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Anatomic Path Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the term for the infectious cause of turbinate atrophy in pigs and what are the causative agents?

A

(Atrophic rhinitis, causative agents are Bordetella bronchiseptica (not normal flora) and Pasteurella multocida (normal flora))

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2
Q

What type of lesion is caused by Aspergillus fumigatus infections of the nasal cavity of a dog?

A

(Fibrinonecrotizing rhinitis)

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3
Q

What type of lesion is caused by Cryptococcus neoformans infections of the nasal cavity in cats?

A

(Granulomatous rhinitis)

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4
Q

What is the most common causative agent associated with sinusitis in horses?

A

(Strep equi ssp zooepidemicus)

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5
Q

(T/F) Mannheimia haemolytica is normal commensal nasal bacteria.

A

(T)

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6
Q

What type of bronchopneumonia is caused by Mannheimia haemolytica?

A

(Fibrinous bronchopneumonia)

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7
Q

What is the causative agent of atypical interstitial pneumonia aka fog fever?

A

(Kinda a trick question, not “agent” like an organism, fog fever develops 2-3 weeks after cattle have been put on a pasture containing large amounts of tryptophan, it is metabolized into a substance that attacks the vessels of the lungs which allows air and fluid to leak into the interstitial space)

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8
Q

What type of pneumonia is associated with infection of Mycobacterium bovis?

A

(Granulomatous pneumonia)

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9
Q

Describe vena cava syndrome.

A

(Cows (usually dairy cows) fed a lot of grain get ruminal ulcers that allow bacteria (specifically mentioned Fusobacterium necrophorum) to seed abscesses throughout the body most importantly the liver which then results in a thrombus of the caudal vena cava)

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10
Q

What are the possible lesions resulting from infection of a sheep or goat with a small ruminant lentivirus?

A

(Interstitial pneumonia, encephalitis, arthritis, and mastitis)

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11
Q

What is the typical distribution of the fibrinous bronchopneumonia caused by Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae in pigs?

A

(Dorsocaudal)

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12
Q

What are potential causative agents of fibrinous polyserositis in pigs? )

A

(Mycoplasma hyorhinis, Glaeserella parasuis, Strep suis, and E. coli

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13
Q

What type of lung lesion is caused by Strep equi ssp zooepidemicus infections?

A

(Fibrinous pleuropneumonia)

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14
Q

What is the causative agent of equine multinodular pulmonary fibrosis that presents as a locally extensive, severe chronic interstitial fibrotic pneumonia?

A

(EHV-5)

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15
Q

What type of pneumonia is caused by Rhodococcus equi infections?

A

(Granulomatous pneumonia, also causes colitis, lymphadenitis, and osteomyelitis)

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16
Q

You are performing a necropsy on a cat who came from a shelter who is dealing with an outbreak of some respiratory disease, you note that the cat had bronchopneumonia, what would likely be at the top of your differential list prior to getting a culture back?

A

(Bordetella bronchiseptica)

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17
Q

What type of pneumonia is associated with FIP infections?

A

(Pyogranulomatous pneumonia)

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18
Q

What are the possible congenital malformations of the heart?

A

(ASD, VSD, PDA, PRA, and tetralogy of fallot)

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19
Q

What other lesion will typically be seen with a PRA?

A

(Megaesophagus)

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20
Q

You perform a necropsy on a 1 week old calf and note a PDA, can you write off their death being due to the PDA?

A

(No, PDAs normally close by 2 weeks of age and unless there is a ton of pulmonary issues causing a reversal of blood flow through it, don’t usually cause death so death was likely related to something else)

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21
Q

What are the possible neoplasias of the heart?

A

(Hemangiosarcoma, chemodectoma, and lymphoma/lymphosarcoma)

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22
Q

What are the classic locations for hemangiosarcomas throughout the body?

A

(Right auricle of the heart, spleen, and skin)

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23
Q

What location on the heart will chemodectomas be found?

A

(The base)

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24
Q

Lymphoma in cows is typically secondary to infection with which virus?

A

(Bovine leukosis virus)

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25
What are the possible cardiomyopathies of the heart seen in vet med?
(HCM, DCM, restrictive cardiomyopathy, and arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy)
26
Cats can have primary HCM, such as maine coons, but can also develop HCM secondary to what other disease?
(Hyperthyroidism)
27
A cat’s heart weighing over what value in grams is ‘sus’ per Dr. (he)Lahmers?
(18 grams)
28
What is endocarditis?
(Inflammation of the inner layer of the heart)
29
What is endocardiosis?
(Degenerative heart valve dz or insufficiency)
30
What is a more common cause of myocardial necrosis in horses?
(Ionophore toxicity)
31
Blastomyces, once in the alveolar spaces, is phagocytized by macrophages then disseminated throughout the lymphatics and blood and cause lesions most commonly where in the body?
(Skin and bones)
32
How is blastomycosis diagnosed?
(PCR, histopath can show you yeast but does not allow ID, fungal culture IDs the yeast but takes a long time and it is zoonotic, PCR has a high sensitivity and specificity)
33
What cells do R. equi use to survive in the body (R. equi also eventually causes these cells to rupture)?
(Macrophages)
34
(T/F) R. equi is the most common cause of granulomatous pneumonia in foals.
(T, other Ddx would be fungal or mycobacterium but they are both rare and foreign body but that is less likely to be multifocal to the extent R. equi is)
35
DCM is a functional deficit in what characteristic of the heart?
(Contractility)
36
What structure enlarges in DCM cases?
(The lumen of the ventricle)
37
How does hyperthyroidism lead to HCM in cats?
(Hyperthyroidism = increased release of catecholamines = hypertension = increased afterload = concentric hypertrophy of the heart = HCM)
38
(T/F) White muscle disease occurs when an animal is deficient in both selenium and vitamin E, the combination is the key component to this disease.
(F, could be deficient in just selenium, just vitamin E, or the double whammy of both, you’ll get white muscle dz in any which way)
39
Why might there be mineralization of the tissue affected by white muscle disease?
(Muscle cells contain a lot of calcium which is released when the cells die from the excess free radicals, calcium = mineral)
40
What muscles are going to be best to sample in a suspect white muscle disease case and why?
(Heart, masseter, tongue, and diaphragm; because they are all used a lot)
41
Sort the following groups of animals into more likely to least likely order to get white muscle disease: - Horse, goat - Cow, sheep, pig - Dog, cat, bird
(Cow, sheep, pig > horse, goat > dog, cat, bird)
42
How is white muscle disease diagnosed in a live animal vs a dead animal?
(Measure glutathione peroxidase in live animals (this is the bit that needs selenium to clear oxygen free radicals); measure selenium and/or vitamin E levels in the liver in dead animals (with the caveat that if the animal was premortem dosed with either, that will throw off this test))
43
What is the basic idea behind small lymph nodes (i.e. why are lymph nodes ever small)? Kinda two-ish reasons.
(1. They do not develop (immunodeficiency syndromes, specific pathogen free animals or 2. The animal is immunosuppressed so they lymph nodes have no purpose and they become small (malnutrition, aging/senile atrophy, or viral infections that directly destroy lymphoid tissue (BVDV, distemper))
44
What are the three causes for lymphadenopathy at a very basic level?
(Lymphoid hyperplasia, lymphadenitis, and neoplasia)
45
If you are presented with a lymph node on necropsy that has a distinct cortex and medulla, the cortex is thickened, and the history states the animal was painful on palpation of this lymph node (prior to death I guess), is this lesion hyperplastic or neoplastic?
(Hyperplastic)
46
Describe the gross appearance of a neoplastic lymph node.
(Homogeneous white to tan cut surface, loss of normal architecture, would have been non-painful on palpation (also lymphoma is soft, sarcoma is hard))
47
You cut into what had been an enlarged lymph node in a live animal and it is full of pus, what is most likely the cause of this lymphadenitis?
(This is suppurative inflammation so a pyogenic bacteria is at fault such as Streps)
48
What type of lymphadenitis does Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis cause?
(Caseous lymphadenitis → early lesions may appear almost suppurative but as the cycle of inflammation then fibrosis continues to occur, you get lamination and layers of fibrosis tissue and crud (super scientific word right there))
49
What should be the predominant cell type on histopath analysis of a lymph node in a suspected granulomatous lymphadenitis case (e.g. Histoplasmosis, Leishmaniasis, Mycobacterium, etc.)?
(Macrophages)
50
What is secreted by neoplastic cells that leads to hypercalcemia of malignancy?
(PTHrp)
51
Which portion of the lymph node is most likely to be first affected in cases of metastasis?
(The subcapsular space because that is where all of the lymph goes first before flowing through the cortex into the medulla)
52
Where are siderotic plaques most likely to be found on the spleen?
(The margin, if you see a marginal lesion on the spleen no you didn’t)
53
How do you know if a splenic infarct is acute versus chronic?
(Acute splenic infarct lesions are red and congested, chronic is white because all of the hemorrhage in the acute lesion has been replaced with fibrous connective tissue)
54
The spleen can be small for the same reason that lymph nodes can be small (immunosuppression or lack of development) and one reason that is entirely not related to the lymphoid purpose of the spleen, what is that reason? )
(Splenic contraction d/t fight or flight response, heart failure, and/or shock in an attempt to increase intravascular pressure
55
What is the most common cause of uniform splenic congestion?
(The use of barbiturates; other cause is acute septicemia involving anthrax or salmonella bc their exotoxins degrade the endothelium leading to congestion and hemorrhage of the tissues)
56
What type of splenomegaly is caused by hemolytic anemia and chronic septicemia?
(Meaty spleen aka uniform splenomegaly d/t cellular infiltration, specifically macrophages in the cases of hemolytic anemia and chronic septicemia (macrophage hyperplasia))
57
What type of splenomegaly is caused by lymphoma (more commonly) or leukemia?
(Uniform splenomegaly with cellular infiltration aka meaty spleen BUT can also be nodular so keep that in mind)
58
You’re presented with a dog spleen that contains multifocal nodules, what are the possible differentials on your list?
(Nodular hyperplasia (either lymphoid or EMH), hematoma, hemangiosarcoma, other neoplasia (either primary (lymphoma) or metastatic))
59
What is the most common splenic neoplasm in a cat?
(Mast cell tumor)
60
What portion of the kidney has to be biopsied to be able to see glomeruli?
(The cortex)
61
What is the appropriate removal order for the kidneys and adrenal glands?
(Right adrenal, right kidney, left adrenal, left kidney)
62
You perform necropsy in a cat with a blindfold on until you get to the kidneys, when you look at the kidneys they have multifocal small white plaques that are tracking the blood vessels, what is it most likely to be and what type of inflammation would you see on histopathology?
(FIP and pyogranulomatous inflammation; if the plaques were larger could be lymphoma instead, cyto/histopath would help you differentiate)
63
You find mineral plaques in the aorta of an animal on necropsy, where else might you want to look for a different type of lesion?
(Look in the mouth and at the periphery of the tongue, will likely be uremic ulceration)
64
What is a white spotted kidney in a calf typically preceded by?
(Septicemia of some sort)
65
Describe the location of the inflammation caused by leptospirosis infections in the kidney.
(Tubulointerstitial → inflammation starts in the tubules then radiates into the interstitium)
66
You perform a necropsy in a 1.5 week old puppy with a blind fold on until you get to the kidneys, when you look at the kidneys they have multifocal to coalescing red spots, what is most likely to have caused this lesion?
(Canine herpes virus, red spots are hemorrhage/necrosis)
67
What are the three layers of the mucosa?
(Epithelial, lamina propria, and muscularis mucosa)
68
What are the layers of the small intestine starting from the lumen?
(Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, and serosa)
69
What entails an ex situ examination of the alimentary tract?
(This is when you pull stuff out to look at it (in situ is when everything is as it was in the animal), you want to linearize the tract, examine the mucosal surface, intestinal contents and mesenteric lnn, assess wall thickness)
70
Describe normal mucosa. (
Light pink to tan, shiny, should look vital (even tho the animal is dead RIP), not too thick)
71
How should tissues be presented for histology?
(In formalin, make sure you are taking representative samples and handle everything gently)
72
How should tissues be presented for microbiology?
(Fresh, refrigerated to preserve; need to specify which microorganism you suspect)
73
(T/F) You can freeze a sample you want to run PCR on.
(T, feces and/or tissues can be refrigerated or frozen for molecular biological testing such as PCR)
74
(T/F) You can freeze a sample you want to run toxicological testing on.
(T)
75
Rank the following findings that indicate autolysis into mild to severe. - Mucosal sloughing - Gas distension - Serosal discoloration - Liquefaction - Wall emphysema - Bad smell
((Starting with mild) Serosal discolorations (green, red, black), gas distension, wall emphysema, mucosal sloughing (mainly starts in the esophagus and forestomachs), bad smell, liquefaction (ending with more severe))
76
How can you try to differentiate between a vesicular dz and an ulcerative dz?
(Vesicular is viral so more likely to have multiple animals to observe, may be able to find one with intact vesicles (it is when they pop that they look just like an ulcer), may also see a flap of skin (like when you have a blister and it inevitably pops, you should have a flap of skin))
77
What are the three possible causes of proliferative and necrotizing stomatitis in birds?
(Trichomoniasis, Poxvirus, and Candidiasis)
78
Describe the lesion for coccidiosis that is similar in goats, sheep, and cows.
(Tricky me, cows do not get the same coccidiosis lesions that goats and sheep do; goats and sheep will have multifocal to coalescing 2-3 mm white, slightly raised nodules, we did not get a description for cows but mucosa can look entirely normal so would need to submit tissue biopsies and/or feces for fecal float)
79
What is the causative agent for segmental hemorrhagic enteritis in a dog or cat until proven otherwise?
(Parvo)
80
What type of inflammation is caused by FIP?
(Pyogranulomatous → specifically peritonitis, mesenteritis, pneumonia, etc.)
81
What is the minimum formalin to tissue ratio for fixation of tissues for histopathology?
(10:1)
82
Tissue samples should be no more than how many mm thick when placed in formalin?
(5mm, formalin only penetrates 2.5 mm into tissue per 24 hours)
83
(T/F) Multinodular pancreatic hyperplasia is a common age-related change in older dogs and cats and has no clinical significance.
(T)
84
Milk spots on the liver result from what other disease?
(Ascaris suum infection, migration through the liver triggers inflammation and fibrosis in the liver = milk spots)
85
(T/F) It is normal for dogs and cats to have multiple lobes to their gallbladder.
(F, just cats)
86
What is another manifestation of polycystic kidney disease that affects the liver?
(Multifocal cystic disease of the intrahepatic bile ducts)
87
Where do hepatocellular carcinomas tend to metastasize?
(Other lobes of the liver and/or the hepatic lymph nodes but that is typically the extent)
88
Where do cholangiocellular carcinomas tend to metastasize?
(They tend to induce carcinomatosis = metastasis everywhere)
89
Describe the pathogenesis of umbilicated lesions.
(Whatever was growing was growing so fast it outgrew its blood supply and dies on the inside (me too girl) then caves inward → looks like a innie belly button (you might say...umbilical); common feature of carcinomas)
90
What causes acquired portosystemic shunts and what clinical feature will acquired PSS cases have that congenital PSS will not?
(Acquired PSS occur bc there is intrahepatic portal hypertension, acquired cases usually have ascites, congenital do not)
91
How can you differentiate between Fasciola hepatica and Fascioloides magna, both of which are liver flukes?
(Fasciola hepatica is confined to the lumen of the bile duct whereas Fascioloides magna will wander through the hepatic tissue)
92
(T/F) Diffuse cystic mucinous hyperplasia is associated with cholestasis.
(F, mucinous hyperplasia tends to leave the biliary tract alone until a mucocele forms)
93
What results from a gallbladder mucocele rupture?
(Bile peritonitis)
94
(T/F) Lymphoma in chickens tends to have a viral cause.
(T)
95
What is most likely the causative agent of multifocal to coalescing hepatic necrosis in a turkey liver?
(Histomonas meleagridis)
96
What is a common cause of nutmeg liver (zonal hepatocellular degeneration and loss with fibrosis)?
(Cardiac insufficiency)
97
What type of hepatitis does in utero infection with Campylobacter fetus ssp. fetus cause?
(Multifocal necrotizing hepatitis and this is if the animal isn’t aborted)
98
What liver lesion is caused by equine parvovirus-hepatitis virus 1?
(Also known as equine serum hepatitis or formerly known as Theiler’s dz; acute massive hepatic necrosis which when held up hands limp like a dishrag = dishrag liver)
99
If a lesion is disseminated throughout the liver, what type of spread would you suspect?
(Hematogenous)
100
You find multifocal hepatic necrosis in a rabbit, what is your top differential?
(Francisella tularensis = tularemia; other options are Pasteurella multocida, Staph. aureus, Pseudorabies, Salmonella, Yersinia)

Adv. Diagnostics (5 decks)

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