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ana primer > ANA PRIMER > Flashcards

ANA PRIMER Flashcards

1
Q

Examples of Dietary Nutrients that are not absorbed directly into the enterohepatic portal blood system include:
A) amino acids
B) MCFA
C) monosaccharides
D: LCFA

A

D) LCFA

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2
Q

The hormone responsible for the decrease in gastrointestinal smooth muscle tone and motility during pregnancy is:
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Placental lactogen
D) Human chorionic ghonadotropin

A

B) Progesterone

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3
Q

The ingestion of a meal containing large amounts of saturated fat will result in a transient increase in serum concentration of
A) Chylomircons
B) Low density lipoproteins
C) High density lipoproteins
D) Micelles

A

A) Chylomicrons

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4
Q

Most iron is transported in the blood via the plasma carrier
A) heme
B) ferritin
C) transferrin
D) albumin

A

C) Transferrin

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5
Q

The organs most active in the synthesis of endogenous cholesterol are the liver and the
A) Gallbladder
B) Pancreas
C) Adrenal glands
D) intestinal mucosa

A

D) Intestinal mucosa

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6
Q

Lactulose is a carbohydrate that is:
A) absorbed in the small intestine
B) absorbed in the large intestine
C) a nonabsorbable laxative
D) not found in the human diet

A

C) a nonabsorbable laxative

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7
Q

Digested dietary protein is absorbed primarily in the
A) stomach
B) duodenum
C) jejunum
D) ilium

A

C) Jejunum

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8
Q

Monosaccharides are transported across the placenta from the maternal circulation to the fetal circulation by the process of
A) Simple diffusion
B) Facilitated diffusion
C) Active transport
D) Pinocytosis

A

B) Facilitated diffusion

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9
Q

If a bolus containing 600 mOsm/L enters the jejunum, the net direction of fluid movement in the intestinal tract will be:
A) from the intestinal lumen to circulation
B) from the circulation to the intestinal lumen
C) longitudinally along the mucosal basement membrane
D) from the circulation to the lymphoid system

A

B) from the circulation to the intestinal lumen

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10
Q

Excessive production of gas within the intestines may be caused by excessive colonic bacterial fermentation of unabsorbed
A) gluten
B) small peptides
C) lignin
D) carbohydrates

A

D) carbohydrates

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11
Q

A major intracellular antioxidant is the nutrient
A) vitamin A
B) thiamin
C) glutathione
D) ascorbic acid

A

C) glutathione

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12
Q

A required prerequisite to the digestion of proteins is the HCl-dependent process called:
A) hydrolysis
B) evaporation
C) denaturation
D) distillation

A

C) denaturation

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13
Q

The true digestibility of dietary fatty acids is:
A) 65-75%
B) 75-85%
C) 85-95%
D) more than 95%

A

D) more than 95%

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14
Q

The structures of linoleic acid and gamma-linoleic acid differ in their
A) chain lengths
B) double bond positions
C) number of double bonds
D) side chain moieties

A

C) number of double bonds

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15
Q

An example of a compound that is not considered to be a component of dietary fiber is:
A) pectin
B) hemicellulose
C) amylose
D) cellulose

A

C) amylose

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16
Q

Dietary fats & oils primarily are composed of:
A) triglycerides
B) PUFAs
C) saturated fats
C) MUFAs

A

A) triglycerides

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17
Q

A nutrient is considered conditionally essential when:
A) it cannot be replaced by a metabolic precursor
B) it is malabsorbed
C) its endogenous production becomes insufficient to meet needs
D) it required a second essential nutrient to be effective

A

C) its endogenous production becomes insufficient to meet needs

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18
Q

Vitamin reserves can become depleted because all vitamins are:
a. synthesized inefficiently. b. essential nutrients.
c. metabolized quickly.
d. excreted rapidly.

A

b. essential nutrients.

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19
Q

The process of adding a nutrient to manufactured foods as a public health measure is called:
a. restoration.
b. enrichment.
c. fortification.
d. supplementation.

A

c. fortification.

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20
Q

Food additives can be used:
a. as effective preservatives. b. without restriction.
c. to compensate for improper processing
practices.
d. without risk.

A

a. as effective preservatives.

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21
Q

Nutrification is the:

a. addition of a nutrient to a food in order to assure the distribution of that nutrient to a target
population group.

b. specific addition of thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, and iron to white flour.

c. structural modification of complex carbohydrates.

d. addition of at least 25% of the RDA of a nutrient to a food product that has been designed to
replace a meal or food item.

A

a. addition of a nutrient to a food in order to assure the distribution of that nutrient to a target
population group

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22
Q

Ketones result from the metabolism of:

a. fatty acids.
b. simple sugars.
c. amino acids.
d. complex carbohydrates.

A

a. fatty acids

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23
Q

The plasmalemma does not incorporate:

a. vitamin A.
b. vitamin E.
c. cholesterol.
d. phospholipids.

A

a. vitamin A.

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24
Q

The failure of a tissue or organ to develop properly is called:

a. neoplasia.
b. aplasia.
c. hyperplasia.
d. atrophy.

A

b. aplasia.

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25
Q

Glutamine is the primary energy source for the:

a. liver.
b. heart.
c. small intestine.
d. brain.

A

c. small intestine

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26
Q

The metabolic effects of insulin include stimulation of:

a. adipocyte secretion of non-esterified fatty acids.
b. myocyte amino acid uptake.
c. hepatocyte
gluconeogenesis.
d. myocyte glycogenesis.

A

b. myocyte amino acid uptake.

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27
Q

The most common skeletal complication of chronic renal failure is:

a. hyperostosis.
b. osteoporosis.
c. rickets.
d. secondary hyperparathyroidism.

A

d. secondary hyperparathyroidism.

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28
Q

Most circulating cholesterol is eliminated from the body after metabolism to:

a. lipoproteins.
b. phospholipids.
c. fecal fat.
d. bile acids.

A

d. bile acids.

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29
Q

Vitamin B12 is a required cofactor in the biochemical pathway through which glucose is
produced from the amino acid:

a. alanine.
b. valine.
c. methionine.
d. tyrosine.

A

b. valine.
**But probably methionine!

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30
Q

Copper is a component of:

a. alkaline phosphatase.
b. glycosyl transferase.
c. ceruloplasmin.
d. glucose tolerance factor.

A

c. ceruloplasmin.

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31
Q

The decarboxylation of pyruvate involves a sequence of reactions that require, as coenzymes,
the four vitamins:

a. thiamin, pantothenic acid, riboflavin and vitamin B12.
b. thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, and vitamin B12.
c. thiamin, pantothenic acid, riboflavin, and niacin.
d. biotin, niacin, pantothenic acid and vitamin B12

A

c. thiamin, pantothenic acid, riboflavin, and niacin.

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32
Q

The size of the free amino acid pool in the human body is regulated by the rate of:

a. oxidation of amino acids b. synthesis of nonessential amino acids
c. urinary excretion of
amino acids.
d. skeletal collagen metabolism.

A

a. oxidation of amino acids

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33
Q

During maximal aerobic exercise, the primary energy source is:
a. fatty acids
b. Lactate
c. glycogen.
d. glucose.

A

a) fatty acids
***But probably glucose!

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34
Q

A set of 150 observations has a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of 1.5. The 95%
confidence limits (95% CL) of the mean can be calculated by solving the formula:

a. 95% CL = 5 ± (1.96)(1.5).
b. 95% CL = 5 ± (1.96)[(1.5)2/150)]1/2.
c. 95% CL = 5 ± (1.96)[(1.5)1/2/150].
d. 95% CL = 5 ± (1.96)(1.5/150)1/2

A

b. 95% CL = 5 ± (1.96)[(1.5)2/150)]1/2.

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35
Q

A cross-sectional study compared cardiovascular risk factors and resting metabolic rate
(RMR) in 400 sedentary (SED) and 400 resistance trained (RT) young women. The measured
RMR (mean ± standard error of the mean) were 4.31 ± 0.06 kJ/min and 3.99 ± 0.05 kJ/min,
respectively. The valid interpretation of the RMR data is that:

a. RMR SED and RMR RT are not significantly different (p>0.05).
b. RMR SED and RMR RT are significantly different (p<0.05).
c. RMR SED and RMR RT are significantly correlated (p<0.05).
d. RMR is not affected by resistance training.

A

b. RMR SED and RMR RT are significantly different (p<0.05).

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36
Q

The phrase “p<.05” should be interpreted to mean that:

a. the probability of being correct is >95%.
b. the probability of being incorrect is <5%.
c. the results are less convincing than if “p” were “<.01.”
d. the probability of the same result occurring by random chance is <5%.

A

d. the probability of the same result occurring by random chance is <5%.

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37
Q

The relationship between 2 correlated variables is:
a. causal.
b. random.
c. independent.
d. mathematical.

A

d. mathematical.

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38
Q

Meta-analysis is a quantitative approach for systematically combining the results of previous,
non-definitive research in order to:

a. improve the quality of the research data.
b. allow a conclusion to be drawn.
c. identify studies
with positive results.
d. improve the power of the research.

A

b. allow a conclusion to be drawn.

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39
Q

Dysgeusia may result from a dietary deficiency of the nutrient:

a. iron.
b. magnesium.
c. manganese.
d. zinc.

A

d. zinc.

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40
Q

Pantothenic acid is a component of:
a. FAD.
b. NAD.
c. hemoglobin.
d. coenzyme A.

A

d. coenzyme A.

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41
Q

Selenium deficiency has been implicated in the development of:

a. iron deficiency anemia.
b. subclinical hypothyroidism.
c. hyperthyroidism.
d. night blindness.

A

b. subclinical hypothyroidism

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42
Q

The dietary fatty acid considered to be essential in the diet of humans is:

a. stearic acid.
b. oleic acid.
c. linoleic acid.
d. palmitic acid.

A

c. linoleic acid.

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43
Q

Iron is absorbed in the small intestine in the form of:

a. ferrous iron.
b. ferric iron.
c. ferritin.
d. transferrin.

A

a. ferrous iron.

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44
Q

The risk of congenital microencephaly increases during pregnancy when habitual intake of
pre-formed vitamin A exceed the RDA for vitamin A by:

a. 5-fold.
b. 50-fold.
c. 100-fold.
d. 1000-fold.

A

a. 5-fold

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45
Q

Vitamin C, vitamin E, and β-carotene may exert cardioprotective effects by:

a. enhancing the conversion of SFA to PUFA.
b. stimulating hepatic synthesis of HDL.
c.
inhibiting the oxidation of LDL.
d. increasing LDL receptor number.

A

c.
inhibiting the oxidation of LDL.

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46
Q

Signs of a deficiency in essential fatty acids include:

a. soft fingernails.
b. dull skin and dandruff.
c. edema.
d. sleep disorders.

A

b. dull skin and dandruff.

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47
Q

The form in which fatty acids usually are found in food is as:

a. free fatty acids.
b. mannan polymers.
c. cholesterol esters.
d. triglycerides.

A

d. triglycerides.

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48
Q

A dietary source of ω-3 essential fatty acids is:

a. primrose oil.
b. arachidonic oil.
c. flax oil.
d. milk fat.

A

c. flax oil.

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49
Q

The disease associated with deficiency of vitamin B1 is known as:

a. multiple sclerosis.
b. beri-beri.
c. scurvy.
d. pellagra.

A

b. beri-beri

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50
Q

Polyneuropathy may accompany chronic consumption of large amounts of:

a. dairy foods.
b. starch.
c. alcohol.
d. meats.

A

c. alcohol.

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51
Q

Of beef, bacon, salmon, and broccoli, the food source with the greatest nutrient
density (g per 100 Kcal) for fat is:
a. beef.
b. bacon.
c. salmon.
d. broccoli.

A

b. bacon.

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52
Q

Chromium influences plasma glucose concentrations by stimulating:

a. starch blocker activity.
b. myocyte sodium-glucose transport.
c. absorption of dietary glucose.
d. hepatic gluconeogenesis.

A

b. myocyte sodium-glucose transport.

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53
Q

Most vegetables are generally considered to be nutritionally inferior to most animal proteins
because typically they contain:

a. indigestible polypeptide sequences.
b. small amounts of abnormal amino acids.
c. inadequate
amounts of glutamine.
d. fewer essential amino acids.

A

d. fewer essential amino acids.

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54
Q

Two vitamins which are very toxic when ingested in amounts 10-fold or more greater than
the current US RDA are:

a. vitamin A and thiamin.
b. vitamin A and folic acid.
c. vitamin A and vitamin D.
d. Vitamin E and Vitamin K.

A

c. vitamin A and vitamin D.

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55
Q

An early indicator of impending selenosis is:

a. headache.
b. easy bruising.
c. numbness of hands and feet.
d. garlic odor of breath.

A

d. garlic odor of breath.

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56
Q

The consumption of 1750 excess Kcal will result in the deposition of new body fat weighing:

a. 17.5 g.
b. 175 g.
c. 227 g.
d. 454 g.

A

c. 227 g.

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57
Q

Iron in foods is primarily in the form of:

a. ferrous iron.
b. ferric iron.
c. ferritin.
d. transferrin.

A

b. ferric iron

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58
Q

Most of the activated folic acid in the human body is in the form of:

a. folate.
b. folacin.
c. S-adenosylmethionine.
d. methyltetrahydrofolic acid.

A

d. methyltetrahydrofolic acid.

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59
Q

A good dietary source of riboflavin is a:

a. peach.
b. carrot.
c. coconut.
d. steak.

A

d. steak.

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60
Q

Among the foods beef, bacon, fish, and spinach, the food source with the greatest
nutrient density (mg per 100 Kcal) for iron is:

a. beef.
b. bacon.
c. fish.
d. spinach.

A

d. spinach.

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61
Q

Among the following foods, the nutrient density of vitamin D is greatest in:

a. cheese.
b. salmon.
c. green leafy vegetables.
d. beef.

A

b. salmon.

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62
Q

The best source of supplemental calcium for an elderly woman with
hypochlorhydria is:

a. calcium carbonate.
b. calcium phosphate.
c. calcium citrate.
d. bone meal.

A

c. calcium citrate.

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63
Q

Excessive consumption of dietary fiber impairs the bioavailability of:

a. protein.
b. zinc.
c. essential fatty acids.
d. vitamin D.

A

b. zinc.

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64
Q

Cruciferous vegetables lack:

a. highly bioavailable calcium.
b. cancer-inhibiting indoles. c. large amounts of vitamin K.
d. large amounts of β-carotene.

A

a. highly bioavailable calcium.

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65
Q

The vitamin K content of human breast milk is:

a. undetectable.
b. low.
c. high.
d. unknown.

A

b. low.

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66
Q

25-OHD3 is converted to 1,25-(OH)2D3 by:

a. neurons.
b. sunlight.
c. hepatocytes.
d. renal cells.

A

d. renal cells

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67
Q

Daily consumption of 50 Kcal of excess dietary energy for a year will produce a
weight gain of:

a. 4 to 5 pounds.
b. 10 to 12 pounds.
c. 20 to 25 pounds.
d. 40 to 50 pounds.

A

a. 4 to 5 pounds.

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68
Q

Skeletal manifestations of hypervitaminosis A include:

a. cortical sclerosis.
b. cortical porosis.
c. osteomalacia.
d. osteonecrosis.

A

b. cortical porosis.

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69
Q

Selenium is a required cofactor for:

a. NADP reductase.
b. glutathione reductase.
c. glutathione transferase.
d. glutathione peroxidase.

A

d. glutathione peroxidase.

70
Q

Vitamin E deficiency in humans commonly results in:
a. neurological dysfunction. b. respiratory dysfunction.
c. reproductive dysfunction. d. digestive dysfunction.

A

a. neurological dysfunction.

71
Q

Quercitin protects ascorbic acid from:
a. oxidation.
b. reduction.
c. dehydrogenation.
d. desaturation.

A

a. oxidation.

72
Q

Flavonoids are:
a. water soluble.
b. lipid miscible.
c. alcohols.
d. carcinogens.

A

b. lipid miscible.

73
Q

Dietary proteins are of high biological value when they are obtained from:

a. fish, legumes and whole milk.
b. beef, pork and cream cheese.
c. white bread, vegetables and
legumes.
d. eggs, chicken meats and cheddar cheese.

A

d. eggs, chicken meats and cheddar cheese.

74
Q

The dietary change that is the most effective in contributing to a decrease in
serum total cholesterol concentration is:

a. a decrease on cholesterol intake.
b. a decrease in
saturated fat intake.
c. an increase in polyunsaturated fat intake. d. an increase in
monounsaturated fat intake.

A

b. a decrease in
saturated fat intake.

75
Q

The USDA “food pyramid” does not recommend:

a. 2 to 3 dairy servings daily. b. 5 to 9 fruit and vegetable servings daily.
c. 6 to 11 grain servings
daily.
d. up to 5 meat servings daily.

A

d. up to 5 meat servings daily.

76
Q

The protein intake standard the USRDA uses to reflect protein quality is the:

a. biological value.
b. net protein utilization.
c. protein efficiency ratio.
d. chemical score.

A

c. protein efficiency ratio

77
Q

The biological value of food proteins can be enhanced by:

a. supplementation with branched-chain amino acids. b. slow cooking.
c. the addition of MSG.
d. combining them with complementary food proteins.

A

d. combining them with complementary food proteins.

78
Q

Intake of chromium below 30 μg/day has been associated with decreased:

a. skeletal mass.
b. glucose tolerance.
c. lean tissue mass.
d. muscle glycogen content.

A

a. skeletal mass.

79
Q

The daily calcium requirements of postmenopausal women who are not receiving
estrogen replacement therapy are approximately:

a. 1,250 mg of calcium as calcium carbonate.
b.1,500 mg of calcium as calcium carbonate.
c. 1,750 mg of calcium as calcium carbonate.
d.
2,000 mg of calcium as calcium carbonate.

A

b.1,500 mg of calcium as calcium carbonate

80
Q

The daily calcium requirements of postmenopausal women who are not receiving
estrogen replacement therapy can be met by the daily consumption of:

a. one (1) cup of skim
milk.
b. three (3) cups of skim milk.
c. five (5) cups of skim milk. d. seven (7) cups of skim milk.

A

c. five (5) cups of skim milk.

81
Q

Reduced consumption of salt and salty foods may:

a. improve electrolyte balance.
b. reduce blood volume and blood pressure.
c. improve kidney
function.
d. improve neuromuscular coordination.

A

b. reduce blood volume and blood pressure.

82
Q

The quality of foods voluntarily selected by a population or group is not likely to
be improved by:
a. changes in guidelines.
b. targeted education.
c. concentrated market forces.
d. new product information.

A

a. changes in guidelines.

83
Q

In men between the ages of 25 and 75, average daily iron needs generally:
a. increase.
b. decrease.
c. remain the same.
d. fluctuate widely.

A

c. remain the same

84
Q

During the past 50 years, the average total caloric intake among infants in the
United States:
a. has not changed.
b. has decreased.
c. has increased.
d. is not possible to assess

A

c. has increased.

85
Q

Aging is associated with several changes in metabolism, including:

a. increased basal metabolic rate, reduced muscle mass, and increased fat deposition.
b. increased
basal metabolic rate, reduced muscle mass, and decreased fat deposition.
c. decreased basal
metabolic rate, reduced muscle mass, and decreased fat deposition.
d. decreased basal metabolic
rate, reduced muscle mass, and increased fat deposition.

A

d. decreased basal metabolic
rate, reduced muscle mass, and increased fat deposition.

86
Q

An exercise program combining aerobic and strength exercises will increase
metabolic rate by about:
a. 10% or less.
b. 25% to 50%.
c. 50% to 100%.
d. 100% or more.

A

a. 10% or less.

87
Q

Prior to becoming pregnant, women can reduce the risk of giving birth to
offspring with neural tube defects by eating more foods rich in:
a. biotin.
b. calcium.
c. folate.
d. vitamin B12

A

c. folate.

88
Q

Compared to his peers, a healthy 15-year old male who is a competitive weight
lifter should consume more protein and more:
a. minerals.
b. carbohydrates.
c. fat.
d. carbohydrates and fat.

A

b. carbohydrates.

89
Q

Avoidance of foods of animal origin requires dietary proteins to be:

a. readily digestible.
b. good sources of nonessential amino acids.
c. high in biological value.
d. balanced in their essential amino acid composition.

A

d. balanced in their essential amino acid composition.

90
Q

A vegetarian who ingests no animal products whatsoever is most at risk for
developing a deficiency of:

a. calcium and vitamins A and D.
b. vitamins B12, C and D.
c. protein, calories and vitamin C.
d. vitamin B12, riboflavin, and zinc.

A

d. vitamin B12, riboflavin, and zinc.

91
Q

Megaloblastic anemia of pregnancy usually results from a deficiency of:

a. iron.
b. oxytocin.
c. antipernicious anemia factor.
d. folacin.

A

d. folacin.

92
Q

During gestation, dietary requirements are increased for:
a. vitamin A.
b. pyridoxine and pantothenic acid.
c. thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin.
d. vitamin D.

A

c. thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin.

93
Q

During gestation, the fetus receives nourishment primarily from:

a. nutrient secretions from fallopian tube cells.
b. tropoblast cells of the decidua basilis.
c. the amniotic fluid.
d. the placental circulation.

A

d. the placental circulation.

94
Q

Compared to commercial infant formulas, human milk has a greater
concentration of:

a. cholesterol.
b. protein.
c. casein.
d. linoleic acid.

A

a. cholesterol.

95
Q

An infant should be introduced to new foods one at a time because:

a. overfeeding can be prevented.
b. swallowing is not yet under complete voluntary control.
c. immunologic protection has not yet developed.
d. any subsequent allergic reaction can be
associated with the triggering food.

A

d. any subsequent allergic reaction can be
associated with the triggering food.

96
Q

The most serious consequence of feeding “double-strength” formula to an infant is likely to be:
a. sleepiness.
b. colic.
c. mental impairment.
d. dehydration.

A

d. dehydration.

97
Q

The best predictor of energy needs during adolescence is:

a. chronologic age.
b. change in body weight.
c. increase in height.
d. muscle growth.

A

c. increase in height.

98
Q

Some nutrient requirements are greater during lactation than during pregnancy;
however, the requirements are the same for:
a. B-vitamins.
b. calcium and iron.
c. fluoride and
zinc.
d. vitamins A and C.

A

b. calcium and iron.
**iron RDA is 27 during preg, 9 during lactation

99
Q

Weight loss in obese persons is associated with increased risk for:

a. gallstones.
b. hypertension.
c. hypertriglyceridemia.
d. glycosuria.

A

a. gallstones.

100
Q

The caloric equivalent of one gram of lean tissue is approximately:

a. 1 Kcal.
b. 2 Kcal.
c. 4 Kcal.
d. 9 Kcal.

A

a. 1 Kcal.

101
Q

To maintain basic hydration, an elderly individual must consume at least:

a. 4 cups of fluid per day.
b. 8 cups of fluid per day.
c. 12 cups of fluid per day.
d. 16 cups of fluid per day.

A

b. 8 cups of fluid per day.

102
Q

In order to maximize the health of her fetus, a woman in the sixth month of
pregnancy should supplement her diet with additional:
a. iron and folic acid.
b. iron and calcium.
c. calories and folic acid.
d. calories and iron.

A

d. calories and iron.

103
Q

The fetus acquires most of its calcium during:

a. the first trimester.
b. the second trimester.
c. the third trimester.
d. maternal dietary calcium
excess.

A

c. the third trimester.

104
Q

Compared to the requirements of a nonpregnant adult woman, the dietary
requirements for several vitamins are increased during gestation; among these are the
requirements for:
a. vitamin A.
b. pyridoxine and pantothenic acid.
c. thiamin, riboflavin, and
niacin.
d. vitamin D.

A

c. thiamin, riboflavin, and
niacin.

105
Q

A woman who is overweight or obese at the time of conception should modify her diet to reduce her weight:
a. during the second and third trimesters.
b. during the third trimester.
c. throughout pregnancy.
d. after parturition.

A

d. after parturition.

106
Q

Among the members of the following ethnic group, hypertensive individuals
usually are salt-sensitive:
a. elderly African-Americans. b. elderly Caucasian-Americans.
c. young African-Americans. d. young Caucasian-Americans.

A

a. elderly African-Americans

107
Q

Data supporting the hypothesis that dietary composition influences the
development of cancer include observations that:

a. high fiber diets are associated with an
increased incidence of colon cancer.
b. dietary carcinogens protect against the effects of
environmental carcinogens. c. nutrient deficiencies always promote tumor growth.
d. cruciferous
vegetables may protect against tumorigenesis.

A

d. cruciferous
vegetables may protect against tumorigenesis.

108
Q

Diet assessment of a population can be used to:

a. identify common dietary problems.
b. solve common dietary problems.
c. implement guidelines for individuals.
d. determine general
characteristics.

A

d. determine general
characteristics.

109
Q

As a public health measure, chicken is packed in ice to prevent:
a. Botulism.
b. Perfringens food poisoning.
c. Staphylococcal food poisoning.
d. Salmonella food
poisoning.

A

d. Salmonella food
poisoning.

110
Q

Reheating potentially hazardous foods that have been cooked and then refrigerated must be performed with:

a. a steam table at high temperature.
b. open flames.
c. warmers.
d. rapid reheating devices.

A

d. rapid reheating devices.

111
Q

The microorganism most likely to be responsible for foodborne illness after the
ingestion of raw seafood is a species belonging to the genus:
a. Shigella.
b. Salmonella.
c. Vibrio.
d. Escherichia.

A

c. Vibrio

112
Q

To minimize the risk of foodborne illness, the maximum number of days for
which poultry should be refrigerated is:
a. two (2).
b. three (3).
c. four (4).
d. five (5).

A

b. three (3).

113
Q

In order to prevent trichinosis, the internal temperature of pork during cooking
should reach at least:
a. 120o F.
b. 135o F.
c. 170o F.
d. 212o F.

A

c. 170o F.

114
Q

An approximate doubling of the growth rate of bacteria contaminating food will
occur when the temperature changes from:

a. 0o C to 4o C.
b. 0o C to 37o C.
c. 20o C to 25o C.
d. 27o C to 37o C.

A

d. 27o C to 37o C.

115
Q

Intestinal absorption of dietary iron may be enhanced by concurrent ingestion of:

a. oxalates.
b. phytates.
c. ascorbic acid.
d. phosphorus.

A

c. ascorbic acid.

116
Q

Dietary intakes of thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin are related to the intake of:
a. iron.
b. ascorbic acid.
c. calcium.
d. calories.

A

d. calories.

117
Q

Pharmacologic agents used in chemotherapy can cause adverse gastrointestinal
reactions because these agents:

a. alter normal mucosal cell proliferation.
b. alter the pH of
pancreatic secretions.
c. are hyperosmolar.
d. initiate carcinogenesis in mucosal cells.

A

d. initiate carcinogenesis in mucosal cells

118
Q

Individuals taking anticonvulsant medications may develop depleted reserves of:

a. folate and vitamin D.
b. thiamin and riboflavin.
c. folate and pantothenic acid.
d. pyridoxine and biotin.

A

a. folate and vitamin D.

119
Q

Altered metabolism of pyridoxine in chronic alcoholism results from:

a. increased aldehyde oxidase activity.
b. decreased aldehyde oxidase activity.
c. unchanged
aldehyde oxidase activity.
d. decreased excretion of pyridoxine

A

a. increased aldehyde oxidase activity.

120
Q

Insulin sensitivity may be enhanced by supplementation with:

a. chromium picolinate.
b. iron acetate.
c. zinc chloride.
d. selenium hexanoate.

A

a. chromium picolinate.

121
Q

To decrease the Respiratory Quotient (RQ), one should replace dietary:

a. fat with protein.
b. carbohydrate with fat.
c. protein with carbohydrate. d. fat with carbohydrate.

A

b. carbohydrate with fat.

122
Q

Initial advice for a lactose-intolerant postmenopausal woman with a history of
kidney stones and subnormal spinal BMD should be:

a. restriction of dietary calcium intake.
b. restriction of fluid intake. c. increased consumption of dairy products.
d. dietary supplementation
with magnesium.

A

d. dietary supplementation
with magnesium.

123
Q

Dietary modification is the primary therapeutic approach in:

a. peptic ulcer.
b. cystic fibrosis.
c. diabetes.
d. hypercalcemia.

A

c. diabetes.

124
Q

Children with cystic fibrosis are not likely to be able to absorb large amounts of:

a. electrolytes.
b. lipids.
c. amino acids.
d. simple sugars.

A

b. lipids.

125
Q

Lactose intolerant infants should be fed infant formulas that contain protein
derived from soybeans because such formulas:

a. are extra high in energy content.
b. provide most of their lipids as short-chain fatty acids.
c. impose low renal solute loads.
d. do not contain
lactose.

A

d. do not contain
lactose.

126
Q

The development of obesity may be associated with a decreased:

a. number of individual adipocytes.
b. surface area of individual adipocytes.
c. amount of
esterified fatty acids within each adipocyte.
d. ratio of protein to lipid within each adipocyte.

A

d. ratio of protein to lipid within each adipocyte.

127
Q

In individuals with amyloidosis, there is abnormal deposition within various
organs and tissues of:
a. carbohydrate.
b. fat.
c. protein.
d. minerals.

A

c. protein.

128
Q

The diet of individuals with xerostomia should include:

a. frequent small meals that are high in protein content. b. moist food, gravies and liquids.
c. seedless fruits.
d. meals high in fat content.

A

b. moist food, gravies and liquids.

129
Q

The diet of an individual with diverticulosis should contain large amounts of:
a. fat.
b. animal protein.
c. sugars.
d. dietary fiber.

A

d. dietary fiber.

130
Q

The purpose of encouraging individuals with diabetes to increase the dietary fiber
contents of their meals is to:

a. reduce plasma albumin concentration.
b. stimulate insulin
secretion.
c. minimize postprandial hyperglycemia.
d. stimulate intestinal glucose transport.

A

c. minimize postprandial hyperglycemia.

131
Q

The management of adults with advanced chronic renal failure should include:

a. potassium supplementation.
b. calcium restriction.
c. phosphate supplementation.
d. protein restriction.

A

d. protein restriction.

132
Q

Epidemiologic data suggest that decreased mortality from heart disease
accompanies increased consumption of the antioxidant:
a. selenium.
b. vitamin E.
c. β-carotene.
d. vitamin C.

A

b. vitamin E.

133
Q

Currently, supplementation with ω-3 fatty acids has not been shown to benefit
individuals with:
a. coronary thrombosis.
b. hypertension.
c. hypertriglyceridemia.
d. mitral valve prolapse.

A

d. mitral valve prolapse.

134
Q

An inborn error of metabolism may result from:

a. polyploidy.
b. DNA replication errors.
c. congenital malnutrition.
d. neonatal infection.

A

b. DNA replication errors.

135
Q

The oil most effective for increasing the serum HDL-cholesterol concentration
without increasing the serum LDL-cholesterol concentration is:

a. olive oil.
b. canola oil.
c. safflower oil.
d. flax oil.

A

a. olive oil.

136
Q

In individuals with chronic alcoholism, protection may be afforded against the
fatty infiltration of the liver caused by alcoholism by maintaining adequate dietary intake of:

a. vitamin A.
b. thiamin.
c. choline.
d. para-amino-benzoic acid.

A

c. choline.

137
Q

A factor that does not predispose an infant to iron deficiency is:

a. consumption of large
amounts of homogenized milk.
b. premature birth.
c. hemorrhage from the umbilicus during
delivery.
d. slow growth rate.

A

d. slow growth rate.

138
Q

Dumping syndrome is accompanied by symptoms of:

a. faintness, weakness, and profuse perspiration.
b. acute gastritis.
c. peptic ulcer disease.
d. intestinal malabsorption.

A

a. faintness, weakness, and profuse perspiration

139
Q

Dietary modifications helpful to individuals with alcoholic cirrhosis include
restricted consumption of foods that contain large amounts of:

a. carbohydrates.
b. protein.
c. fat.
d. calcium.

A

b. protein.

140
Q

Dietary modifications appropriate for an individual with uncomplicated infectious
hepatitis include:

a. increasing energy intake to more than 3000 Kcal daily.
b. restricting protein
intake to less than 30 g daily. c. restricting fat intake to less than 30 g daily.
d. restricting fluid
intake to less than 2000 mL daily.

A

a. increasing energy intake to more than 3000 Kcal daily.

141
Q

A possible reason for failure of oral rehydration in children is the persistence of:
a. diarrhea.
b. salt intake.
c. breastfeeding.
d. vomiting.

A

d. vomiting.

142
Q

Nutrition support via enteral intubation may be contraindicated in the presence
of any of the following conditions, except:

a. congestive heart failure.
b. bilateral pedal decubitus
ulceration.
c. instability of sternal wound.
d. pneumonia.

A

b. bilateral pedal decubitus
ulceration.

143
Q

The infusion of a hypertonic nutrient solution through the jugular or saphenous
vein is called:

a. enteral alimentation.
b. central parenteral alimentation.
c. peripheral parenteral
alimentation.
d. peridialytic alimentation.

A

b. central parenteral alimentation.

144
Q

The nutritional history of a child over 3 years may be reflected in the child’s:
a. head circumference.
b. weight.
c. height.
d. waist circumference.

A

c. height

145
Q

The most accurate way to assess micronutrient intake is through the use of a:
a. 24-hour food intake recall questionnaire.
b. 7-day food intake frequency.
c. “food frequency
questionnaire.”
d. stool and urine analysis.

A

c. “food frequency
questionnaire.”

146
Q

The energy provided by 10 mL of an infant formula that contains, per dL, 1 g
protein, 3 g fat, 9 g carbohydrate, 1 mg Ca, and 2.5 mg P, totals:

a. 2.6 Kcal.
b. 5.0 Kcal.
c. 6.7 Kcal.
d. 8.6 Kcal.

A

c. 6.7 Kcal.

147
Q

The amount of food to serve a young child is best determined by the:

a. time of day.
b. number of teeth that have erupted.
c. child’s appetite and rate of growth.
d. amount of milk the child consumes.

A

c. child’s appetite and rate of growth.

148
Q

Muscle protein content can be estimated from measurements of:

a. serum albumin concentration.
b. mid-chest circumference. c. urinary creatinine excretion.
d. serum transferrin concentration.

A

c. urinary creatinine excretion.

149
Q

The minimum urine volume required to excrete a renal solute load of 600 mOsm,
when the renal concentrating ability is 1200 mOsm, is:
a. 100 ml.
b. 500 ml.
c. 750 ml.
d. 1000 ml.

A

b. 500 ml.

150
Q

The metabolite whose serum concentration is the most important to monitor
during refeeding of a chronically starved individual is:
a. phosphorus.
b. calcium.
c. cholesterol.
d. urea nitrogen.

A

a. phosphorus.

151
Q

The breath hydrogen test is a useful diagnostic tool in the identification of
individuals suffering from:

a. gluten enteropathy.
b. pancreatitis.
c. lactose intolerance.
d. cystic fibrosis.

A

c. lactose intolerance.

152
Q

A useful test to monitor the adequacy of diet and drug therapy in an individual
with non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is the:

a. glucose tolerance test.
b. fasting plasma
glucose concentration.
c. C peptide assay.
d. hemoglobin A1c (glycohemoglobin) concentration.

A

d. hemoglobin A1c (glycohemoglobin) concentration.

153
Q

Protein of the highest biological value is found in foods in the group that
includes:

a. meat and eggs.
b. oat bran cereals.
c. apples and raisins.
d. peas and beans.

A

a. meat and eggs.

154
Q

The growth-limiting amino acid in soy protein is:
a. methionine.
b. phenylalanine.
c. cystine.
d. alanine.

A

a. methionine.

155
Q

Symptoms of magnesium deficiency include:
a. apathy, depression, and fatigue.
b. irritable bowel syndrome. c. frequent colds and delayed
healing.
d. backache and muscle spasms.

A

a. apathy, depression, and fatigue.

156
Q

Experimentally increasing calcium intake may improve measured calcium
balance without increasing measured calcium deposition because:

a. the multicompartment
theory of calcium metabolism is invalid.
b. increased calcium balance may result from decreased
bone resorption.
c. it is possible to increase net calcium balance by >25% without increasing
calcium deposition.
d. the circulation serves as a potentially massive sink for dietary calcium.

A

b. increased calcium balance may result from decreased
bone resorption.

157
Q

An individual who is 150 cm tall and weighs 90 kilograms has a body mass index
of:
a. 20.
b. 30.
c. 40.
d. 50.

A

c. 40

158
Q

According to the National Cholesterol Education Program (NCEP), in an
otherwise healthy adult male, a serum total cholesterol concentration greater than 240 mg/dL is
considered to be:
a. high.
b. borderline high.
c. desirable.
d. low.

A

a. high.

159
Q

A fasting plasma glucose concentration of 180 mg/dL reflects probable:

a. diabetes.
b. glucose intolerance.
c. normal glucose tolerance. d. hyperinsulinemia.

A

a. diabetes.

160
Q

Assessing overall dietary status by hair analysis is:

a. untrustworthy for most nutrients.
b. accurate for most nutrients.
c. independent of hair color. d. independent of hair length.

A

a. untrustworthy for most nutrients.

161
Q

The most accurate and reliable way to assess the macronutrient intake of an
individual is through the use of a:

a. 24-hour food intake recall questionnaire.
b. 7-day food
intake diary.
c. “food frequency questionnaire.”
d. stool and urine analysis.

A

b. 7-day food
intake diary

162
Q

An increase in the serum concentration of unconjugated bilirubin may be caused
by metabolic dysfunction in the:
a. liver.
b. gallbladder.
c. pancreas.
d. kidney.

A

a. liver.

163
Q

An individual who is 200 cm tall and weighs 100 kilograms has a body mass
index of:
a. 25.
b. 30.
c. 35.
d. 40.

A

a. 25.

164
Q

A fasting plasma glucose concentration of 134 mg/dL reflects probable:

a. diabetes.
b. glucose intolerance.
c. normal glucose tolerance. d. hyperinsulinemia.

A

b. glucose intolerance.

165
Q

A fasting plasma glucose concentration of 50 mg/dL may suggest the presence of:
a. diabetes.
b. glucose intolerance.
c. normal glucose tolerance. d. hyperinsulinemia.

A

d. hyperinsulinemia.

166
Q

The professional responsibilities of the nutritionist or nutrition counselor do not
include:

a. developing the plan of nutrition care.
b. implementing the plan of nutrition care.
c. prescribing intravenous feedings.
d. evaluating the effectiveness of nutrition care.

A

c. prescribing intravenous feedings.

167
Q

A lecture series about nutrition may be deemed behaviorally effective if the
attendees:

a. submit favorable written evaluations of the lectures. b. later document changes in their eating habits and practices.
c. demonstrate improved ability to select more appropriate food
sources.
d. declare increased motivation to alter eating habits.

A

b. later document changes in their eating habits and practices.

168
Q

The modern practice of nutrition is based on:

a. a well-established scientific base.
b. a scientific base in frequent flux.
c. folk tradition.
d.
1Hirrefutable facts.

A

b. a scientific base in frequent flux.

169
Q

According to the Dietary Supplement and Health Education Act of 1994, all of the
following are dietary supplements except:
a. ginseng.
b. echinacea.
c. ephedra.
d. salicylates.

A

d. salicylates

170
Q

Responsible recommendations to consume vitamins in amounts exceeding their
RDA’s:
a. ignore efficacy and risk for toxicity.
b. balance benefits and risks. c. are not possible.
d.
are inconsistent with current knowledge.

A

b. balance benefits and risks

ana primer (1 decks)

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