children as in inhibits nucleic acid synthesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Metronidazole

A

effective against gram negative and positive organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Fusidic acid

A
  • used only as an anti-staphlococcal drug

- diffuses well into bone and tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

trimethoprim

A
  • urinary infection
  • combined with sulfamethoxazole to make co-trimoxazole, sometimes used in chest infections as it does not predispose C.Diff infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tetracyclines

A
  • broad spectrum
  • inhibit protein synthesis
  • some genital/ respiratory tract infections
  • should not be given to pregnant women or children U12 as they are deposited in teeth and bones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Clindamycin

A
  • gram positive
  • anaerobes
  • very good tissue penetration
19
Q

linezolid

A
  • new agent with activity against MRSA
  • oral
  • can cause bone marrow suppression
20
Q

daptomycin

A
  • gram + organisms

- may combat MRSA

21
Q

Nalidixic acid

A
  • UTI agent

- gram negative (coliforms) only

22
Q

Nitrofurantoin

A
  • UTI agent
  • most gram negative
  • some gram positive
23
Q

Amphotericin B

A
  • IV for serious systemic yeast and other fungal infections
  • highly toxic
  • polyene
24
Q

Nystatin

A
  • polyene
  • topical and oral use
  • fungal skin infections
25
Q

Why are polyenes toxic

A

Because they target ergosterol present in the cell wall of fungi, resulting in increased permeability. However they also bind to other sterols e.g. cholesterol in mammalian cells.

26
Q

Fluconazole

A
  • oral and parental treatment of yeast infections
  • no activity against filamentous fungi
  • some resistant among candida species emerging
  • azole (suppresses ergosterol synthesis)
27
Q

Itraconazole

A
  • active against yeast and filamentous fungi

- azole

28
Q

Voriconazole

A
  • used to treat aspergillosis

- azole

29
Q

Terbinafine

A
  • clinical use is primarily against dermatophyte infections of the skin and nails (e.g. athletes foot, ringworm)
  • mild infections treated topically, more serious orally
  • allylamine
  • suppresses ergosterol synthesis
30
Q

Caspofungin, mycafungin, anidulafungin

A
  • inhibits gluten polysaccharide synthesis
  • fungicidal against candida species
  • fungistatic against aspergillus species
  • normally only used upon specialist advice
  • echinocandins
31
Q

Aciclovir

A
  • anti-herpes
  • nucleoside analogue
  • must be converted to its active form by an enzyme that is only coded for in the viral genome, hence it can be specific for virus infected cells
  • IV form given to treat serious infections
  • cold sores can be treated topically or orally
32
Q

Famciclover, valaciclovir

A
  • oral agents

- better bioavailability than aciclovir

33
Q

Ganciclovir, valganciclovir

A
  • nucleoside analogue
  • active against CMV
  • toxic
  • IV infusion
  • largely restricted to life or sight threatening infections in the immunocompromised
34
Q

Foscarnet

A
  • used when herpes virus is resistant to nucleoside analogues
  • highly nephrotoxic
  • IV only
35
Q

Cidofovir

A

CMV only when other drugs are inappropriate

36
Q

Zidovudine (AZT, ZDV)

A
  • anti-HIV
  • nucleoside analogue
  • interferes with action of reverse transcriptase
  • virulstatic
  • high incidence of side effects when being administered by itself
37
Q

Administration of anti-HIV drugs

A

combination therapy of zidovudine with at least 3 other drugs is normal practice.
drugs are selected which are active on at least two different stages of HIV replication

38
Q

Nevirapine

A

Non-nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor

39
Q

Saquinavir

A

Protease inhibitor

40
Q

Interferon-alpha

A
  • produced by genetic engineering
  • low response rate
  • serious side effects
  • normally subcutaneous infection
  • combination therapy with oral ribavarin is common treatment for chronic Hep C
41
Q

Lamivudine

A
  • nucleoside analogue
  • when combined with adefovir, dipivoxil is suitable for chronic Hep B
  • can be given orally
42
Q

Zanamavir, oseltamivir

A
  • influenza A or B < 48 hours after onset of symptoms, or post exposure prophylaxis
43
Q

Ribavarin

A
  • nucleoside analogue
  • treatment of severe respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
  • must be inhaled as a very fine spray to reach site of infection in lungs so administration is difficult
  • used in combination treatment for Hep C

Principles of Disease (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions