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study anatomy lol (81 cards)

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1
Q

Define hysterectomy

A

removal of uterus

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2
Q

What are the three types of hysterectomy

A

Total, Radial, Partial

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3
Q

What is a total hysterectomy

A

removal of the body and neck (cervix) of uterus, most common type of hysterectomy

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4
Q

What is a radial hysterectomy

A

removal of the body and neck (cervix) of uterus, top portion of the vagina, most of the tissue that surrounds the cervix, and sometimes the pelvic lymph nodes; can be done as part of cancer treatment

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5
Q

What is a partial hysterectomy

A

removal of the body of the uterus, but cervix is left intact; sometimes called subcervical hysterectomy; treat noncancerous conditions like fibroids or endometriosis

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6
Q

What are the remnants of the gubernaculum in female anatomy

A

Round ligament of uterus and ovarian ligament

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7
Q

What are the different layers of the uterus

A

perimetrium, myometrium, endometrium

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8
Q

What is perimetrium

A

visceral peritoneum

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9
Q

What is myometrium

A

thick layer of the uterus that thins significantly during pregnancy

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10
Q

What is endometrium

A

inner lining of the uterus, if fertilization does not occur, it is sloughed off during 3 to 5 days of menstruation

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11
Q

What are the differences between the female and male urethra

A

much shorter in females, females are more likely to get a UTI

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12
Q

Define tubal ligation

A

division of the fallopian tube and ligaton (tying off) of each severed

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13
Q

What causes internal hemorrhoids

A

prolapses of rectal mucosa containing normally dilated veins; breakdown of smooth muscle deep to the mucosa. Not painful.

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14
Q

What causes external hemorrhoids

A

thromboses (blood clots) in pillow-like veins of external rectal venous plexus that is covered by skin in the perineal area. Can be painful.

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15
Q

What are the four ligaments in female anatomy

A

round ligament of uterus, suspensory ligament of ovary, ovarian ligament, broad ligament

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16
Q

What is the round ligament of the uterus

A

remnant of gubernaculum

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17
Q

What does the suspensory ligament of the ovary do

A

connects ovary to the wall of the pelvis, contains the ovarian artery and vein

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18
Q

What does the ovarian ligament do

A

connects ovary to uterus

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19
Q

What is the broad ligament and where is it

A

sheet of tissue inferior to the fallopian tube, similar to mesentary

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20
Q

What is endometriosis

A

disease where tissue similar to the lining of the uterus grows outside the uterus. May be located anywhere in the abdomen or pelvis.

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21
Q

Define ectopic pregnancy

A

implantation of fertilized egg in a location other than the uterus such as the fallopian tube

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22
Q

What is the timeline of menstruation and what happens

A

3-5 days, endometrial lining sloughs off

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23
Q

What is the timeline of ovulation and what happens

A

day 14ish, egg is released from one ovary

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24
Q

What is the most common site for fertilization

A

ampulla

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25
How long can an egg be viable for fertilization
12-24 hours after ovulation
26
When does implantation occur
7 days after fertilization, day 12ish
27
What is the name of the collective external female anatomy
Vulva
28
What does the Vulva contain
mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, glans clitoris, prepuce, frenulum
29
What are kegel exercises
contracting the muscles of the pelvic floor which may have been weakened by childbirth; these exercises may improve urinary incontinence
30
What are external anal sphincter muscles
outer sphincter surrounding the anal canal, continuous with the levator ani muscle, hence subject to damage when the levator ani may be damaged or gretched during childbirth, SKELETAL MUSCLE, VOLUNTARY CONTROL
31
What are internal anal sphincter muscles
inner sphincter surrounding the anal canal, SMOOTH MUSCLE, INVOLUNTARY CONTROL
32
Which leg bone carries little or no weight
fibula
33
Which leg bone has difficulty healing and why
tibia; fracture may result in contamination because of the proximity of the skin and likelihood of contamination when the bone passes through the skin, tibia has inadequate blood supply for rapid and complete healing
34
What is the longest muscle in the body
sartorius
35
What are the tenderloin muscles
iliopsoas, psoas major/minor and iliacus
36
What are the backstrap muscles
erector spinae; iliocostalis, longissimus, spinalis
37
What is the adductor hiatus
opening in distal part of adductor magnus, at this point the name of the femoral vein converts to popliteal
38
Why is the hip joint better than the knee joint
the acetabulum is relatively deep and supports the integrity of the ball and socket joint with a strong bony perimeter; the knee joint is supported mainly by muscles, tendons, and ligaments which do not have as great a ability to support weight when being used as does bone
39
What kind of joint is the knee
hinge joint
40
What kind of joint is the hip
ball and socket joint
41
What is the fracture site of most broken hips
at the femoral neck
42
What makes the hip joint more stable
contains ligamentum teres femoris which helps to retain the ball of the head of the femur in the socket of the acetabulum. Ligament of femoral head attaches to the head of acetabulum
43
What is hip dysplasia
when the acetabulum is too shallow to support the femoral head
44
Where is the patellar tendon
between rectus femoris and patella
45
Where is the patellar ligament
between patella and tibial tuberosity
46
What are the two sesamoid bones we learned about
patella and pisiform
47
What is a groin pull and what muscles does it involve
stretching or tearing of one or more of the medial muscles of the thigh; adductor longus, brevis, magnus, pectineus, gracilis and obturator externus
48
Explain fascia lata and IT band
origin of tensor facia lata ASIS and iliac crest, becomes fascial layer (IT band) and inserts on lateral condyle of tibia
49
What is responsible for shin splints
origin for tibialis anterior is usually responsible for shin splints
50
Define osgood-schlatter's injury
inflammation of patellar ligament at the tibial tuberosity. Disease usually affects children experiencing growth spurts. Generally resolves on its own.
51
What are growth plates, where are they
areas of cartilage located at the ends of long bones in children and teens responsible for bone growth
52
What are the borders of the femoral triangle
inguinal ligament, sartorius muscle, adductor longus
53
What is the femoral triangle used for in a clinical setting
as a landmark to find the femoral arterial pressure point
54
What is a safe spot for IM injections (intramuscular)
a ventrogluteal site; just below iliac crest, hip region, gluteus medius and gluteus minimus area
55
What is the sciatic nerve
one of two major nerves of the thigh (other being femoral nerve), longest and largest single nerve of the peripheral nervous system
56
Describe sciatica
pain caused by compression of the roots of the sciatic nerve, L4 through L3, from disc degeneration and disc herniation or injury to the lumbar area
57
What is the terrible triad knee injury
damage to ACL, MCL, and medial meniscus
58
What is knock knee
LATERAL angulation of the leg; excess stress is placed on the lateral structures of the knee joint
59
What is bowleg
MEDIAL angulation of the leg; excess pressure is placed on medial structures of the knee joint
60
Which tendon is most often used in knee reconstruction
semitendinosus
61
Describe varicose veins
dilated, twisted veins which are common in the leg, generally superficial, easily seen in physical examinations, sometimes called spider veins
62
What are causes of varicose veins
develop because of failure of small valves in the veins
63
What is the greater saphenous vein used for and where is it located
branch off femoral vein, can be used for coronary bypass surgery
64
What is the lesser saphenous vein used for and where is it located
runs up from bilateral foot in between medial and lateral gastrocnemius, delivers blood to popliteal vein
65
Where can the posterior tibial pressure point be located
found in between medial malleolus and posterior tibial tendon, most important to assess for peripheral artery disease
66
What pressure point should be assessed first for pulse after a knee cast and why
Dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial artery to make sure pressure inside cast does not cause occlusion of popliteal artery
67
What is the circulation assessment or 5 p's
pain, pulse, palor, paresthesia, paralysis
68
What are the calcaneus bone and muscle attachments
Achilles tendon, soleus, lateral gastrocnemius, and medial gastrocnemius
69
What are the anatomical directions related to ankle sprains
inversion; big toe going more inward or medial eversion; pinky toe going more outward or lateral
70
What anatomical direction is more common for an ankle sprain
inversion
71
What are the triceps surae muscles
lateral head of gastrocnemius, medial head of gastrocnemius, soleus muscle
72
What does the lateral head of gastrocnemius do
plantar flexion O: lateral distal femur I: calcaneus
73
What does the medial head of gastrocnemius do
plantar flexion O: medial distal femur I: calcaneus
74
What does the soleus do
plantar flexion, deep to gastrocnemius
75
What is plantar flexion
rotating food downwards
76
What is dorsiflexion
rotating foot upwards
77
What are the superficial layers of the back
latissimus dorsi, trapezius
78
What are the intermediate layers of the back
rhomboideus major and minor
79
What are the deep layers of the back
iliocostalis, longissimus, spinalis
80
What muscles are part of erector spinae
Spinalis, Longissimus, Iliocostalis
81
Where is the adductor tubercle
on medial epicondyle of tibia

Anatomy :D (1 decks)

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