Anatomy Flashcards
(100 cards)
1
Q
Patient had improperly fitted axillary crutch and suffered
injury to a branch of the brachial plexus. Which is the most likely finding?
A. Weakness of arm abduction B. Hand of benediction C. Ape hand D. Cyclist palsy E. Weakness in extending the forearm and wristdrop
A
E.
The affected nerve with improperly fitted crutches
is the radial nerve. Yes, the first impulse for this
question is to think axillary nerve is the answer
because it’s an axillary crutch. BUT THAT’S
WRONG. The correct answer is radial nerve!
The axillary nerve, with the posterior humeral
circumflex artery actually courses much higher
posteriorly via the quadrangular space.
The radial nerve, along with the deep brachial
artery courses posteriorly via the triangular
interval and is more susceptible to injury from the
axilla.
Weakness of arm abduction - axillary nerve
Hand of benediction – Median nerve
Ape hand – median nerve
Cyclist palsy – ulnar nerve
Weakness in extending the forearm – radial nerve
Source: Topnotch handout and pearls in anatomy
2
Q
Which of the following is not involved in the transmission of weight while standing?
A. Sacrum B. Pelvis C. Femur D. Tibia E. Fibula
A
E
The fibula is just a bone for anchoring muscles. In
fact, it’s so insignificant, you can use it for bone
grafting! The part used for grafting is the middle
third because this contains the nutrient artery.
Source: Moore Clinically oriented anatomy 4th ed Chapter 5 (Ebook)
3
Q
Which is the equivalent layer of the Deep investing fascia of the abdomen in the perineum?
A. Colles’ fascia B. Gallaudet’s fascia C. Scarpa’s fascia D. Dartos fascia E. Buck’s fascia
A
B
Abdomen (superficial to deep)
Camper’s fascia (fatty superficial layer)
Scarpa’s fascia (membranous superficial layer)
Deep investing fascia
Perineum (superficial to deep)
Fatty superficial layer
Colles’ fascia (membranous superficial layer)
Gallaudet’s fascia/investing fascia
Penis (superficial to deep)
Dartos muscle
Dartos fascia
Buck’s fascia
Source: Moore Clinically oriented anatomy 4th ed
Chapter 2 and 3 (Ebook)
4
Q
Which of the following is false of the Greater pelvis?
A. Obstetric significance B. Lies above the linea terminales C. Pelvis major D. False pelvis E. None of the above
A
A
Lesser pelvis (true pelvis, pelvis minor) – below the arcuate line, obstetric significance
Source: Moore Clinically oriented anatomy 4th ed Chapter 3 (Ebook)
5
Q
What is the shape of the left adrenal gland?
A. Triangular B. Kidney C. Crescent D. Oval E. Round
A
C
Left crescent, Right triangle
For those who are math geeks, my mnemonic is
“right triangle” (a triangle with a right angle in it)
Source: Moore Clinically oriented anatomy 4th ed Chapter 2 (Ebook)
6
Q
Which of the following cartilages is pyramidal in shape?
A. Epiglottis B. Arytenoid C. Corniculate D. Cuneiform E. Thyroid
A
B
Arytenoid: 3 sided pyramid
Apex superiorly – bears corniculate cartilage and
attaches to aryepiglottic fold
Vocal process anteriorly – posterior attachement
for vocal cord
Muscular process laterally – attachment for
posterior and lateral cricoarytenoid muscle
Base: cricoarytenoid joint
Source: Moore Clinically oriented anatomy 4th ed Chapter 8 (Ebook)
7
Q
Which of the following is not true of the quadrangular
membrane?
A. Extends from the lateral aspects of the arytenoid and
epiglottic cartilage
B. The aryepiglottic ligament/fold forms the free superior
margin
C. The vestibular ligament/fold forms the free inferior
margin
D. The vestibular fold forms the false vocal cord
E. None of the above
A
E
The vestibular ligament forms the inferior border
of the quadrangular membrane.
Source: Moore Clinically oriented anatomy 4th ed Chapter 8 (Ebook)
8
Q
What do you call the junction where the nasal bones and frontal bones meet?
A. Inion B. Rhinion C. Glabella D. Nasion E. Pterion
A
D
Source: Moore Clinically oriented anatomy 4th ed Chapter 7 (Ebook)
9
Q
FSH is secreted by which type of cell in the pituitary gland?
A. Acidophils B. Basophils C. Chromophobes D. Supraoptic nuclei E. Paraventricular nuclei
A
B
Acidophils – Growth hormone, prolactin Basophils – FSH, LH, TSH, ACTH Supraoptic nuclei – Vasopressin mainly Paraventricular nuclei – Oxytocin mainly Source: Topnotch
10
Q
A trauma patient suffers a tear at the junction of the SVC and the right atrium. This tear would likely damage the:
A. SA node B. AV node C. AV bundle D. Right bundle branch E. Left bundle branch
A
A
The SA node is located in the right atrium at the
junction where it is joined by the SVC.
Source: Moore Clinically oriented anatomy 4th ed Chapter 1 (Ebook
11
Q
The lowest level of the lung on end expiration at the
midaxillary line is?
A. 6th intercostal space B. 7th intercostal space C. 8th intercostal space D. 9th intercostal space E. 10th intercostal space
A
C
Lungs – 6-8-10
Pleura – 8-10-12
Source: Topnotch handout on anatomy
12
Q
While doing a spinal tap, which describes the most accurate sequence of layers from the skin to the subarachnoid space?
A. Skin, interspinous ligament, dura mater, subarachnoid
space
B. Skin, supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament,
posterior longitudinal ligament, dura mater, subarachnoid
space
C. Skin, supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, dura
mater, subarachnoid space
D. Skin supraspinous ligament, intertransverse ligament,
arachnoid space, subarachnoid space
E. Skin, interspinous ligament, anterior longitudinal
ligament, dura mater, subarachnoid space
A
C
Source: Topnotch handout on anatomy
13
Q
A 5-year-old male presented with painless testicular mass. If the mass proved to be a malignancy, the earliest affected lymph nodes would be:
A. Lumbar (aortic) lymph nodes B. Inferior mesenteric nodes C. Deep inguinal nodes D. Common iliac nodes E. Superficial inguinal nodes
A
A
Tumor cells from the gonads that metastasize
through the lymphatics metastasize to the lumbar
nodes initially. Remember that the origin of the
gonadal arteries is the aorta, therefore the
lymphatics will also course similarly.
Source: Moore Clinically oriented anatomy 4th ed Chapter 2 (Ebook)
14
Q
A surgeon is about to make an incision through the fundus of the stomach, which of the following requires clamping to prevent bleeding?
A. Right gastric artery B. Left gastric artery C. Right gastroomental artery D. Left gastroomental artery E. Short gastric artery
A
E
Lesser curvature – right and left gastric artery
Greater curvature – right and left gastroomental
artery
Fundus – short gastric artery
Source: Moore Clinically oriented anatomy 4th ed Chapter 2 (Ebook)
15
Q
A surgeon is about to perform cholecystectomy. The
gallbladder can be localized in its fossa between which 2 anatomical lobes?
A. Quadrate and left lobes B. Quadrate and caudate lobes C. Right and quadrate lobes D. Caudate and right lobes E. Caudate and left lobes
A
C
Source: Moore Clinically oriented anatomy 4th ed Chapter 2 (Ebook)
16
Q
The right pulmonary artery:
A. Are 2 in number B. Are 4 in number C. Courses posterior to the ascending aorta and the SVC D. B and C E. None of the above
A
C
There are 2 pulmonary arteries – 1 right and 1 left.
There are 4 pulmonary veins.
The right pulmonary artery courses posterior to
the ascending aorta and SVC!
Source: Moore Clinically oriented anatomy 4th ed Chapter 1 (Ebook)
17
Q
What happens in May-Thurner syndrome?
A. The aorta compresses the IVC
B. The left common iliac vein is compressed by the left
common iliac artery
C. The right common iliac vein is compressed by the right
common iliac artery
D. The left common iliac vein is compressed by the right
common iliac artery
E. The right common iliac vein is compressed by the left
common iliac artery
A
D
This condition predisposes to Deep vein
thrombosis.
18
Q
Which of the following is a syndesmosis?
A. Interosseus membrane B. Gomphosis C. Distal tibiofibular joint D. A and B E. All of the above
A
E
Source: Topnotch handout on anatomy
19
Q
Kiesselbach’s plexus is vascular anastomosis on the anterior part of the nose. Juan dela Cruz damaged this plexus while picking his nose. Which of the following is least likely to contribute to the epistaxis?
A. Ophthalmic artery B. Maxillary artery C. Mandibular artery D. Facial artery E. Ethmoidal artery
A
C
Arterial supply
Sphenopalatine artery (Maxillary artery)
Anterior and posterior ethmoidal artery
(ophthalmic artery branch)
Greater palatine artery (Maxillary artery)
Superior labial artery and lateral nasal branches of
the facial artery
Source: Moore Clinically oriented anatomy 4th ed Chapter 7 (Ebook)
20
Q
Which of the following is has a brush border lining its lumen?
A. Small intestine B. Proximal convoluted tubule C. Distal convoluted tubule D. A and B E. All of the above
A
D
The brush border differentiates the proximal from
the distal convoluted tubule.
Source: Topnotch handout on anatomy
21
Q
The inner ear is housed within which bone?
A. Temporal B. Sphenoid C. Ethmoid D. Maxillary E. Zygomatic
A
A
SIMILAR TO PREVIOUS BOARD EXAM
CONCEPT/PRINCIPLE. A few ENT questions were
present in our Anatomy exam, and were generally
tougher than the anatomy questions.
22
Q
Which type of pelvis presents with a larger AP diameter
compared to the transverse diameter?
A. Gynecoid B. Android C. Anthropoid D. Platypelloid E. Arthropod
A
C
SIMILAR TO PREVIOUS BOARD EXAM
CONCEPT/PRINCIPLE. Anthropoid=AP
diameter>transverse; Platypelloid
(“flatypelloid”)=transverse diameter>AP diameter.
Both came out in 2 seaparate questions during our
Anatomy exam.
23
Q
Correct boundaries of the greater sciatic foramen except:
A. anterolaterally by the greater sciatic notch
B. posteromedially by the sacrotuberous ligament
C. inferiorly by the sacrospinous ligament and ischial spine
D. inferolaterally by the piriformis muscle
E. superiorly by the anterior sacroilliac ligament
A
D
SIMILAR TO PREVIOUS BOARD EXAM
CONCEPT/PRINCIPLE. The piriformis muscle
divides the greater sciatic foramen into a
suprapiriform and infrapiriform foramen. There
were about 3 questions about the greater sciatic
notch in our Anatomy exam. Expect a few difficult
questions about pelvic anatamy
24
Q
Secretes surfactant in the lung:
A. Type I alveolar B. Type II alveolar cells C. Kulchitsky cells D. Clara cells E. B, C, D are correct.
A
B
SIMILAR TO PREVIOUS BOARD EXAM
CONCEPT/PRINCIPLE. The few histology
questions asked during our anatomy exam were
generally easy.
25
A 63 year-old male smoker develops an apical sulcus tumor that compresses the brachial plexus and cervical stellate ganglion. This may lead to:
```
A. Pancoast syndrome
B. Superior vena cava syndrome
C. Horner's syndrome
D. Thoracic outlet syndrome
E. Thoracic inlet syndrome
```
A
SIMILAR TO PREVIOUS BOARD EXAM
CONCEPT/PRINCIPLE. Thoracic outlet and inlet
syndrome generally pertain to the same thing.
Horner syndrome involves the cervical
sympathetic trunk. 2 questions about this topic in
our Anatomy exam.
26
To pass a needle into the pleural space in the midaxillary line, the following structures will have to be pierced except?
```
A. Internal intercostals
B. Levatores costarum
C. External intercostals
D. Parietal pleura
E. Innermost intercostals
```
B
27
On percussing the anterior chest of a patient, you find the right margin of the heart to lie 5 cm to right of the edge of the sternum. Which chamber of the heart is likely to be enlarged?
```
A. left ventricle
B. left atrium
C. right ventricle
D. right atrium
E. both ventricles
```
D
The right border of the heart is formed by the
right atrium. Inferior border is mostly the right
ventricle with the apex of the left ventricle
28
The following structures form the walls of the inguinal canal except?
```
A. Conjoint tendon
B. Aponeurosis of external obliique muscle
C. Internal oblique muscle
D. Lacunar ligament
E. Fascia transversalis
```
D
29
To pass a needle into the cavity of the tunica vaginalis in the scrotum, the following structures have to be pierced except?
```
A. Dartos muscle
B. Colles' fascia
C. Tunica albuginea
D. Internal spermatic fascia
E. Cremasteric fascia
```
C
SIMILAR TO PREVIOUS BOARD EXAM
CONCEPT/PRINCIPLE. The tunica albuginea is the
fibrous covering of the testis. There were also
other questions about Colles's and Scarpa's fascia.
30
The hilum of the right kidney contains the following
important structures except?
```
A. Renal pelvis
B. Tributaries of right renal vein
C. Sympathetic nerve fibers
D. Part of the right suprarenal gland
E. Branches of the right renal artery
```
D
The right suprarenal adrenal gland does not
extend downward to the hilum of the right kidney.
31
A 53-year-old man has difficulty with breathing through his nose. On examination, his physician finds that he has
swelling of the mucous membranes of the superior nasal meatus. Which opening of the paranasal sinuses is most
likely plugged?
```
A. Middle ethmoidal sinus
B. Maxillary sinus
C. Posterior ethmoidal sinus
D. Anterior ethmoidal sinus
E. Frontal sinus
```
C
The posterior ethmoidal sinus opens into the
superior nasal meatus. The maxillary, frontal, and
anterior and middle ethmoidal sinuses drain into
the middle nasal meatus.
32
An oncologist is reviewing a CT scan of a 74-year-old man with newly diagnosed hepatocellular carcinoma. He locates the affected quadrate lobe of the liver that:
A. Lies between the IVC and ligamentum venosum
B. Receives blood from the right hepatic artery
C. Drains bile into the left hepatic duct
D. Is a medial superior segment
E. Is functionally a part of the right lobe
C
The quadrate lobe of the liver drains bile into the
left hepatic duct and receives blood from the left
hepatic artery. It lies between the gallbladder
fossa and the ligamentum teres hepatic, is a medial
inferior segment, and is a part of the left lobe.
33
In a patient with portal hypertension, which of the following veins is most likely to be dilated?
```
A. Right colic vein
B. Inferior epigastric vein
C. Inferior phrenic vein
D. Suprarenal vein
E. Ovarian vein
```
B
The right colic vein belongs to the portal venous
system and empties into the superior mesenteric
vein, which joins the splenic vein to form the
portal vein. The inferior epigastric,
inferior phrenic, suprarenal, and ovarian veins
belong to the systemic (or caval) venous system
and drain directly or indirectly into the IVC.
34
A 2-year-old boy presents with pain in his groin that has
been increasing over the past few weeks. He is found to have a degenerative malformation of the transversalis fascia during development. Which of the following structures on the anterior abdominal wall is likely defective?
```
A. Superficial inguinal ring
B. Deep inguinal ring
C. Inguinal ligament
D. Sac of a direct inguinal hernia
E. Anterior wall of the inguinal canal
```
B
The deep inguinal ring lies in the transversalis
fascia, just lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels.
The superficial inguinal ring is in the aponeurosis
of the external oblique muscle. The inguinal
ligament and the anterior wall of the inguinal
canal are formed by the aponeurosis of the
external oblique muscle. The sac of a direct
inguinal hernia is formed by the peritoneum.
35
A pediatric surgeon is resecting a possible malignant mass from the liver of a neonate with cerebral palsy. The surgeon divides the round ligament of the liver during surgery. A fibrous remnant of which of the following fetal vessels is severed?
```
A. Ductus venosus
B. Ductus arteriosus
C. Left umbilical vein
D. Right umbilical vein
E. Umbilical artery
```
C
The left umbilical vein becomes the round
ligament of the liver after birth. The right
umbilical vein does not leave a fibrous remnant
because it degenerates during the early embryonic
period. The ductus venosus forms the ligamentum
venosum; the ductus arteriosus forms the
ligamentum arteriosum; the umbilical artery
forms the medial umbilical
ligament.
36
A 33-year-old patient is suffering from a sudden occlusion at the origin of the descending (thoracic) aorta. This condition would most likely decrease blood flow in which of the following intercostal arteries?
```
A. Upper six anterior
B. All of the posterior
C. Upper two posterior
D. Lower anterior
E. Lower six posterior
```
E
The first two posterior intercostal arteries are
branches of the highest (superior) intercostal
artery of the costocervical trunk; the remaining
nine branches are from the thoracic aorta. The
internal thoracic artery gives off the upper six
anterior intercostal arteries and is divided into the
superior epigastric and musculophrenic arteries,
which gives off anterior intercostal arteries in the
7th, 8th, and 9th intercostal spaces and ends in the
10th intercostal space where it anastomoses with
the deep circumflex iliac artery.
37
The following statements concerning the left suprarenal
gland are correct except?
A. The gland extends along the medial border of the left kidney from the upper pole to the hilus.
B. The left suprarenal vein drains into the left renal vein.
C. The gland is separated from the left kidney by perirenal fat.
D. The gland lies behind the lesser sac.
E. The medulla is innervated by post-ganglionic
sympathetic nerve fibers
E
The medulla is innervated by preganglionic
sympathetic fibers.
38
A thoracic surgeon removed the right middle lobar bronchus along with lung tissue from a 57-year-old heavy smoker with lung cancer. Which of the following bronchopulmonary segments must contain cancerous tissues?
```
A. Medial and lateral
B. Anterior and posterior
C. Anterior basal and medial basal
D. Anterior basal and posterior basal
E. Lateral basal and posterior basal
```
A
The right middle lobar (secondary) bronchus
leads to the medial and lateral bronchopulmonary
segments. The right superior lobar bronchus
divides into the superior, posterior, and anterior
segmental (tertiary) bronchi. The right inferior
lobar bronchus has the anterior, lateral, posterior,
and anterior segmental bronchi.
39
A 19-year-old man came to the emergency department, and his angiogram exhibited that he was bleeding from the vein that is accompanied by the posterior interventricular artery. Which of the following veins is most likely to be ruptured?
```
A. Great cardiac vein
B. Middle cardiac vein
C. Anterior cardiac vein
D. Small cardiac vein
E. Oblique veins of the left atrium
```
B
The middle cardiac vein ascends in the posterior
interventricular groove, accompanied by the
posterior interventricular branch of the right
coronary artery. The great cardiac vein is
accompanied by the anterior interventricular
artery, the anterior cardiac vein drains directly
into the right atrium, and the small cardiac vein is
accompanied by the marginal artery.
40
After an automobile accident, a back muscle that forms the boundaries of the triangle of auscultation and the lumbar triangle receives no blood. Which of the following muscles might be ischemic?
```
A. Levator scapulae
B. Rhomboid minor
C. Latissimus dorsi
D. Trapezius
E. Splenius capitis
```
C
The latissimus dorsi forms boundaries of the
auscultation and lumbar triangles and receives
blood from the thoracodorsal artery. The levator
scapulae, rhomboid minor, and splenius capitis
muscles do not form boundaries of these two
triangles. The trapezius muscle forms a boundary
of the auscultation triangle but not the lumbar
triangle. The levator scapulae, rhomboid minor,
and trapezius muscles receive blood from the
transverse cervical artery. The splenius capitis
muscle receives blood from the occipital and
transverse cervical arteries.
41
The isthmus of the thyroid gland lies anterior to the
```
A. Cricoid cartilage
B. Thyroid cartilage
C. 2-3 tracheal rings
D. 4-5 tracheal rings
E. NOTA
```
C
42
The nasal septum is comprised of the following, except:
```
A. Septal cartilage
B. Cribiform plate of ethmoid
C. Vomer
D. Perpendicular plate of ethmoid
E. NOTA
```
B
43
The structure that drains into the inferior nasal meatus
```
A. Nasolacrimal duct
B. Anterior ethmoid sinus
C. Frontal sinus
D. Maxillary sinus
E. NOTA
```
A
all other choices drain to the middle nasal meatus
44
Aqueous humor is produced by the
```
A. Choroid
B. Ciliary process
C. Cornea
D. Retina
E. Iris
```
B
The aqueous humor is produced by the ciliary
process of the uveal tract and drained into the
anterior chamber angle.
45
Origins of the arterial supply to the rectum, except
```
A. Superior mesenteric artery
B. Inferior mesenteric artery
C. Internal iliac artery
D. Internal pudendal artery
E. NOTA
```
A
Superior rectal artery from the inferior
mesenteric; Middle rectal artery from the internal
iliac artery; inferior rectal artery from the internal
pudendal artery from the internal iliac artery
46
Blood supply ot the liver includes
```
A. 25% from portal vein
B. 75% from hepatic artery
C. 75% from portal vein
D. 20% from the celiac artery
E. Both A and B
```
C
75% from the portal vein and 25%from the
hepatic artery
47
Most common used vein in the antecubittal fossa for
phlebotomy
```
A. Median cubittal vein
B. Brachial vein
C. Basilic vein
D. Cephalic vein
E. AOTA
```
A
48
Divides the axillary artery into three parts
```
A. Teres major
B. Teres minor
C. Scalene medius
D. Pectoralis major
E. Pectoralis minor
```
E
49
Support of the uterus is provided by the following, except:
```
A. Uterosacral ligament
B. Cardinal ligament
C. Ileococcygeus
D. Puborectalis
E. Broad ligament
```
E
The other choices comprise the endopelvic fascia
50
The left primary bronchus
A. Has one eparterial and one hyparterial bronchi
B. Is narrower and shorter than the right
C. Has the aorta arching over it
D. Has a more vertical direction than the right
E. NOTA
C
51
A fluid found in the membranous labyrinth
```
A. Perilymph
B. Corticolymph
C. Blood
D. Endolymph
E. NOTA
```
D
Endolymph is the fluid contained in the
membranous labyrinth of the inner ear and rich in
potassium.
52
A pair of opening on the lateral wall of the oral cavity
```
A. Ducts of Rivinius
B. Wharton's duct
C. Stensen's duct
D. Boath A and B
E. AOTA
```
C
The Stensen's duct or parotid duct opens opposite
the 2nd upper molar.
53
The bulk of muscles that make up the floor of the oral cavity
```
A. Genioglossus
B. Stylohyoid
C. Mylohyoid
D. Digastric
E. NOTA
```
C
The mylohyoid forms the floor of the oral cavity
and the roof of the submandibular triangle.
54
The Stensen's duct pierces this structure to open into the oral cavity
```
A. Buccinator
B. Masster
C. Mentalis
D. Zygoma
E. NOTA
```
A
The Stensen's duct or parotid duct crosses the
masseter to pierce the buccinator to open into the
oral cavity.
55
Spongiocytes are located in this layer
```
A. Zona glomerulosa
B. Zona fasciculata
C. Zona reticularis
D. Adrenal medulla
E. AOTA
```
B
A spongiocyte is a cell in the zona fasciculata of the
adrenal cortex containing lipid droplets that show
pronounced vacuolization
56
Origin of blood supply of the suprarenal glands
```
A. Inferior phrenic artery
B. Renal artery
C. Abdominal aorta
D. Both B and C
E. AOTA
```
E
The suprarenal glands has three origins of blood
supply.
57
Most common direction of hip dislocation
```
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Superior
D. Inferior
E. Antero-inferior
```
B
90% of the hip dislocation occurs posteriorly.
58
Crutch paralysis injures this nerve
```
A. Axillary nerve
B. Radial nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
E. Ulnar nerve
```
B
Crutch paralysis is a form of paralysis which can
occur when the radial nerve, is under constant
pressure, such as by the use of a crutch.
59
Forms the hood of the clitoris
```
A. Frenulum
B. Labia majora
C. Prepuce
D. Labia minora
E. NOTA
```
C
60
The ovarian vessels are enclosed by this ligament
```
A. True ovarian ligament
B. Suspensory ligament
C. Round ligament
D. Cardinal ligament
E. NOTA
```
B
The suspensory ligament of the ovary, also
infundibulopelvic ligament, is a fold of peritoneum
that extends out from the ovary to the wall of the
pelvis and encloses the ovarian vessels
61
The lens of the eye is made up of what epithelial layer?
```
A. Simple squamous
B. Simple columnar
C.Simple cuboidal
D. Stratified squamous non keratinizing
E. Pseudostratified columnar
```
C
Other parts of the eye: The corneal epithelium is
made up of stratified squaomous. The corneal
endothelium is made up of simple squamous
62
Frey's syndrome commonly termed as crocodile tears is a condition wherein beads of perspiration appear on the skin when the patient eats due to penetrating injury to the parotid glands. This is due to faulty regeneration of the auriculotemporal nerve which is a branch of what nerve/ganglion?
```
A. Trigeminal nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Vagus nerve
E. Sueprior cervical ganglion
```
A
The Auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal
nerve carries parasympathetic fibers to the sweat
glands of the scalp and the parotid salivary gland.
As a result of severance and inappropriate
regeneration, the parasympathetic nerve fibers
may switch course, resulting in "gustatory
sweating" or sweating in the anticipation of eating,
instead of the normal salivatory response.
63
90% of epistaxis occurs in the Keiseelbach's plexus or Little's triangle. 4 arteries contribute to this plexus. Which artery does NOT contribute?
A. Anterior ethmoidal artery of ophthalmic artery
B. Sphenopalatine artery of maxillary artery
C. Greater palatine artery of maxillary artery
D. Dorsal nasal artery of ophthalmic artery
E. Superior labial artery of facial artery
D
SIMILAR TO PREVIOUS BOARD EXAM
CONCEPT/PRINCIPLE. The dorsal nasal artery is
the termminal branch of the opthalmic artery and
supplies the dorsum and root of the nose. All the
other 4 arteries make up the Keisselbach's plexus
64
When thyroid follicular cells are stimulated by TSH and fiiled with colloid they assume what configuration?
```
A. Transitional
B. Tall columnar
C. Simple cuboidal
D. Stratified squamous non keratinizing
E. No specific configuration
```
B
SIMILAR TO PREVIOUS BOARD EXAM
CONCEPT/PRINCIPLE. When inactive thyroid
follicles are simple cuboidal but assume a tall
columnar configuration when stimulated by TSH.
65
All of the ff nerves arises from the posterior cord of the
brachial plexus EXCEPT?
```
A. Subscapular
B. Long thoracic
C. Thoracodorsal
D. Axillary
E. Radial
```
B
For branches of the posterior cord. Remember the
mnemonic STAR. Subscapular nerve,
Thoracodorsal, Axillary and Radial. The long
throacic nerve arises from the C5-C7 roots of the
plexus not the cord.
66
The dorsalis pedis pulse can be located on what landmark?
A. Lateral to the flexor hallucis longus and medial to flexor
hallucis longus
B .Lateral to the extensor hallucis brevis and medial to
extnesor hallucis brevis
C. Lateral to the extensor hallucis longus and medial to
extnesor hallucis longus
D. Lateral to the flexor hallucis brevis and medial to flexor
hallucis brevis
E. Behind the inguinal ligament between the ASIS and
symphysis pubis
BONUS
Choice C should have been: Lateral to the extensor
hallucis longus and medial to extensor digitorum
longus . SIMILAR TO PREVIOUS BOARD EXAM
CONCEPT/PRINCIPLE. The dorsalis pedis artery
pulse can be palpated readily lateral to the
extensor hallucis longus tendon and medially to
the extensor digitorum longus tendon on the
dorsal surface of the foot. Choice E refers to the
femoral artery
67
What cell prodcues the hormone that activates bone
resorption and increases blood calcium level?
```
A. Follicular cells
B. Parafolllicular cells
C. Oxyntic cells
D. Oxyphil cells
E. Chief cells
```
E
SIMILAR TO PREVIOUS BOARD EXAM
CONCEPT/PRINCIPLE. The questions refes to
Parathormone or PTH secreted by the chief cells of
the parathyroid gland. Parafollicular cellsof the
thyroid gland secrete calcitonin. Oxyphil cells
although part of the parathyroids have unknown
functions. Oxyntic cells is in the stomach.
68
All of the ff are contents of the spermatic cord EXCEPT?
```
A. Testicular artery
B. Processus vaginalis
C. Deferential artery
D. Ilioinguinal nerve
E. Pampiniform plexus
```
D
SIMILAR TO PREVIOUS BOARD EXAM
CONCEPT/PRINCIPLE The ilioinguinal nerve psses
through the inguinal canal but lies outside the
spermatic cord. All the other structures plus the
vas deferens, cremasteric artery and genital
branch of the genitofemoral nerve are contents.
69
What structure is termed as the false vocal cords?
```
A. Quadrangular membrane
B. Vestibular folds
C. Aryepiglottic folds
D. Vocal folds
E. Rima glottidis
```
B
SIMILAR TO PREVIOUS BOARD EXAM
CONCEPT/PRINCIPLE. The vestibular fold is a
fixed fold on each side of the larynx and is termed
as the false vocal cords. While the mobile vocal
folds immediately below it are the true vocal
cords. The gap b/w the true vocal cord is termed
as the rima glottidis or glottis. The quadrangular
membrane extends between the epiglottis and
arytenoid cartilage and its inferior margin forms
the vestibular folds.
70
The medial wall of the bony orbit is formed by the ff bones EXCEPT?
```
A. Frontal process of the maxilla
B. Lacrimal bone
C. Orbital plate of the maxilla
D. Body of sphenoid
E. Orbital plate of the ethmoid
```
C
SIMILAR TO PREVIOUS BOARD EXAM
CONCEPT/PRINCIPLE. The orbital plate of the
maxilla forms the floor of the orbit. The 4 other
choices forms the medial wall of the orbit. The
orbital plate of the frontal bone forms the roof of
the orbit while the zygomatic and the greater wing
of the sphenoid forms the lateral wall.
71
What rotator cuff muscle is a lateral rotator of the shoulder and supplied by a trunk of the brachial plexus?
```
A. Supraspinatus
B. Infraspinatus
C. Teres Minor
D.Teres Major
E. Subscapularis
```
B
There are 2 lateral rotators of the shoulder:
infraspinatus supplied by suprascapular nerve
from the trunk of the brachial plexus and the teres
minor supplied by the axillary nerve from the
posteriro cord.
72
Which spinal nerves innervates the main muscle of
respiration?
```
A. C2 C3 C4
B. C3 C4 C5
C. C4 C5 C6
D. C5 C6 C7
E. C6 C7 T1
```
B
The question is refers to the phrenic nerve.
Remember: C3 4 5 keeps the diaphragm alive.
73
What is the correct sequence of the CSF pathway?
A .Lateral ventricle- Foramen of Magendie- 3rd ventricle-
Cerebral aqueduct- 4th ventricle- Foramen of Monroe -
Arachnoid villi
B. 3rd ventricle- Foramen of Magendie- Latreral ventricle-
Cerebral aqueduct- 4th ventricle- Foramen of Monroe -
Arachnoid villi
C. 3rd ventricle- Foramen of Monroe- Lateral ventricle-
Cerebral aqueduct- 4th ventricle- Foramen of Magendie -
Arachnoid villi
D. Lateral ventricle- Foramen of Monroe- 3rd ventricle-
Cerebral aqueduct- 4th ventricle- Foramen of Magendie -
Arachnoid villi
E. Lateral ventricle- Cerebral aqueduct- 3rd ventricle-
Foramen of Monroe- 4th ventricle- Foramen of Magendie -
Arachnoid villi
D
Knowthe CSF pathway by heart.. Lateral ventricle-
Foramen of Monroe- 3rd ventricle- Cerebral
aqueduct- 4th ventricle- Foramen of Lushka and
Magendie -Subarachnoid space-Arachnoid villi
74
The outer hair cells of the organ of Corti are attached
inferiorly to basilar membrane and superiorly to what
membrane?
```
A. Reissner's membrane
B. Shrapnel's membrane
C. Vestibular membrane
D. Tympanic membrane
E. Tectorial membrane
```
E
SIMILAR TO PREVIOUS BOARD EXAM
CONCEPT/PRINCIPLE. The Reissner's aka the
Vestibualr membrane is the roof of the scala media
while the floor is the basilar membrane. The
tectorial membrane overlies the outer hair cells of
the organ of Corti and during acoustic stimulation
stimulates the inner hair cells through fluid
coupling.
75
What cranial foramina and structure passing through it is
correctly paired?
A. Superior orbital fissure- opthalmic artery
B. Foramen spinosum- Middle meningeal artery
C. Foramen rotundum- Mandibular nerve
D. Internal accoustic meatus- Glossopharyngeal nerve
E. Jugular foramen- Facial nerve
B
Ophthalmic artery passes through the optic canal.
The maxillary nerve passes through the formaen
rotundum while the Mandibular nerve passes
through the foramen ovale. GP nerve passes
through jugular foramen while the facial nerve
passes through the internal accoustic meatus
76
Which statement regarding the lungs is correct?
A.The left lung is divided by the oblique and horizontal
fissure into three lobes
B. Each lung has an apex which projects upward into the
neck 2.5 inches above the clavicle
C. The pulmonary lobe is the anatomical and functional unit
of the lung
D. All the lymph from all parts of the lungs leaves the hilum
and drains into the tracheobronchial nodes and into the
bronchomediastinal trunks
E. None of the above
D
The right lung is divided by the oblique and
horizontal fissure into three lobes. The apex is 1
inch or 2.5 cm above the clavicle. The
bornchopulmonary segment and not the lobe is
the anatomical and functional unit of the lung.
77
What lobe of the prostate is primarily affected in prostate adenocarcinoma?
```
A. Anterior lobe
B. Lateral lobe
C. Posterior lobe
D. Middle lobe
E. Inferior lobe
```
C
Lateral and middle lobe (periurethral zone) is
affected in BPH while posterior lobe (peripheral
zone) is affected in prostate adenoCA
78
What statement regarding the liver is true?
A. The quadrate and caudate lobes are a functional part of
the left lobe of the liver
B. Divided into a large right lobe and small left lobe by the
coronary ligament
C. The first liver segment is regarded as the quadrate lobe
and 4th segment is the caudate lobe
D. Half of blood supply is from the portal vein and the other
half is from the hepatic artery
E. None of the above
A
Experiments have shown that the quadrate and
caudate lobes are a functional part of the left lobe
of the liver. It is divided into a large right lobe and
small left lobe by the falciform ligament. The first
liver segment is regarded as the caudate lobe and
4th segment is the quadrate lobe. Blood supply is
70% portal vein and 30% hepatic vein.
79
Which of the ff nerve does not pass through the greater
sciatic foramen?
```
A. Superior gluteal nerve
B. Inferior gluteal nerve
C. Sciatic nerve
D. Obturator nerve
E. Pudendal nerve
```
D
SIMILAR TO PREVIOUS BOARD EXAM
CONCEPT/PRINCIPLE. The ff structures passes
thru the greater sciatic foramen: Sciatic Nerve,
Superior Gluteal Nerve, Inferior Gluteal Nerve,
Pudendal Nerve, Posterior, Femoral Cutaneous
Nerve, Nerve to Quadratus Femoris, Nerve to
Obturator Internus, Superior Gluteal Artery &
Vein, Inferior Gluteal Artery & vein, Internal
Pudendal Artery & vein and the Piriformis muscle.
Please review the contents of the lesser sciatic
foramen as well.
80
Which among the ff parts of the ear is part of the bony
labyrynth?
```
A. Utricle
B. Saccule
C. Semicircular canal
D. Cohclear duct
E. Auditory ossicles
```
C
SIMILAR TO PREVIOUS BOARD EXAM
CONCEPT/PRINCIPLE. The inner ear is divided
into the bony labyrynth (external) and
membranous labyrnth (internal). Bony: Vestibule,
Semicircular canal, cochlea. Membranous: Utricle,
saccule, cochlear duct, semicircular duct
81
Which of the following does NOT play a role in parasitic infections?
a. IL - 6
b. IL - 4
c. IgE
d. IL - 5
e. none of the above
A
82
Which of the following structures does not pass through both greater and lesser sciatic foramen?
a. Internal pudendal artery
b. pudendal nerve
c. obturator internus nerve
d. obturator nerve
e. none of the above
D
obturator nerve arises from the lumbar plexus (L2
– L4) and emerges on the medial border of the
psoas muscle within the abdomen. It runs forward
on the lateral wall of the pelvis to reach the upper
part of the obturator foramen where it divides into
anterior and posterior divisions.
Snells’ Clinical anatomy by regions 9th edition p.
465
83
If the aryepiglottic fold forms the superior border, which
of the following is the inferior border of the quadrangular membrane?
a. Vocal ligament
b. Vestibular ligament
c. Median thyrohyoid ligament
d. Cricotracheal ligament
e. Cricoid cartilage
B
The thickened inferior margin forms the
vestibular ligament and the vestibular ligaments
form the interior of the vestibular folds.
Snells’ Clinical anatomy by regions 9th edition p.
647
84
Which of the following cartilages is found in the
quadrangular membrane?
a. Corniculate cartilage
b. Cuneiform cartilage
c. Epiglottis
d. Thyroid cartilage
e. Arytenoid cartilage
B
These two small rod shaped cartilages are found in
the aryepiglottic folds and serve to strengthen
them.
Snells’ Clinical anatomy by regions 9th edition p.
646
85
Which of the following is found superior to the arytenoid
cartilages?
a. Corniculate cartilage
b. Cuneiform cartilage
c. Epiglottis
d. Thyroid cartilage
e. Arytenoid cartilage
A
Snells’ Clinical anatomy by regions 9th edition p.
646
86
Which of the following is a membranous labyrinth?
a. Vestibule
b. Semicircular canals
c. Cochlea
d. Utricle
e. None of the above
D
The membranous labyrinth is lodged within the
bony labyrinth. It is filed with endolymph and
surrounded by perilymph. It consists of utricle and
saccule which are lodged in the bony vestibule;
three semicircular ducts, which lie within the bony
semicircular canals; and the duct of the cochlea,
which lies within the bony cochlea. All these
structures freely communicate with each other.
Snells’ Clinical anatomy by regions 9th edition p.
569
87
Which of the following is responsible for depression of the mandible?
a. Temporalis
b. Lateral pterygoid
c. Medial pterygoid
d. Masseter
e. None of the above
B
Contraction of the lateral pterygoids pulls forward
the neck of the mandible and articular disc so that
the latter moves onto the articular tubercle. The
forward movement of the disc is limited by the
tension of the fibroelastic tissue, which tethers the
disc to the temporal bone posteriorly.
Snells’ Clinical anatomy by regions 9th edition p.
572
88
Which of the following divides the cochlear canal into scala vestibule and scala tympani?
a. Basilar membrane
b. Reissner’s membrane
c. Tectorial membrane
d. Vestibular membrane
e. Spiral ligament
A
Snells’ Clinical anatomy by regions 9th edition p.
569
89
Which of the following membranes vibrates to code
acoustic information into nerve impulses and is responsible for amplitude discrimination?
a. Basilar membrane
b. Reissner’s membrane
c. Tectorial membrane
d. Vestibular membrane
e. Spiral ligament
A
Hair cells are attached through the phalangeal
cells to the basilar membrane, which vibrates
during sound reception. The stereocilia of these
hair cells are in turn attached to the tectorial
membrane which also vibrates. However, the
tectorial membrane and the basilar membrane are
hinged at different points. Thus, a shearing effect
occurs between the basilar membrane ( and the
cells attached to it) and the tectorial membrane
when sound vibrations impinge on the ear.
Histology 7th edition. Pawlina. P. 952
90
Which of the following landmarks signify the intersection
between the frontal bone and 2 nasal bones?
a. Nasion
b. Rhinion
c. Pterion
d. Glabella
e. Asterion
A
Rhinion refers to the lower end of the suture
between the nasal bones.
Wikipedia (cant find it in snells)
91
Which of the following lies above the pelvic inlet?
a. true pelvis
b. false pelvis
c. pelvic cavity
d. lesser pelvis
e. none of the above
B
SNell's CLinical anatomy for Medical students 5th
edition p. 277
92
Which of the following types of pelvis is described with a greater anteroposterior diameter, straight walls, small
subpubic arch, and large sacrosciatic notches?
a. android
b. anthropoid
c. gynecoid
d. platypelloid
e. none of the above
B
A - heart shaped with triangular anterior segment
C - normal female pelvis
D - transversely wide with flattened
anteroposterior diameter
SNell's CLinical anatomy for Medical students 5th
edition p. 299
93
Which of the following is a branch from the aorta?
a. inferior rectal artery
b. superior vesical artery
c. superior rectal artery
d. vaginal artery
e. all of the above
C
this confusing question came out. Best answer is
still superior rectal artery, a branch of the inferior
mesenteric artery.
SNell's CLinical anatomy for Medical students 5th
edition p. 291
94
A 5 year old male comes to you for epistaxis. Which of the following does NOT contribute to the blood supply in the Kiesselbach area?
a. ophthalmic artery
b. sphenopalatine artery
c. greater palatine artery
d. superior nasal artery
e. superior labial artery
D
The following contributes:
anterior ethmoidal artery from ophthalmic artery
sphenopalatine artery from terminal branch of
maxillary artery
greater palatine artery from maxillary artery
septal branch of superior labial artery from facial
artery
95
Which of the following is NOT a globulin?
a. transferrin
b. fibrinogen
c. Beta2 - macroglobulin
d. fibronectin
e. immunoglobulin
B
Junqueira's Basic Histology 12th edition p. 203
96
Which of the following develops from a reticular cell?
a. eosinophil
b. platelet
c. RBC
d. neutrophil
e. basophil
C
Junqueira's Basic Histology 12th edition p. 209
97
Which of the following zones of the adrenal cortex has
long cords of large polyhedral cells separated by fenestrated sinusoidal capillaries?
a. zona glomerulosa
b. zona fasciculata
c. zona reticularis
d. zona pellucida
e. zona medulla
B
The cells are most densely filled with cytoplasmic
lipid droplets and as a result of lipid dissolution
during tissue preparation, often appear vacuolated
or spongy.
Junqueira's Basic Histology 12th edition p. 356
98
The skin is not the largest organ of the body as it is
considered an organ system. Part of its functions is
protection of the body by triggering an immune response.
One of the cells that play a role in alerting the immune
system is bone marrow derived and capable of binding,
processing, and presenting antigens to T lymphocytes. Which of the following layers of the skin is this cell predominantly located?
a. stratum corneum
b. stratum lucidum
c. stratum germinativum
d. stratum granulosum
e. stratum spinosum
E
Junqueira's Basic Histology 12th edition p. 320
99
Which of following supporting cells of the CNS is derived
from neural tube and functions in the repair processes?
a. oligodendrocyte
b. neurolemmocyte
c. astrocyte
d. ependymal cell
e. microglia
C
oligodendrocyte - neural tube - CNS - myelin
production
neurolemmocyte - neural crest - PNS - myelin
production
ependymal cell - neural tube - CNS - lines the
cavities
microglia - bone marrow - CNS - immune related
activity
Junqueira's Basic Histology 12th edition p. 151
100
At what level does the ureter turns forward and medially
to insert into the posterolateral wall of the urinary bladder?
a. pelvic brim
b. coccyx
c. ischial spine
d. bifurcation of common iliac vessels
e. sacroiliac joint
C
http://radiopaedia.org/articles/ureter
