Anaesthetics Flashcards

(49 cards)

1
Q

When should intraosseous access be considered

A

If attempts (usually >2 minutes) at IV are unsuccessful, or IV is not feasible

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2
Q

Sign in

A

Conducted prior to induction of anaesthesia
Patient confirms identity, nature of procedure, and reiterates consent

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3
Q

Sign out

A

Before patient or surgical team leaves OR
Inventory of surgical equipment, surgeon reports on procedure, and any concerns regarding recovery are recorded

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4
Q

Time out

A

Done before first skin incision is made
Equipment checked + concerns regarding intra-operative complications are recorded

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5
Q

Alternative to LMWH in patients with chronic kidney disease

A

Unfractionated heparin

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6
Q

Elective hip replacement VTE prophylaxis

A

LMWH for 10 days followed by aspirin (75 or 150 mg) for a further 28 days;

or LMWH for 28 days combined with anti-embolism stockings until discharge;

or Rivaroxaban

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7
Q

Elective knee replacement VTE prophylaxis

A

Aspirin (75 or 150 mg) for 14 days;

or LMWH for 14 days combined with anti-embolism stockings until discharge;

or Rivaroxaban

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8
Q

Management of local anaesthetic toxicity

A

IV 20% lipid emulsion e.g. intralipid

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9
Q

Risk factors/causes of local anaesthetic toxicity

A

IV administration
Excess usage
Liver dysfunction
Low protein state

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10
Q

Presentation of local anaesthetic toxicity

A

Initial overactivity of CNS
Then depression of CNS
Cardiac arrhythmias

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11
Q

One technique to reduce risk of local anaesthetic toxicity

A

Higher doses given with adrenaline to reduce systemic absorption - prolongs duration of action at site of injection (does not work with bupivicaine)

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12
Q

Maximum 1% lignocaine plain dose

A

3mg/kg - 200mg (20ml)
Based on ideal bodyweight

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13
Q

Maximum 1% lignocaine with 1 in 200,000 adrenaline

A

7mg/kg - 500mg (50mL)
Based on ideal bodyweight

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14
Q

Maximum bupivicaine 0.5% dose

A

2mg/kg - 150mg (30mL)
Based on ideal bodyweight

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15
Q

Substance used to clean surgical wounds in first 48 hours

A

Sterile saline

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16
Q

When can patients with surgical wounds shower safely

A

48 hours after surgery

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17
Q

Substance used to clean surgical wounds after 48 hours

A

If surgical wound separated, or opened to drain pus –> tap water

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18
Q

When is a tracheostomy useful

A

In facilitating long-term weaning
Often used in ITU

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19
Q

Early causes of post-operative pyrexia (0-5 days)

A

Blood transfusion
Cellulitis
UTI
Physiological systemic inflammatory reaction (usually within a day)
Pulmonary atelectasis

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20
Q

Late causes of post-operative pyrexia (>5 days)

A

VTE
Pneumonia
Wound infection
Anastomotic leak

21
Q

When should drugs containing oestrogen be stopped prior to surgery

22
Q

Name 5 muscle relaxant drugs

A

Suxamethonium
Atracurium
Vecuronium
Pancuronium
Rocuronium

23
Q

Which of the muscle relaxants is depolarising

A

Suxamethonium

24
Q

Action of suxamethonium

A

Competitively binds to ACh receptors in motor end plate –> paralysis

25
How do non-depolarising muscle relaxants work
Antagonise nicotinic ACh receptors in motor end plate --> paralysis
26
Relative onset + duration of action of muscle relaxants
Suxamethonium - fastest onset + shortest duration Atracurium + vecuronium - duration of 30-40(45 for at) minutes Pancuronium - onset = 2-3 minutes, duration up to 2 hours
27
Reversal for muscle relaxants
(Suxamethonium - sugammadex) Others - neostigmine
28
ASA I
A normal, healthy patient eg. non-smoker, minimal alcohol use
29
ASA II
A patient with mild systemic disease, without substantial functional limitations e.g. smoker, well-controlled diabetes mellitus, mild lung disease
30
ASA III
A patient with severe systemic disease, with substantive functional limitations; one or more moderate to severe diseases e.g. poorly controlled DM or hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity etc.
31
ASA IV
A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life e.g. recent MI, ongoing cardiac ischaemia etc.
32
ASA V
A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation e.g. ruptured AAA, massive trauma etc.
33
ASA VI
A declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes
34
Known adverse effects for depolarising muscle relaxants e.g. suxamethonium
Malignant hyperthermia Hyperkalaemia (usually transient)
35
Contraindications to suxamethonium
Patients with penetrating eye injuries or acute narrow angle glaucoma as it increases intra-ocular pressure
36
Adverse effects of non-depolarising muscle relaxants
Hypotension
37
Neuromuscular blocking agent of choice for rapid sequence intubation
Usually suxamethonium - due to rapid onset Other option = rocuronium (risk of allergy)
38
Features of malignant hyperthermia
Increased end-tidal carbon dioxide (hypercapnia) Tachycardia Muscle rigidity Rhabdomyolysis Hyperthermia Arrhythmia
39
Treatment of anaesthetic-induced malignant hyperthermia
IV dantrolene
40
Mechanism of action of propofol
GABA receptor agonist
41
Mechanism of action of ketamine
NMDA receptor antagonist
42
Which IV induction agents cause myocardial depression
Propofol - moderate Sodium thiopentone - marked
43
Fluids before surgery
Clear foods until 2 hours before - can reduce headaches, N+V post-op Fast from non-clear liquids/foods for minimum 6 hours before
44
Adverse effects of volatile liquid anaesthetics
Myocardial depression Malignant hyperthermia Halothane = hepatotoxic
45
Adverse effects of propofol
Pain on injection - due to activation of pain receptro TRPA1 Hypotension
46
Adverse effects of thiopental
Laryngospasm NB: highly lipid-soluble so quickly affects the brain
47
Adverse effects of etomidate
Primary adrenal supression Myoclonus
48
Adverse effects of ketamine
Disorientation Hallucinations
49
Inheritance of susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia
Autosomal dominant