Anatomy Flashcards

(164 cards)

1
Q

What are the 3 components of the brainstem?

A

Midbrain
Pons
Medulla oblongata

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2
Q

What are neurons made up of?

A

Neuronal body
Soma
Dendrites
Axon

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3
Q

What is the role of dendrites?

A

To bring information towards the cell body.

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4
Q

What is the role of the soma?

A

To carry information away from the cell body in the form of an action potential.

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5
Q

What are glial cells?

A

Act as support cells of the nervous system.

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6
Q

What are the 4 types of glial cell?

A

Astrocytes
Oligodendrocytes
Microglia
Ependymal cells

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7
Q

What cells produce the myelin sheath of the CNS?

A

Oligodendrocytes

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8
Q

What cells produce the myelin sheath of the PNS?

A

Schwann cells

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9
Q

What are the gaps in the myelin sheath which APs jump between called?

A

Nodes of Ranvier

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10
Q

What is found in grey matter?

A

Neuronal cell bodies

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11
Q

What is found in white matter?

A

Axons

Acts as a communicating region.

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12
Q

In the CNS, where is grey matter found?

A

Grey matter is found towards the outside (white matter is towards the inside).

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13
Q

In the spinal cord, where is grey matter found?

A

Grey matter is found centralling in the shape of an ‘H’ (surrounded by white matter).

Swaps position from that seen in the CNS.

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14
Q

How do you differentiate between the anterior and posterior horns of grey matter in the spinal cord?

A

The posterior horns isolate the posterior column of white matter to the rest of the white matter.

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15
Q

What is the thalamus?

A

An area of grey matter deep within the brain. It has an internal capsule.

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16
Q

What is the corpus pallosum?

A

A ‘highway’ of white matter connecting both hemispheres of the brain.

Found immediately superior to the lateral ventricles.

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17
Q

What is the interthalamic adhesion?

A

A point of contact between the thalamus and the hypothalamus.

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18
Q

What are the lobes of the brain called?

A
Frontal lobe
Parietal lobe
Occipital lobe
Temporal lobe
Insular lobe
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19
Q

What are the 2 blood supplies of the brain called?

A

Internal carotid system (anterior)

Vertebro-basilar system (posterior)

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20
Q

Where do the 2 blood supplies of the brain meet?

A

The circle of Willis (forms the basilar artery).

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21
Q

What happens at the jugular foramen?

A

The dural venous sinuses drain into the internal jugular vein.

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22
Q

A collection of nerve cell bodies WITHIN the CNS is called?

A

Nucleus

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23
Q

A collection of nerve cell bodies WITHIN the PNS is called?

A

Ganglion

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24
Q

What is the benefit of many dendrites?

A

The increased surface area, allows maximum coverage of nerves.

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25
What form of neurons are most common?
Multipolar neurons
26
What do multipolar neurons provide?
Motor function
27
What do unipolar neurons provide?
Sensory function
28
Are multipolar neurons afferent?
No, they are efferent, as they supply motor innervation to the body wall.
29
Are unipolar neurons afferent?
Yes, as they carry sensory impulses towards the brain.
30
What are the 6 nerve modalities?
``` Somatic motor Somatic sensory Sympathetic Parasympathetic Visceral afferent Special sensory ```
31
Can tracts have more than one modality?
No, only nerves can have multiple modalities.
32
Are spinal nerves part of the CNS or PNS?
They are a PNS structure.
33
What foraminae do spinal nerves pass through?
Intervertebral foraminae
34
How many pairs of spinal nerves exist?
31 pairs
35
What is the route taken by sensory axons to reach the CNS?
Spinal nerve > Posterior root > Posterior rootlets > Posterior horn of the spinal cord
36
What is the route taken by motor axons to reach the effector organs?
Anterior horn of the spinal cord > Anterior rootlets > Anterior root > Spinal nerve
37
Spinal nerves and their subsequent rami are of which modality?
Mixed modality
38
What modality is the posterior root?
Sensory only.
39
What modality is the anterior root?
Motor only.
40
Do the dermatomes and myotomes of a spinal nerve always lie directly deep to each other?
No
41
Which dermatome segment is the nipple at?
T4
42
Which dermatome segment is the umbilicus at?
T10
43
Name the 12 cranial nerves
``` Olfactory (CNI) Optic (CNII) Oculomotor (CNIII) Trochlear (CNIV) Trigeminal (CNV) Abducens (CNVI) Facial (CNVII) Vestibulocochlear (CNVIII) Glossopharyngeal (CNIX) Vagus (CNX) Spinal accessory (CNXI) Hypoglossal (CNXII) ```
44
Which part of the brain controls the ANS?
Hypothalamus
45
Which part of the ANS is described as thoracolumbar outflow?
Sympathetic
46
Which part of the ANS is described as craniosacral outflow?
Parasympathetic
47
What is the role of the spinal cord?
To allow the brain to communicate with the areas of the body outwith the range of the cranial nerves.
48
What is the only part of the nervous system outwith the skull that does not interact with the spinal cord?
Vagus nerve
49
Where are the 2 enlargements of the spinal cord seen?
Cervical region | Lumbar region
50
At what point does the spinal cord usually end?
Vertebral level L1/L2 The area below this is where the spinal taps are carried out.
51
Where are the motor roots found?
To the anterior.
52
Where are the motor roots found?
To the anterior.
53
Are the spinal meninges continuous with the cranial meninges?
Yes
54
Where is the primary somatosensory cortex located?
The postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe.
55
How is the arrangement of the PSC described?
Somatotopic
56
What are the axons carried in the spinothalamic tract responsible for?
Pain, temperature and deep pressure.
57
Where is the primary motor cortex located?
The precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe.
58
What lies between the PMC and the PSC?
The central sulcus.
59
Is the corticospinal tract ascending or descending?
Descending
60
Is the spinothalamic tract ascending or descending?
Ascending
61
Is the DCML ascending or descending?
Ascending
62
Where does decussation occur in the corticospinal tract?
Directly after the medulla.
63
A spinal cord lesion that displays the crossover of motor and sensory fibres results in a condition called what?
Brown-Sequard syndrome
64
What is the primary function of the cerebellum?
To co-ordinate movement.
65
What is a common symptom of a cerebellar lesion?
Postural instability Limb coordination will remain intact.
66
What is the function of the basal ganglia?
To facilitate purposeful movement, inhibit unwanted movements and have a role in posture and muscle tone.
67
Where are the basal ganglia located?
The base of each cerebral hemisphere.
68
What are the 4 curvatures of the vertebral column?
Cervical lordosis Thoracic kyphosis Lumbar lordosis Sacral kyphosis
69
What is the gap in the vertebral body in which the spinal cord lies called?
The vertebral foramen.
70
What muscle is responsible for lower back pain in most cases?
Strain of the erector spinae muscles.
71
At which vertebral levels are no intervertebral discs found?
C1 C2 Sacrum (all fused) Coccyx (all fused)
72
What is the function of intervertebral discs?
To maintain structural strength, allowing for effective weight-bearing.
73
Which vertebra is called the atlas?
C1
74
Which vertebra is called the axis?
C2
75
Where are intervertebral discs found?
The gaps between vertebral bodies.
76
Through which opening does the cauda equina pass through?
Sacral canal
77
What is the end of the spinal cord - prior to the cauda equina - called?
Conus medullaris
78
What are the purpose of the 2 spinal cord enlargements?
To innervate the limbs.
79
What surrounds the spinal cord in the vertebral canal?
3 meningeal layers | Epidural fat pad
80
Where should any needle be inserted into the spinal column?
Below the L2 level.
81
Should lumbar puncture be performed in cases of raised ICP?
No
82
Injury to the epidural fat pad can cause the development of what?
An epidural haematoma.
83
What function(s) do the spinal nerves carry out?
Somatic general sensory Somatic motor Sympathetic motor Reflex
84
What symptoms are linked to somatic general sensory issues?
``` Pain Paraesthesia Numbness Sensitivity Temperature ```
85
What symptoms are linked to somatic motor issues?
Cramp Stiffness Reduced power
86
What is a dermatome?
A segment of skin supplied by a single pair of spinal nerves.
87
Do posterior rami supply a larger area than anterior rami?
No, they are smaller, therefore supply a smaller area.
88
What is a myotome?
A group of muscles supplied by a single spinal nerve.
89
What is a reflex?
An involuntary response to a stimulus.
90
What does an UMN lesion present with?
Spasticity
91
What does a LMN lesion present with?
Flaccidity
92
What is paralysis?
When a muscle is without a functioning motor nerve, meaning it cannot contract. Upon examination, the muscle will have reduced tone.
93
In spasticity. is the issue with the motor nerve?
No, the motor nerve is fine, the issue is with the descending controls. The result is increased tone.
94
What 3 cranial nerves are found at the ponto-medullary junction?
CNVI CNVII CNVIII
95
What cranial nerves supply the ocular muscles?
LR6 SO4 AO3
96
What are the roles carried out by CNV?
Somatosensation of the face Proprioception of chewing Motor control of the masticatory muscles
97
What supplies parasympathetic innervation above the colic flexure?
Vagus nerve
98
What supplies parasympathetic innervation below the colic flexure?
Sacral spinal nerves
99
What might a medial brainstem lesion at the reticular formation (just above the pons) produce?
Irreversible coma
100
In what order are cranial nerves numbered?
From anterior to posterior.
101
Which foraminae does CNI pass through?
The cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone.
102
Which foraminae does CNII pass through?
Optic canal
103
Which foraminae does CNII, CNIV, CNV1 and CNVI pass through?
Superior orbital fissure
104
Which foraminae does CNV2 pass through?
Foramen rotundum
105
Which foraminae does CNV3 pass through?
Foramen ovale
106
Which foraminae does CNVII and CNVIII pass through?
Internal acoustic meatus
107
Which foraminae does CNIX, CNX and CNXI pass through?
Jugular foramen
108
Which foraminae does CNXII pass through?
Hypoglossal canal
109
What are the 3 divisions of the trigeminal nerve called, and what is their modality?
CNV1 > Ophthalmic > Sensory CNV2 > Maxillary > Sensory CNV3 > Mandibular > Sensory and motor
110
What is the only cranial nerve that attaches to the pons?
The trigeminal nerve.
111
What area of the face is innervated by CNV1?
Upper 1/3rd of the face. Includes the root and tip of the nose.
112
What area of the face is innervated by CNV2?
Middle 1/3rd of the face. Includes the ala of the nose and the upper lip.
113
What area of the face is innervated by CNV3?
Lower 1/3rd of the face.
114
The temporal nerve supplies 3 pairs of 'jaw-closing' muscles, what are these?
Masseter Temporalis Medial pterygoid
115
What is the 'jaw-opening' muscle and which nerve supplies it?
Lateral pterygoid CNV3
116
Other than lateral pterygoid, what muscles are supplied by CNV3?
Tensor veli palatini | Tensor tympani
117
Does the facial nerve supply the parotid gland?
No, it only passes through here on the way to the geniculate ganglion.
118
What are the 5 branches of the facial nerve?
``` Temporal Zygomatic Buckle Mandibular Cervical ``` Remember 'To Zanzibar By Motor Car'.
119
What 2 foramen does the facial canal connect?
Internal acoustic meatus | Stylomastoid foramen
120
At which level does the vagus nerve pass through the diaphragm?
T10
121
Unilateral deviation of the uvula suggests what?
One-sided pathology of the vagus nerve.
122
Unilateral deviation of the tongue suggests what?
Unilateral pathology of the hypoglossal nerve (CNXII).
123
What are the 3 auditory ossicles found in the middle ear?
Malleolus Incus Stapes
124
Where is the primary auditory cortex?
Directly below the lateral fissure. They are bilateral structures, receiving from both ears.
125
Damage to which 2 areas can lead to aphasia?
Wernicke's area | Broca's area
126
What is involved in balance and co-ordination?
CNVIII 3 Semicircular canals Vestibular nerve Cochlear nerve
127
Which gyrus is the lower visual field projected to?
That found superior to the calcarine sulcus.
128
Which gyrus is the upper visual field projected to?
That found inferior to the calcarine sulcus.
129
What is different about tracking movements to those of command?
Tracking movements are smooth, whilst movements of command are saccadic (jumpy).
130
What do association fibres do?
Connect cortical layers of the same hemisphere.
131
What are the 5 layers of the scalp?
``` Skin Connective tissue Aponeurosis Loose connective tissue Pericranium ``` Remember 'SCALP'.
132
In which layer are the arteries of the scalp found?
Connective tissue layer.
133
What type of joint are the sutures of the skull?
Fibrous
134
What is the pterion?
An 'H' shaped suture, joining together 4 bones.
135
Which 4 bones are joined at the pterion?
Frontal Parietal Temporal Sphenoid
136
Which artery lies deep to the pterion?
The middle meningeal artery.
137
At which point does the falx cerebri attach to the ethmoid bone?
The crista galli.
138
What passes through the cribriform plate?
The olfactory nerves en route to the nasal cavity.
139
What are the 2 layers of the dura mater called?
Periosteal layer | Meningeal layer
140
Are both layers of the dura mater found surrounding the spinal cord?
No, only the meningeal layer lines the spinal cord.
141
Which nerve innervates the dura mater?
The trigeminal nerve (CNV).
142
The tentorium cerebelli is an area of dura mater that lies above which part of the brain?
The cerebellum.
143
The diaphragm sellae is an area of dura mater that lies above which structure?
The pituitary gland.
144
What does the falx cerebri separate?
The 2 hemispheres of the brain. It is a midline structure.
145
Through which vessels does venous blood leave the brain?
The dural venous sinuses.
146
Where is the danger triangle of the face found?
From the nose root to the upper lip.
147
Why is the danger triangle of the face clinically significant?
The veins connecting this area are linked to the dural venous sinuses, meaning it provides a route for any potential infection to reach the brain.
148
What are the 3 branches of the ICA?
Ophthalmic artery Anterior cerebral artery Middle cerebral artery
149
When the volume of CSF within the cranial cavity increases, what results?
Hydrocephalus
150
In which 2 ways can hydrocephalus present?
If the rate of CSF production is too much | If there is blockage of CSF drainage
151
Is hydrocephalus an example of a SOL?
Yes
152
How would hydrocephalus be diagnosed in adults?
MRI will show an increased size of ventricles.
153
How does hydrocephalus present in kids?
There will be expansion of the head. This is possible due to fusion of the bones of the skull not yet occurring.
154
How would you treat hydrocephalus?
A ventriculo-peritoneal shunt. This shifts fluid out of the skull and into the peritoneum (where it can be reabsorbed).
155
Is bleeding within the cranial cavity classed as a SOL?
Yes
156
What types of haemorrhage can occur within the brain?
Extradural Subdural Subarachnoid
157
What is the 2 main groups of herniation?
Supratentorial Infratentorial Relates to the tentorium cerebelli.
158
What are the different forms of supratentorial herniation?
Cingulate/subfalcine Central Uncal Transcalvarial
159
What is a sign of supratentorial herniation?
A fixed ipsilateral dilated pupil. Results from compression of the oculomotor nerve (CNIII).
160
What foramen may be involved in an infratentorial herniation?
The foramen magnum.
161
What is the function of the extrinsic back muscles?
They move the upper limb.
162
What are the 2 groups of intrinsic back muscles?
Erector spinae | Transversospinalis
163
What is most commonly the first palpable vertebra?
C7
164
Rupture of the circle of Willis will lead to?
Subarachnoid haemorrhage