Anaesthetics Flashcards

(35 cards)

1
Q

Give 4 reasons why an elective surgery may be cancelled on the day?

A
  • Current RTI
  • Poor control of drug therapy
  • Recent MI
  • Poor bloodwork
  • Uncontrolled HTN or AF
  • Logistical issues e.g. emergency case
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are 4 common risks of having anaesthesia/surgery?

4 rare but important?

A

Common: pain/aches, PONV, sore throat, confusion, dizziness, bladder problems.
Rare: allergy to medication, damage to teeth, slow breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name 1 non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking agents and 1 depolarising?

A
Non-depolarising = rocuronium, atracurium, pancuronium
Depolarising = suxemethonium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are possible induction agents for anaesthesia?

A

Propofol, thiopentone, ketamine, etomidate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which induction agent is mostly used for RSI?

A

Thiopentone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which induction agent is used for anaesthesia in TIVA?

A

Propofol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ketamine is more commonly used as an induction agents in ?

A

Paediatrics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name 3 inhalational agents used to maintain anaesthesia?

A

Isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Outline the steps from an awake patient to an asleep patient ready for surgery.

A
  • Pre-oxygenation
  • Opioid
  • Induction agent
  • Inhalational agent for maintenance
  • Bag mask
  • Muscle relaxant and endo-tracheal intubation
  • or just LMA insertion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Outline the steps of a RSI.

Which drugs are typically used?

Which patient’s is it used for?

A
  • Pre-oxygenation
  • Sellick’s manoeuvre (cricoid pressure)
  • Induction agent and immediate muscle relaxant
  • Intubation

Thiopentone and suxamethonium

Used if risk of aspiration of gastric contents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the steps involved at the end of an operation to wake a patient up?

A
  • Stop anaesthetic vapours
  • Give oxygen
  • Suction
  • Reverse muscle relaxants
  • Once breathing = remove ET tube and give oxygen by mask
  • Recovery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What antiemetics are given

a) intraoperatively
b) post operatively?

A

Ondansetron and dexamethasone

Cyclizine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which is longer acting, lidocaine or bupivacaine?

Which is more toxic?

A

Bupivacaine

Bupivicaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What effect does adding adrenaline to local anaesthetic injection have?

A

Increased length of action and with lidocaine allows higher doses to be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the mechanism of action of local anaesthetics?

What are the signs of toxicity?

A

Na+ channel blocks, prevents depolarisation of nerves

Peri-oral numbness, tinnitus, light-headedness, confusion, LoC, seizures, cardiac collapse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Management of local anaesthetic toxicity?

A

Supportive - airway support, cardiac monitoring
Benzos for seizures
IV 20% lipid emulsion (Itralipid) to absorb LA from circulatory system. Bolus and then infusion

17
Q

What are the layers you progress through when performing a spinal anaesthesia?
At which layers do you get a ‘pop’?

A

Skin - subcut fat - supraspinatous ligament - interspinatous ligament - ligamentum flavum (pop) - epidural space - dura mater (pop) - arachnoid mater - subarachnoid space

18
Q

What are some CI to spinal anaesthesia?

A

Local infection, sepsis, raised ICP, coagulopathies, severe hypovolaemia, pt refusal, severe MS and AS,

19
Q

SEs of spinal anaesthesia?

A

Hypotension, sensory and motor block, urinary retention.

20
Q

Which has a quicker onset: epidural or spinal?

21
Q

Complications of epidural?

How long do they usually stay in for?

A

Epidural haematoma/abscess, headache, infection, indwelling urinary catheter required.

Usually 2-3 days e.g. following major surgery. Can be shorter/longer.

22
Q

What is the Monro Kellie doctrine?

A

Sum of brain, CSF and intracerebral blood is constant, so increase in one must lead to decrease in one of the other.

23
Q

What is the equation for cerebral perfusion pressure?

A

Mean arterial pressure - mean intracranial pressure

24
Q

What is normal ICP?

25
What is the Cushing's triad for raised ICP?
Hypertension with widening pulse pressure Bradycardia Irregular breathing
26
When must you not use vasoconstrictor with local anaesthetic?
For regional blocks of the digits e.g. ring block, as vasoconstriction can cause ischaemia of the digit
27
Do local anaesthetics work on C fibres or A fibres first?
C fibres, which are smaller and transmit pain and temperature. A fibres are larger and transmit touch and power.
28
What are 3 CI to the use of suxamethonium?
Penetrating eye injuries, acute narrow angle glaucoma, hyperK, recent burns, spinal cord trauma causing paraplegia, previous sux allergy.
29
What patient would be classed as grade 1 ASA?
Healthy, non-smoker, non/minimal alcohol drinking
30
For elective surgery, what is the advice regarding food and clear fluids beforehand?
No food for 6 hours before, no clear fluids for 2 hours before.
31
Patients with MG are very sensitive to what type of anaesthetic agents?
Non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking agents e.g. rocuronium
32
What is succinylcholine otherwise known as?
Suxamethonium
33
What can be used to reverse non-depolarising nm blockade and what drug may be given with it?
Neostigmine | May be given with glycopyrronium bromide or atropine to prevent bradycardia and excessive salivation.
34
What induction agent is suitable for a patient who is haemodynamically unstable? Why?
Ketamine -doesn't cause hypotension unlike propofol and thiopental sodium
35
What is the max safe dose of lidocaine? | And bupivacaine?
a) 3mg/kg | b) 2mg/kg