Anatomy and physiology Flashcards by Megan Smith

The pressure in the systemic arteries during ventricular contraction is
A. Diastolic blood pressure
B. Osmotic pressure
C. Systolic blood pressure
D. Low pressure

C Diastolic blood pressure is present when the ventricles are relaxed and therefore is a lower pressure than systolic blood pressure

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Where are striated muscles located?
A. Stomach wall and uterus
B. Urinary bladder and intestine
C. Ciliary body of the eye 
D. Heart and skeletal muscles

D The stomach wall, uterus, urinary bladder, intestine, and ciliary body all have smooth muscles.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures of the expanding and contracting arterial wall is the
A. Pulse
B. Osmotic pressure
C. End-systolic volume
D. Stroke volume

A A stronger palpation pulse is due to greater pulse pressure

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Input from what system causes vasoconstriction during exercise and therefore an increase blood pressure?
A. Sympathetic nervous system 
B. Parasympathetic nervous system
C. Central nervous system 
D. Peripheral nervous system

A Exercise increases blood pressure because of vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Cardiac muscle is
A. Nonstriated involuntary
B. Striated involuntary 
C. Nonstriated voluntary
D. Striated voluntary

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In what order does the impulse for for depolarization travel through the heart?
A. AV node, SA node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers
B. SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers
C. SA node, AV node, Purkinje fibers, Purkinje fibers, bundle of His
D. AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibers

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The wave on an electrocardiogram that is associated with the atrial wall depolarization is the
A. PR interval
B. T wave
C. P wave

D PR interval is the length of time for the impulse to travel through the AV node. T wave is ventricular repolarization, and the QRS complex is ventricular depolarization.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The SA node is located in the wall of which chamber?
A. Left Atrium
B. Left Ventricle
C. Right Atrium
D. Right Ventricle

C The SA node is the heart’s dominate pacemaker.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The muscular sphincter located between the stomach and the duodenum is the 
A. Pylores
B. Cardia
C.  Chyme 
D. Rugae

A The cardia is the sphincter between the esophagus and stomach. Chyme is the digested stomach content that moves though the pylorus. Rugae are the long folds found in the stomach.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The type of cell responsible for the transmission of impulses through the nervous system is the
A. Neuroglia
B. Schwann
C. Neuron
D. Oligodendrocyte

C Neuroglia protect and support the nervous system. Schwann cells are specialized glial cells in the peripheral nerves. Oligodendrocytes are specialized glial cells in the brain and spinal cord.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What system is automatically composed of the brain and spinal cord?
A. Central nervous system
B. Peripheral nervous system
C. Parasympathetic nervous system
D. Sympathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Function that an animal does not have to consciously control, such as peristalsis in the intestine, are influenced by the
A. Somatic nervous system
B. Central nervous system
C.  Peripheral nervous system
D. Autonomic nervous system

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The cranial nerves and the spinal nerves are anatomically part of what system?
A. Central nervous system 
B. Peripheral nervous system
C. Parasympathetic nervous system
D. Sympathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Sensory nerves are considered 
A. Efferent motor nerves
B. Motor nerves
C. Efferent nerves 
D. Afferent nerves

D Afferent nervous conduct impulses from sensory receptors to the central nervous system. Motor nerves are efferent nerves that send impulses to the skeletal muscles, organs, glands, and so forth from from the central nervous system.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

An imbalance of what minerals can affect nerve function?
A. Phosphores and magnesium 
B. Sodium and potassium 
C. Manganese and chromium
D. Iron and zinc

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When a stimulus is strong enough to cause complete depolarization, it has reached
A. Threshold 
B. Repolarization
C. Refractory period
D. Action potential

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What happens within the neuron that allows local anesthetics to be effective?
A. Potassium gates open
B. The charge within the cell becomes positive
C. The charge within the cell becomes negative
D. Sodium channels become blocked

D Molecules of the local anesthetic block the sodium channels so depolarization cannot occur, and the sensation of pain will not reach the brain.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

B Smooth muscles are found in the walls of many soft organs. They can also be found in various structures of the eyes, blood vessels, and mall passageways in the lungs.

Smooth muscles can be found in the 
A. Heart
B. Stomach
C. Pelvic limb
D. Diaphragm

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which muscle cells have single nuclei?
A. Skeletal and cardiac 
B. Skeletal and smooth
C. Smooth and cardiac 
D. Skeletal only

C Skeletal, muscle cells have multiple nuclei

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Cattle and swine display what type what type of estrus?
A. Polyestrous
B. Seasonally estrous 
C. Diestrous
D. Monorstous

A Cattle and swine continuously cycle

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Dogs demonstraight what type of estrous cycle?
A. Polyesteous
B. Seasonally polyesteous
C. Diestrous
D. Monoesteous

C Dogs cycle twice a year; in the spring and in the fall

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What spices is an induced ovulator?
A. Bovine
B. Equine
C. Canine
D. Feline

D Cats will remain in prolonged estrous if not bred

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In what stage of the estrous cycle does the corpus luteum develop?
A. Proestrous 
B. Eastous
C. Metestrous 
D. Diestous

C The corpus luteum develops after ovulation.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The hormone produced by a developing overian follicle is
A. Estrogen 
B. Progesterone 
C. Prolactin
D. Oxytocin

The corpus luteum produces progesterone. Prolactin is produced by the anterior pituitary gland, and oxytocin by the posterior pituitary glad.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

``` What hormone contracts the female reproductive tract to help move spermatozoa into the oviducts? A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Prolactin D. Oxytocin ```

``` To achieve normal pregnancy, the blastocyst attaches to what structure? A. Endometrium B. Placenta C. Oviduct D. Cervix ```

Endometrium is the lining of the uterus

``` Giving birth is known as A. Parturition B. Gestation C. Lactation D. Estrous ```

``` From the estrous cycle to parturition, in what order are the fallowing hormones released? A. Estrogen, oxytocin, progesterone B. Oxytocin, estrogen, progesterone C. Estrogen, progesterone, oxytocin D. Progesterone, estrogen, oxytocin ```

C Estrogens prepare the animal for breeding and pregnancy. Progesterone prepares the uterus for implantation and maintains pregnancy. Oxytocin causes contraction for parturition.

``` Which animal has a cotyledonary placenta? A. Cat B. Dog C. Horse D. Sheep ```

D Most ruminants have cotyledonary placental attachment

``` In cotyledonary placentation the mother's side of the attachment is called the A. Caruncle B. Cotyledon C. Placentome D. Polycyton ```

A The cotyledon is the fetal side of the placenta, and the placentoma is the structure that results when the caruncle and cotyledon are joined

``` A pregnant mare has what kind of placentation? A. Zonary B. Cotyledon C. Diffused D. Discoid ```

``` A pregnant bitch has what kind of placentation? A. Zonary B. Cotyledonary C. Diffused D. Disoid ```

``` A pregnant rodent has what kind of placentation? A. Zonary B. Cotyledonary C. Diffused D. Discoid ```

``` A pregnant queen has what kind of placentation? A. Zonary B. Cotyledonary C. Diffused D. Discoid ```

``` The canine uterus is shaped like the letter A. U B. Y C. J D. V ```

``` How many mammary glands are typically found on a bitch? A. 8-12 B. 12-14 C. 4-6 D. 10-16 ```

A The number varies but typically there are four thoracic mammae, four abdominal mammae, and two inguinal mammae.

D Sympathetic stimulation elecits the "fight or flight" response that is seen with the other three reactions.

``` Which reaction is the result of parasympathetic nervous system stimulation? A. Bronchodilation B. Pupil dilation C. Decreased GI motility D. Decreased heart rate ```

``` Which reaction is the result of sympathetic nervous system stimulation? A. Decreased heart rate B. Dilated pupils C. Increased GI activity D. Increased salivation ```

B The other three tea reactions are the result of parasympathetic nervous system stimulation.

Acetylcholine is released as a neurotransmitter by A. Effector organs B. Sensory bodies C. Postganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers D. Postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers

C Postganglionic sympathetic neurons release epinephrine or norepinephrine

``` The neurotransmitter that is most responsible for the "fight or flight" reaction is A. Epinephrine B. Acetylcholine C. Dopamine D. Serot ```

``` In the healthy heart, the heartbeat is initiated by the A. SA node B. Purkinje fibers C. Vagus nerve D. AV node ```

``` On an electrocardiogram the T wave is most closely associated with A. Atrial depolarization B. Atrial repolarization C. Ventricular depolarization D. Ventricular repolarization ```

``` On an electrocardiogram the P wave is most closely associated with A. Atrial depolarization B. Atrial repolarization C. Ventricular depolarization D. Ventricular repolarization ```

``` Which of the fallowing conditions is most life threatening? A. Atrial fibrillation B. Ventricular fibrillation C. First -degree heart block D. Complete heart block ```

B In ventricular fibrillation, there is effectively no blood being pumped by the heart

Increasing a neuron's permeability to Na+ will cause A. Hyper excitability B. An increased in the intensity of the stimulus required to generate an action potential C. The neuron to become more hyperpolarized D. The membrane potential of the neuron to become more negative

A Lidocaine, a local anesthetic, is a Na+ channel blocker, that is, it Dose the opposite of increasing permeability to Na+

``` Atropine works primarily by A. Stimulating the sympathetic system B. Blocking the sympathetic system C. Stimulating the parasympathetic system D. Blocking parasympathetic actions ```

``` The primary constituent of blood responsible for the oncotic (osmotic) pressure of blood is A. NaCl B. Albumin C. Hoglobin D. Inactivity ```

B Albumin is the primary constituent of blood responsible for the oncotic pressure of blood. Oncotic pressure is a form of osmotic pressure exerted by proteins in blood plasma. It pulls water into the circulatory system.

``` Edema would most likely develop during or after which one of the fallowing conditions? A. Salt deficiency B. Dehydration C. Low blood pressure D. Inactivity ```

``` On inspiration the pressure in the thoracic cavity, as compared with ambient air pressure, is A. Negative B. Positive C. Same as ambient air pressure D. Fluctuating ```

``` In a healthy, awake cat the primary stimulus in blood for respiration is A. Increased CO2 B. Decreased O2 C. Increased lactic acid D. Increased k+ ```

``` An increased PVC (packed cell volume) could be indicative of A. Liver disease B. Anemia C. Leucocytosis D. Dehydration ```

``` Apnea will cause A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis ```

C Caused by a buildup of CO2

``` Dehydration will typically not lead to A. Thirst B. Urine with a specific gravity greater than 1.015 C. Increased osmolarity of blood D. Polyuria ```

``` Which of the fallowing nutrients can be used for gluconeogenesis? A. Long-chain fatty chain acids B. Amino acids C. Vitamin C D. Iron ```

``` Cataracts are due to a problem with transparency of the A. Cornea B. Vitreous humor C. Lens D. Aqueous humor ```

``` A physiologic isotonic solution would contain A. 100 mOsm B. 200 mOsm C. 300 mOsm D. 500 mOsm ```

``` Cholesterol is necessary for A. Extracellular transport B. Cell membrane production C. Urine excretion D. Vitamin C metabolism ```

``` Which is not a function of insulin? A. Increased glucose transport into muscle B.Lipogenesis C. Fatty acid synthesis D. Increased blood pressure ```

``` Insulin resistance is commonly seen in animals that A. Are obese B. Have high blood pressure C. Exercise excessively D. Seek warmth ```

A Increased concentration of fatty acids in the blood will elicit insulin resistance

``` Long-term used of glucocorticoids will A. Increase lymphocyte production B. Increase plasma protein levels C. Suppress the immune system D. Decreased blood glucoseebela ```

C Long- term use of glucocorticoids will suppress immune function

``` Nocicetors are important for detecting. A. Color B. Warmth C. Lactic acid D. Pain ```

``` Areas with low sensory sensitivity are characterized by A. Nerves with small receptor fields B. Overlapping receptors fields C. Large numbers of neorons D. Lots of convergence ```

``` The vagus nerve is cranial nernr___. A. X B. XII C. C D. VI ```

``` The cranial nerves originate from the A. Cerebellum B. Spinal cord C. Brainstem D. Cerebrum ```

Glaucoma is A. Decreased pressure in the posterior chamber of the eye B. Increased pressure in the posterior chamber of the eye C. Increased pressure in the anterior chamber of the eye D. Decreased pressure in the anterior chamber of the eye

In a healthy dog, if the right a on low light and a light is shown into the left eye, the pupil(s) in A. Both eyes would be constricted B. Both eye would be dilated C. The right eye would dilate and the pupil in the left eye would constrict D. The right eye would constrict and the pupil in the left eye would remain the same

``` Clients should be cautioned against sticking Q-tips in the ears because they could rupture the A. Oval window B. Round window C. Cochlea D. Tympanic membrane ```

``` Which condition would be typical of hypothyroidism A. Decreased water consumption B. Oily hair coat C. Very active D. Gaining weight ```

D The other conditions are common to hyperthyroidism

``` In dairy cattle the teats and udder are gently washed before milking to stimulate the release of ___, which causes milk let-down A. Adrenalin B. Norepinephrine C. Dopamine D. Ooxytocin ```

D The other drugs would inhibit oxytocin release

``` GnRH will stimulate the release of A. FSH B. Thyroxine C. Cortisol D. Insulin ```

``` ACTH will stimulate the release of A. FSH B. Thyroxine C. Cortisol D. Insulin ```

``` Lymph nodes that are found medial to the caudal part of the jaw are the A. Popliteal nodes B. Inguinal nodes C. Mandibular nodes D. Prescapular nodes ```

``` The neurohypophysis is an anatomic section of the__. A. Pituitary gland B. Hypothalamus C. Adrenal gland D. Pancreas ```

The portal vein A. Carries blood from the spleen to the heart B. delivers blood to the liver C. Delivers blood to the kidney D. Carries blood from the lungs to the heart

``` To get from a point between the eyes to the tip of a dog's nose, you would move A. Rostrally B. Crainally C. Caudally D. Laterally ```

``` Typically what percentage of an animal's body weight is blood? A. 0.1% B. 1% C. 8% D. 30% ```

``` A dog that weighs 10 kg would have approximately how much blood? A. 50 ml B. 800 ml C. 1.5 L D. 2 L ```

B Approximately 8% of an animal's body weight is blood and 1 ml of blood weighs approximately 1 g

``` Which of the fallowing dissection could be made without cutting through a bone to bone joint? A. Forelimb from the body B. hind limb from the body C. Head from the neck D. Tail from the body ```

A There's are only muscular connections between the scapula and the body

``` If you were to clasp your hands behind your head at the base of your skull, your hands would be over which bone of the skull? A. Occipital B. Frontal C. Temporal D. Parietal ```

``` The until process of converting glucose into fat is called A. Lipogenesis B. Glucongensis C. Glycogenolysis D. Fatty acid synthesis ```

D Lipogenesis is a term used to describe the storing of fatty acids that are already formed

``` Which of the fallowing is true about anaerobic metabolism? A. Fat can be used B. Glucose can be used C. It takes place on the mitochondria D. Oxygen must be present ```

B Glucose is the primary nutrient used in anaerobic metabolism

``` The amount if energy an animal would acquire from burning off adipose tissue would be A. 7700 kcal/kg B. 4 kcal/g C. 4 kcal/kg D. 9 kcal/kg ```

A If adipose were composed entirely of fat, the correct answer would be higher (~9000 kcal/kg); however, adipose is also consistent of connective tissue (protein) and blood vessels (water), all of which decrease the caloric density of adipose tissue

Efferent nerves carry nerve impulses A. To the body from the central nerves system B. To the body from the spinal cord C. From the body to the central nerves system D. From one part of a limb to another part if the same limb

``` The name for the bile acid-lipid units that carries fat within the gut is A. LPL B. Micelles C. VLDL D. Chylimicrons ```

``` What the lay press calls "good cholesterol" is actually a lipoprotein that is called A. Chylomicron B. LPL C. LDL D. HDL ```

D The primary function if high-density lipoprotein (HDL) is to carry cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver

``` Bile acids are important in the digestion of A. Carbohydrates B. Electrolytes C. Fats D. Proteins ```

C (LDLs)

``` Which of the fallowing lowers blood glucose? A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. Epinephrine D. Glucocorticoids ```

A Hormone-sensitive lipase (HDL) is the rate-limiting enzyme responsible for mobilizing fatty acids from all adipose tissue

``` What ion is responsible for repolarization of a neuron during an action potenial? A. Potassium B. Calcium C. Magnesium D. Glucose ```

``` Insulin stimulates all of the fallowing except A. Protein synthesis B. fatty acid synthesis C. Glycogen synthesis D. Gluconeogenesis ```

D Glucagon is the primary hormone that stimulates gluconeogenesis

The P wave component of a QRS complex usually corresponds to A. Atrial contraction B. Ventricular contraction C. Atrial relaxation D. Electrical conduction in Purkinje fibers

A Elicited by arterial depolarization

``` The islets of Langerhans are found in the A. Spleen B. Pancreas C. Liver D. Kidney ```

B The islets contain cells that produce insulin (beta cells) and glucagon (alpha cells) along with three other cells

``` Renin is secreted by the A. Kidney B. Hypothalamus C. Liver D. Adrenal cortex ```

Sympathetic stimulation of the heart increases strength of contractions by A. Frank-Starling mechanism B. Increasing the firing fate of the SA node C. Depolarizating the bundle of His D. Increasing permeability of heart muscle to calcium

D An increase in the rate of contractions dose not increase the strength of the contractions

``` Edema could be caused by A. Decreased capillary blood pressure B. Increased plasma oncotic pressure C. Venous congestion D. Dehydration ```

``` Fat in the lymph would most likely be associated with A. HDL cholesterol B. Chylomoceons C. Chyle D. LDL cholesterol ```

``` Clinical ketosis in dairy cattle is most common in A. First-calf heifers B. Fat cows C. Dairy bulls D. Steers ```

``` Milk fever in dairy cows is typically treated with A. IV glucose B. IV calcium C. Atropine D. Antibiotics ```

``` For an animal that had lost RBCs to a moderate hookworm infection, one would expect the capillary refill time to be A. Less than 2seconds B. Greater than 4 seconds C. Greater than 2 minutes D. Greater than 4 minutes ```

A To compensate for the moderate anemia, blood pressure would've normal to increase

``` A pulse taken from the inguinal area of a dog would be from the A. Femoral artery B. Axillary artery C. Popliteal artery D. Saphenous artery ```

``` What is called the "knee" in the forelimb in a horse would be called the __ in the human A. Hip joint B. Wrist joint C. Finger joint D Knee joint ```

B The carpus in the is called a knee joint, which is equivalent to the wrist joint in a person

``` The Lina alba on a standing cat is __ to the spinal cord A. Ventral B. Dorsal C. Medial D. Contralateral ```

A common sign of a puppy with cleft palate would be | A.

``` A common sign of a puppy with a cleft palate would be A. Inability to breath B. Milk coming out of its nose C. Malocclusion of the teeth D. Inability to urinate ```

``` Yellow mucous membrane would suggest A. Renal disease B. Hepatic disease C. Shock D. Dehydration ```

``` A capillary refill time if 2 seconds would suggest A. Shock B. Anemia C. A healthy animal D. Dehydration ```

C Two seconds or less is a normal value for capillary refill time

``` What is the name for the large, flat projection located lateral to the head of the femur? A. Lesser trochanter B. Greater trochanter C. Trochanteric fossa D. Tubercle ```

B The greater trochanter s a large, flat projection found lateral yo the head of the femur. It is the attachment site for the large gluteal muscles

``` The femur articulates distally with the tibia, forming the A. Hip joint B. Stifle joint C. Tarsal joint D. Shoulder joint ```

``` What is the term for a part closer to a point of attachment or to the trunk? A. Distal B. Lateral C. Proximal D. Superficial ```

C Proximal refers to the beginning of a structure or the nearest the midline

``` What is the term used below the carpus for the surface directed causally or ventrally? A. Planter B. Sagittal C. Palmer D. Longitudinal ```

``` In growing bone, where dose lengthening take place? A. Epipyseal plate B. Metaphysis C. Diaphysis D. Peiosteal plane ```

``` What layer of bone tissue is necessary for attachment of ligaments and tendons? A. Periosteum B. Endisteum C. Cartilage D. Meniscus ```

``` The fibrous covering around the part of the bone NOT covered by articular cartilage is A. Endosteum B. Ligament C. Tendon D. Periosteum ```

``` What two valves comprise the atrioventricular valves? A. Mitral valve, pulmonic valve B. Aortic valve, pulmonic valve C. Mitral valve, tricuspid valve D. Pulmonic valve, tricuspid vale ```

The normal dentition pattern for an adult cat is A. Incisor 3/3; Canine 1/1; Premolar 3/2; Molar1/1 B. Incisor 3/3; Canine 1/1; Premolar 4/3; Molar 2/2 C. Incisor 2/2; Canine 1/1; Premolar 3/2; Molar 2/1 D. Incisor 2/2; Canine 1/1; Premolar 4/4; Molar 1/1

``` In the avian species, the ventral wall of the esophagus is greatly expanded to form the A. Proventriculus B. Crop C. Gizzard D. Duodenum ```

``` How many air sacs dose a chicken have? A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 9 ```

In birds, the cloaca A. An appendage suspended from the head B. A blind sac at the distal end of the jejunum C. A cleft in the hard palate D. A common passage for fecal, urinary, and reproductive system

``` In the avian species, the gizzard is also referred to as the A. Proventriculus B. Ventriculus C. Crop D. Colon ```

``` The femoral artery is cranial to what muscle? A. Sartorius B. Pectineus C. Rectus femoris D. Tensor fascia lata ```

``` The uvea consists of the iris, ciliary body, and A. Nervous tunic B. Fibrous tunic C. Anterior chamber D. Fibrous tunic ```

``` The shape of the eyeball is maintained by the A. Sclera B. Vitreous humor C. Lens D. Fibrous tunic ```

``` The muscular structure that separates the right and left ventricles is called the interventricular A. Sternum B. Cornary muscle C. Septum D. Myocardium ```

``` The muscular layer that makes up the majority of the heart mass A. Myocardium B. Emdocardium C. Myometrium D. Pericardium ```

``` The major artery that carries blood out of the left ventricle is the A. Subclavian artery B. Carotid artery C. Pulmonary artery D. Aorta ```

``` All of the fallowing major vessels contribute to blood flowing into the cranial vena cava except for the A. Brachiocephalic B. Thoracic duct C. Azygos vein D. Femoral vein ```

``` The structure by which venous blood from the intestine bypasses the liver is the liver A. Ductus arteriosus B. Porto-caval shunt C. Obturator foramen D. Intrahepatic venous plexus ```

``` The coronary veins empty blood via the coronary sinus into the A. Left atrium B. Right atrium C. Left atrium D. Right ventricle ```

``` The pulmonary circulation is under A. High pressure B. Low pressure C. Partial pressure D. Equilibrium ```

``` System circulation is under A. High pressure B. Low pressure C. Partial pressure D. Equilibrium ```

``` How many teeth dose an adult dog have? A. 28 B. 32 C. 42 D. 50 ```

``` Which of these is not a division of the small intestine? A. Duodenum B. Llium C. Lleum D. Jejunum ```

``` What abdominal organ is absent in the horse and rat? A. Right kidney B. Gall bladder C. Pancreas D. Cecum ```

``` What is unique about the ruminate oral cavity? A. Presence of a dental pad B. Absence of salivary glands C. Absence of molars D. Presence of needle teeth ```

``` What is the average frequency of ruminations for ruminants? A. 2/minute B. 10/minute C. 1/hour D. 5/hour ```

``` What is the most common site of feed impactions in the horse? A. Sternal flexure B. Diaphragmatic flexure C. Stomach D. Pelvic flexure ```

``` Food is moved along the digestive tract by the process known as A. Mastication B. Prehension C. Peristalsis D. Reticulation ```

``` The most distal portion of the monogastric stomach is the A. Fundus B. Antrum C. Cardia D. Pylorus ```

``` All of fallowing are cells found in the fundus and body of the stomach except A. Parietal cells B. Chief cells C. G cells D. Mucous cells ```

``` Which of the fallowing is not a hormone produced or released by the pituitary glad? A. Luteinizing hormone B. Oxytocin C. Growth hormone D. Calcitonin ```

``` Which of the fallowing is a ductless system? A. Exocrine system B. Endocrine system C. Exogenous system D. Lymphatic system ```

``` The hormone responsible for maintaining pregnancy is A. Oxytocin B. Luteinizing hormone C. Estrogen D. Progesterone ```

``` The structure produced immediately after an overian follicle had ruptured and released its ovum is the A. Corpus callosum B. Corpus luteum C. Granulosum D. Sertolioma ```

``` A deficiency in antidiuretic hormone causes A. Diabetes insipidus B. Diabetes mellitus C. Cushing disease D. Pancreatic insufficiency ```

``` What hormone is produced by the kidney? A. Antidiuretic hormone B. Adrinocorticotropic hormone C. Erythropoietin D. Adrenal cortex hormone ```

``` What hormone is produced by the beta cells in the pancreas? A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. Glycogen D. Somatostatin ```

``` The adrenal cortex is made up of all if the fallowing except A. Zona glomerulosa B. Zona medullata C. Zona fasiculata D. Zona reticularis ```

``` The endocrine structure responsible for secreting melatonin is A. Pituitary gland B. Spleen C. Thymus D. Pineal gland ```

``` The lymphatic system is not involved in A. Wast material transport B. Protein transport C. Carbohydrate transport D. Fluid transport ```

``` Which is not a lymphatic structure? A. Peyers patches B. Haustra C. Lacteals D. Thoracic duct ```

``` The lymphatic structure found in the small intestine responsible for the transport of fats and fat-soluble vitamins is A. Peyers patches B. Lacteals C. Popliteal lymph nodes D. Spleen ```

``` Which if the fallowing I'd a lymphatic structure? A. Bile duct B. Islets of Langerhans C. Thyroid D. Tonsil ```

``` What structure is not found in the brainstem? A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Hypothalamus D. Medulla oblongata ```

``` Which of these is not a catecholamine? A. Norepinephrine B. Acetylcholine C. Epinephrine D. Dopamine ```

``` Which animal does not have a gall bladder? A. Goat B. Donkey C. Cat D. Sheep ```

``` Ruminates have what type of placentation? A. Cotyledonary B. Zonary C. Diffused D. Discoid ```

``` Which of the fallowing is a posterior pituitary hormone? A. Luteinizing hormone B. Growth hormone C. Oxytocin D. Follicle stimulating hormone ```

``` Sperm cells are produced by the A. Seminiferous tubule B. Epididymis C. Vas deferens D. Seminal vesicles ```

``` What domestic species lacks the bilbo urethral gland, also called the COWPERS gland? A. Equine B. Feline C. Canine D. Bovine ```

``` All of the fallowing are induced ovulators except A. Rabbits B. Rat C. Cat D. Ferret ```

``` The time period from the beginning of one heat cycle to the next is called A. Estrous B. Estrus C. Ovulation D. The mating cycle ```

``` What muscle is responsible for pulling the testicles closer to the body? A. Retractor penis muscle B. Cremaster muscle C. Kegal muscle D. Retractor testicle muscle ```

``` When dose ovulation occur in a cow? A. Midestrus B. After estrus C. 1 to 2 days after estrus D. 12 hours after estrus ```

``` What primary ovarian structure is responsible for the release of estrogen? A. Follicle B. Placenta C. Corpus hemorrhagicum D. Corpus luteum ```

``` What hormone is given to prevent pregnancies in dogs, that have been unintentionally "mismated"? A. Oxytocin B. LH C. Estrogen D. Progesterone ```

``` The average gestation length in the ferret is A. 69 days B. 42 days C. 151 days D. 20 days ```

``` The condition known as PSEUDOPREGNANCY can be a result from an exaggerated A. Anestrus B. Metestrus C. Diestrus D. Proestrus ```

``` The thorax is normally under A. Partial pressure B. Positive pressure C. Equilibrium D. Negative pressure ```

``` Skeletal muscles are A. Under voluntary control B. Nonstriated C. Under involuntary control D. Found in walls of hallow organs ```

``` The two main minerals that make up bone are A. Calcium and magnesium B. Sodium and potassium C. Calcium and phosphorus D. Calcium and potassium ```

``` Basic function of bones include all of the fallowing except A. Protection B. Storage C. Leverage D. Metabolism ```

``` The hormone primarily responsible for preventing hypocalcemia is A. T4 B. Parathyroid hormone C. Calcitonin D. Vitamin D ```

``` He hormone primarily responsible for preventing hypercalcemia is A. T4 B. Parathyroid hormone C. Calcitonin D. Vitamin D ```

``` The bone cells responsible for the removal of bone are A. Osteoclasts B. Osteoblasts C. Chondroblast D. Chondriclast ```

``` The periosteum A. Covers the joints B. Lines the heart C. Lines the marrow cavity of bones D. Covers the outer ```

``` Bones come in all the fallowing shapes except A. Flat B. Short C. Regular D. Long ```

``` The shaft of the bone is also called the A. Trunk B. Epiphysis C. Periosteum D. Diaphysis ```

``` An example of a short bone would be a A. Vertebra B. Tarsal bone C. Scapula D. Patella ```

``` The skull bone that articulates with he first cervical vertebra is the A. Parietal bone B. Temporal bone C. Occipital bone D. Frontal bone ```

``` The bone known collectively as the issicles include all of the fallowing except the A. Sphenoid B. Malleus C. Stapes D. Incus ```

``` The cat has how many cervical vertebrae? A. 13 B. 7 C. 3 D. 10 ```

``` The first cervical vertebra, C1, is referred to as the A. Axis B. Atlas C. Arch D. Auricle ```

``` The breastbone is the A. Hyoid B. Septum C. Tubercle D. Sternum ```

``` The most caudal portion of the sternum is called the A. Hyoid B. Septum C. Tubercle D. Sternum ```

``` The most caudal portion of the sternum is called the A. Xiphoid B. Coccyx C. Manubrium D. Costal ```

``` Claws, hooves, and horns are made up of which type of cell? A. Keratinized B. Agglutinated C. Calcified D. Crystallized ```

``` The average rate of equine hoof growth per month is A. 2 inches B. 1/2 inch C. 1 inch D. 1/4 inch ```

``` Adult cattle have how many upper incisors A. 6 B. 4 C. 0 D. 5 ```

``` The anatomic term for synovial joints is A. Fibroarthrosis B. Amphiarthosis C. Synarthosis D. Diarrhrosis ```

``` Which of the fallowing is not a synovial joint? A. Hinge joint B. Gliding joint C. Swinging joint D. Pivot joint ```

``` The area of the kidney where blood vessels and nerves enter and leave is called the A. Hilus B. Medullary rays C. Cortex D. Collecting ducts ```

``` In the kidney, the primary site if action if ADH is in the A. Loop of Henle B. Proximal convoluted tubule C. Glomerulus D. Collecting ducts ```

``` The renal corpuscle is located in the A. Renal pelvis B. Hilus C. Medulla D. Cortex ```

The renal corpuscle is composed of the A. Glomerulus and Bowman capsule B. Collecting ducts and proximal convoluted tubule C. Descending and ascending loops of Henle D. Collecting ducts and afferent arteriole

``` The truck of an animal is defined as A. The front half of the animal B. The back half of the animal C. The thorax of the animal D. The thoracic and abdomen of the animal ```

``` The area between the thorax and front legs is called the A. Axilla B. Inguina C. Forearm D. Armpit ```

``` The middle phalanx is located A. Lateral to the distal phalanx B. Distal to the distal phalanx C. Medial to the distal phalanx D. Proximal to the distal phalanx ```

``` The humororadioular joint is located A. Lateral to the corpus B. Distal to the left of the carpus C. Medial to he carpus D. Proximal to the carpus ```

``` The feline liver is normally __ to the kidneys. A. Dorsal B. Ventral C. Caudal D. Cranial ```

``` The leg bone responsive for minimal support is the A. Fibula B. Femur C. Tibia D. Humerus ```

``` How many muscle heads are in the canine triceps brachii group? A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1 ```

``` Fascia is described as A. The facial muscular surface B. A tough sheet if fibrous connective tissue C. A broad band of muscle fiber D. A lacy network of connective tissue ```

``` The deltoid muscles allow fine movements of the A. Shoulder B. Hip C. Elbow D. Spine ```

``` Cats have several salivary glands. The gland that is located under the eye above the upper jaw is called the A. Interorbital gland B. Supraobital gland C. Infraorbital gland D. Intraorbital gland ```

``` The two gastric sphincters of the canine are A. Rectal and cecal B. Cardiac and pyloric C. Cardiac and rectal D. Pyloric and rectal ```

``` The dorsal plane divides the A. Upper and lower halves of the body B. Front and back halves of the body C. Head from the rest of the body D. Right and left sides of the body ```

``` The middle portion of the small intestine is the A. Jejunum B. Jejunem C. Jajunem D. Jajunem ```

``` The ___ pleura overlays organs on the body. A. Partietal B. Viscous C. Partial D. Visceral ```

``` The cat larynx is made up of four cartilages. Which one is not one of them? A. Arytenoid B. Cricoid C. Epiglottis D. Glottis ```

``` The muscle that lies along the outer thorax that looks like a fan of fingers or a jagged saw edge is the A. Latissimus dorsi B. Serratus ventrails C. Subscapularis D. External intercostals ```

``` The prepuce is also called the A. Foreskin B. Flap C. Prostate gland D. Glans penis ```

``` The cardiovascular system has four components. Which of the fallowing is not part of the system? A. Heart B. Blood circulation C. Blood vessels D. Lungs ```

``` The appendicular skeletal includes the A. Os cordis B. Ribs C. Pelvic girdle D. Clavicles ```

``` Which animal does not have an is penis? A. Dog B. Cat C. Wolf D. Pig ```

Which statement best describes short bones? A. Greater size in dimension than other B. Filled with spongy bone and marrow spaces C. Thick outer layer of compact bone D. Developed along the course of tendons

``` The scapula is an example of a A. Long bone B. Short bone C. Flat bone D. Irregular bone ```

``` An example if an irregular bone is A. Cervical vertebra 1 B. Metacarpal 3 C. Ulna D. Calcaneus ```

``` Which of the fallowing is not a part of the axial skeleton? A. Cervical vertebra 3 B. Scapula C. Skull D. Thoracic vertebra 1 ```

``` A cloven-hoofed animal stands on which digits? A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 3 and 4 D. 4 and 5 ```

``` A cloven-hoofed animal has how many phalanges on each digit? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 ```

``` A common equine disease of the digit in horses is A. Navicular disease B. EIA C. Phalangeal disease D. Tripping syndrome ```

``` The skull suture is an example of what type of joint? A. Diarthrosis B. Synarthrosis C. Amphiarthosis D. Cartilaginous ```

``` The only true pivot joint in the body is the A. Coxofemoral B. Tarsal C. Carpal D. Atlantoaxial ```

``` Muscle and ligaments attach to structures on bony surfaces. Which of the fallowing is not one of these in the forelimb? A. Trochanter B. Tuberosity C. Spine D. Epicondyle ```

``` Which structure will not allow blood vessels and nerves to pass though? A. Meats B. Sinus C. Foramen D. Facet ```

``` The joint between the bony rib and cartilaginous portion of the rib is called the A. Cartilaginous junction B. Chondrocartilaginous junction C. Costochondral junction D. Costicartilaginous junction ```

``` Dogs have how many cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae? A. 7,13,6 B. 7,12,7 C. 6,13,7 D. 7,13,7 ```

``` What is the value of X in the cow's dentition chart? I 0/3; C 0/1; PM 3/3; M X/3 A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1 ```

``` The valves that prevent backflow of blood from the ventricles are called the A. Tricuspid B. Bicuspid C. Mitral D. Semilunar ```

``` What structure disseminate electrical impulses across the ventricles? A. Perkinje fibers B. Purkinje fibers C. Purkinge fibers D. Perkingi fibers ```

Systole is A. Contraction of the atria and ventricles B. Relaxation of the atria and ventricles C. Contraction of the atria and relaxation of the ventricles D. Relaxation of the atria and contraction of the ventricles

``` The aorta leaves the heart from the A. Left ventricle B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium D. Right atrium ```

``` What blood pressure valve is not as important in veterinary medicine compared to human medicine? A. Systolic B. Diastolic C. Pulse D. Vessel ```

``` Systemic circulation includes A. Portal and peripheral circulation B. Cardiac and portal circulation C. Cardiac and pulmonary circulation D. Pulmonary and appendicular circulation ```

``` The name of the hole between the cardiac that closes at birth in the mammal is A. Cardiac fossa B. Atria foramen C. Fossa foramen D. Foramen ovale ```

``` Which of these is not a characteristic of a lymph? A. Tissue fluids B. a large number of neutrophils C. Virtually colorless D. Part of the circulatory system ```

``` The tricuspid valve controls the flow of blood A. Into the left ventricle B. Out of the left ventricle C. Into the right ventricle D. Out of the right ventricle ```

The thymus A. Is another name for the thyroid gland B. Produces cells that destroy foreign substance C. Is more prominent is adult then young animals D. Is located in the cranial abdomen

``` The eardrum is also called the A. Tympanic bulls B. Tympanic membrane C. Tympanic film D. Tympanic ossicle ```

``` What organ is most commonly associated with the capacity for extramedullary hematopoiesis if necessary? A. Spleen B. Pancreas C. Lung D. Prostate ```

``` Association neurons are part of what system? A. Peripheral B. Interneuron C. Sensory D. Extraneuron ```

``` Efferent neurons are part of what system? A. Motor B. Interneuron C. Sensory D. Extraneuron ```

``` Afferent neuron are part of what system? A. Motor B. Interneuron C. Sensory D. Extraneuron ```

The function of the red blood cell is to A. Produces antibodies against bacteria and viruses B. Act as a phagocyte C. Carry oxygen to the tissues D. Help increase the osmotic pressure within the vessels

``` What artery carries deoxygenated blood? A. Aorta B. Pulmonary C. Coronary D. Carotid ```

``` Albumin is found in the blood and is a type of A. Cell B. Phospholipid C. Enzyme D. Protein ```

``` Albumin is produced in the A. Liver B. Red bone marrow C. Lymph nodes D. Pancreas ```

``` What blood protein play a role in blood homeostasis? A. Gamma globulin B. Fibrinogen C. Beta globulin D. Albumin ```

``` Which chamber of the heart is surrounded by the largest amount of cardiac muscle? A. Right atrium B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium D. Left ventricle ```

How dose the volume of the right ventricle compare with that of cardiac muscle? A. The right ventricle has less volume than the left but pumps more blood then left ventricle B. The right ventricle as less volume than the left C. The right and left ventricles have the same volume D. The right ventricle generally holds more blood than the rest but dose not pump as much as the left

``` What cells are involved in antibody production? A. Erythrocytes B. Neutrophils C. Lymphocytes D. Basophils ```

``` Which of the fallowing are antibodies? A. Gamma globulins B. Albumin C. Fibrinogen D. Thrombocytes ```

The liver receives blood via what two different routes? A. Mesenteric arteries and the caudal vena cava B. Hepatic artery an the portal veins C. Cranial mesenteric artery and the hepatic artery D. Hepatic artery and hepatic vein

``` Red blood cells production is stimulated by A. Hypoxia and erythropoietin B. Erythropoietin and thrombocytes C. Fibrinogen and acetylcholine D. Coagulation cascade ```

``` What structure is the pacemaker of the heart? A. Bundle of his B. Purkinje fibers C. Atrioventricular node D. Sinoatrial node ```

``` What is meant by cardiac output? A. Strokes (beats) per minute B. Volume off blood pumped per stroke (beat) C. Volume of blood pumped per minute D. Strokes (beat) per volume ```

When an animal becomes severely dehydrated, it looses both tissue fluid and plasma fluid. What effect would this have on the hematocrit and the PCV? A. Increase both values B. Decrease both values C. Increase the hematocrit but no effects on the PVC D. No change in either value B. Decrease both

``` In the normal heart ECG, the QRS complex corresponds to what portion of the cardiac cycle? A. Atrial systole B. Atrial diastole C. Ventricular systole D. Ventricular diastole ```

``` What is the function of the blood platelets? A. Production of antibodies B. hemostasis C. Chemotaxis D. Phagocytosis ```

``` Decreased osmotic pressure in blood would cause A. Decreased blood flow B. edema in the tissue and/or lungs C. Increased hydrostatic pressure D. Increased cardiac pressure ```

``` Albumin plays a role in A. Bladder control B. Hydrostatic pressure in the blood C. Osmotic pressure in the blood D. Nervous stimulation ```

What is the function if erythropoietin? A. Stimulates urine production B. Stimulates white blood cell production C. Stimulates red blood cell production D. Stimulates the production of antidiuretic hormone

``` Horses and ruminates gain much of their energy from a product by microbes during fermentation. What is this product? A. Lipids B. Volatile fatty acids C. Amylase D. Trypsinogen ```

``` Ike is produced in the A. Spleen B. Pancreas C. Liver D. Omasum ```

``` Bile is needed for the digestion/absorption of A. Proteins B. Calcium C. Lipids D. Ash ```

Fermentation in the horse occurs in what two portions of the digestive tract? A. Cecum and large colon (ventral and dorsal colons) B. Ileum and jejunum C. Duodenum and and large colon (ventral and dorsal colons) D. Cecum and rectum

``` The term for an animal ingesting its own feces is A. Corpophagy B. Coprophagy C. Corpology D. Coprology ```

``` In the bovine, ingesta freely moves ack and forth between the rumen and the A. Omasum B. Abomasum C. Reticulum D. Duodenum ```

``` Which of these species dose NOT possess a gall bladder? A. Pig B. Horse C. Goat D. Dog ```

``` What hormone stimulates the release of gastric secretions? A. Gastrin B. Secretin C. Calcitonin D. Insulin ```

``` What enzyme breaks down carbohydrates in the digestive tract? A. Lipase B. Amylase C. Protease D. Trypase ```

``` The lymph vessels that absorb fats within the villi of the small intestine are called A. Pylorus B. Ileus C. Lacteals D. Peyers patched ```

``` What enzyme group breaks down fats within the digestive tract? A. Amylase B. Lipase C. Protease D. Secretin ```

``` What structure in the mucosa of the small intestine increase the surface area? A. Fimbria B. Cillia C. Brush borders D. Villi ```

``` What are the two vitamins produced by the gut bacteria? A. Vitamins C and D B. Vitamins B12 and niacin C. Vitamins B and K D. Vitamins A and E ```

``` What level if organization in the body is more complex than tissues? A. Cells B. Organs C. Muscles D. Organelles ```

``` Which of the fallowing is isotonic to plasma? A. Sterile water B. 0.9% saline solution C. 7.5% NaCl solution D. 0.45% NaCl solution ```

``` Where would you expect to find DNA within the cell? A. In the cell membrane B.In the ribosome C. In the cytoplasm D. In the nucleus ```

``` Where would you find stratified squamous epithelial tissue in the mammalian body? A. In the urinary bladder B. In the epidermis C. Lining the heart D. In the tendons and ligaments ```

``` Glandular tissue is what type of tissue? A. Epithelial B. Connective C. Nervous D. Muscle ```

Hair is A. Formed in the dermis where there is no blood supply B. Composed of adipose tissue C. Produced by glands in the epidermis D. Produced at invaginations of epidermis called FOLLICLES

``` The layer of the integument that contains the blood vessels is the A. Epidermis B. Stratum core C. Dermis D. Hypidermis ```

``` What cellular structure is responsible for the production of ATP for energy? A. Ribosomes B. Mitochondria C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. RNA ```

``` What type of epithelial tissue appears to be multilayered, but all cells touch the basement membrane? A. Stratified B. Simple C. Pseudostratufied D. Columnar ```

``` What tissue type is responsible for fat storage? A. Connective B. Adipose C. Neural D. Glandular ```

``` Osteons are associated with which of the fallowing? A. Stratified epithelial tissue B. Fibrous connective tissue C. Cartilage D. Bone ```

The function of the epiphyseal plate is to A. Provide for growth in the thickness of the bone B. Provide for growth in the length of the bone C. Provide bone for the articular surface within a joint D. Provide bone with marrow substance

``` The cells involved in bone destruction are called A. Osteoblasts B. Osteotomes C. Osteons D. Osteoclasts ```

``` What substance provides lubrication to joints and nourishment to articular cartilage cells? A. Intra-arcticular fluid B. Plasma C. Serum D. Synovial fluid ```

``` The bone type the makes up the diaphysis of the long bone is A. Cancellous B. Spongy C. Articular D. Compact ```

``` How many cervical vertebrae do mammals have? A. 3 B. 6 C. 7 D. 10 ```

``` Prolonged inactivity causes a decrease in muscle size, which is called A. Atrophy B. Hypotrophy C. Hypertrophy D. Inotrphy ```

``` How's my bones are found in the normal equine carpus? A. 1-2 B. 3-4 C. 6-7 D. 9-10 ```

``` Which of the fallowing is not required for muscular contraction and relaxation? A. Calcium B. Phosphorus C. Sodium D. Potassium ```

``` The function making up the quadriceps fermorits is A. Extension of the elbow B. Extension of the stifle C. Flexion of the hock D. Flexion of the stifle ```

``` Microscopically, smooth muscle can be differentiated from the other muscle type because A. It is striated B. It is involuntary C. It is straitions D. It possesses Purkinje fibers ```

``` What substance causes the breakdown of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft? A. Acetylcholinesterase B. Choline C. Calcium D. Actin ```

Toxins that interfere with the function of acetylcholine would have what effect on muscle fibers? A. They would prevent contraction completely, so the muscle would be paralyzed B. They would cause the muscle to become very weak and flaccid C. The muscle fiber would continue to contract, causing tremors and cramping D. They would cause rigor mortis

``` The space between the nerve end and the sarcolemma of the muscle is called the A. Neurolemma B. Synaptic cleft C. Nodes of Ranvier D. Synaptic knob ```

``` Aqueous humor is secreted by the A. Ciliary body B. Sclera C. Choroid layer of the retina D. Iris ```

``` The part of the nephron filtration of the blood takes place is the A. Hilus B. Ureter C. Loop of Henle D. Glomerulus ```

``` A cat presents with a urolith (stone) blocking the urethra. Whet is the first place that the urine backs up into? A. Renal pelvis B. Bladder C. Kidney D. Ureter ```

The most important function of ADH us to A. Decrease water reabsorption by the distal convoluted tubules B. Increase water reabsorption by the distal convoluted tubules C. Decreased water reabsorption by the glomerulus D. Increased water reabsorption by the glomerulus

``` The major factor determining glomerulus filtration rate is A. Pulse rate B. Carbon dioxide saturation of blood C. Oxygen saturation of blood D. Blood pressure ```

``` What is a normal function of estrogen? A. Inducing estrus B. Decreasing blood flow to the uterus C. Inducing parturition D. Constricting the cervix ```

``` What two organs have receptors to and thus are responsive to oxytocin? A. Ovary and uterus B. Ovary and vagina C. Uterus and mammary glands D. Colon and mammary glands ```

``` The hormone that regulates sodium reabsorption in the nephron is A. ADH B. Estrogen C. Aldosterone D. Calcitonin ```

``` Osteoclasts are cells involved in bone destruction. Their activity. Is increased by A. Calcitonin B. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) C. Thyroxine (T4) D. Aldosterone ```

``` The hormone that lowers the level of glucose in the blood by aiding the passage of glucose in the cells is A. Glucagon B. Calcitonin C. Growth hormone D. Insulin ```

``` The hormone that is regulated by the rennin-angiotensin system is A. Aldosterone B. Antidiuretic hormone C. Thyroid hormone D. Prolactin ```

``` The hormone that works on a positive-feedback system to cause labor contractions is A. Growth hormone B. Cortisol C. Oxytocin D. Epinephrine ```

``` What type of hormone is bovine somatotropin (BST)? A. Estrogen B. Growth hormone C. Prolactin D. Insulin ```

``` Diabetes insipidus is caused by a lack of what hormone? A. Antidiuretic hormone B. Aldosterone C. Luteinizing hormone D. Calcitonin ```

``` The neuron and all of the muscle fibers it innervates and considered to be A. Neural unit B. Motor unit C. Nerve fiber D. Muscle bundle ```

``` Cerebrospinal fluid lies within the A. Epidural space B. Subdural space C. Subarachnoid space D. Epiarachnoid space ```

``` Which of the fallowing is not a response of increased stimulation to the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system A. Construction of the pupils B. Dilation of the bronchioles C. Decreased heart rate D. Increased digestive activity ```

``` The anterior pituitary hormone that promotes follicular development on the overt is A. LH B. Glucagon C. FSH D. Estrogen ```

``` What is a normal response to progesterone? A. Maintainer if a pregnancy B. Inducing estrus C. Milk let-down D. Initiation of parturition ```

``` What structure is not part if the "foot" of the horse? A. Hoof and corium B. Distal end of the proximal phalanx C. Distal phalanx D. Navicular bone ```

``` The dermis is also called the A. Cutis B. Subcutis C. Corium D. Subcocium ```

``` What layer if skin contains sebaceous and sweat glands? A. Dermis B. Epidermis C. Subcorium D. Hypodermis ```

``` The oil glands that are responsible for lubricating the skin and hair are called A. Anal glands B. Mammary gland C. Ceruminous glands D. Sebaceous glands ```

``` The glands in the external ear canal are called A. Sebaceous glands B. Horn glands C. Eccrine sweat glands D. Ceruminous glands ```

``` The glands found on the lips of cats are used marking territory is called A. Apocrine sweat glands B. Circumoral glands C. Horn glands D. Anal sacs ```

``` Dog hair grows A. In cycles B. Continuously C. From specialized glands D. In layers ```

``` What muscle is responsible for "raising the hackles" on a dog's back? A. Latissimus dorsi B. Subcutis dorsi C. Arrector pilli D. Epithelial erecti ```

``` What is the largest organ in the equine body? A. Lungs B. Liver C. Skin D. Brain ```

``` What structure is located. Most distal on a horse's leg? A. Ergot B. Elbow joint C. Chestnut D. Withers ```

``` Which of the fallowing types of hair make up the undercoat of mammals and are also called wool hairs? A. Primary B. Tactile C. Vibrissa D. Secondary ```

``` Where is the sensitive laminae of an equine goo located? A. Frog B. Wall C. White line D. Bars ```

``` An animal's body temperature is not routinely affected by A. Drinking water B. Sex of the animal C. Exercise D. Time of the day ```

``` Evaporation of water from the body results in cooling. Which of the following causes types of evaporated heat loss in animals? A. Running, drinking B. Drinking, sweating C. Panting, sweating D. Sweating, bathing ```

``` Inflammation of the mammary glands is termed A. Hepatitis B. Blephraritis C. Mastitis D. Enteritis ```

``` A cat's whiskers are a type of tactile hair that are also called A. Vibrissa B. Guard hairs C. Fimbria D. Cillia ```

``` The absence of normal pigment in the skin is termed A. Amelanosis B. Albinism C. Cynanosis D. Corns ```

``` Founder in horses is another name for A. Foot rot B. Laminitis C. Ringbone D. Thrush ```

``` In the equine, what term describes a degenerative condition of the frog associated with filth? A. Gavel B. Thrush C. Toe crack D. Corns ```

``` In the equine, what term describes a drainage tract resulting from a crack in the white line? A. Corn B. White line disease C. Gavel D. Seedy toe ```

``` The shaft or body of a long bone is called the A. Epiphysis B. Diaphysis C. Metaphysis D. Tubercle ```

``` The two enlarged ends of a long bone are called the A. Epiphyses B. Diaphyses C. Metaphyses D. Chondrophyses ```

``` The fibrous layer around bone that is necessary for bone growth, repair, nutrition, and attachment of ligaments and tendons is the A. Endisteum B. Peritoneum C. Periosteum D. Mesothelium ```

``` The innermost part of the shaft of a long bone that contains the bone marrow is called the A. Periosteum B. Medullary C. Compact bone D. Cancellous bone ```

``` What type of joint movement decreases the angle between bone? A. Abduction B. Adduction C. Extension D. Flexion ```

The hip joint is classified by which of the fallowing terms? A. No joint capsule, ball-and-socket joint, flexion and extension B. Synovial joint, hinge joint, freely movable C. Synovial joint, ball-and-socket joint, universal movement D. No joint capsule, pivot joint, slightly movable

``` The stifle joint articulates between the A. Humerus, radius, and ulna B. Tibia, fibula, and tarsal bones C. Scapula and humerus D. Femur, patella, and tibia ```

The thoracic limb includes the A. Pelvis, femur, patella, radius, ulna, tarsals, metatarsals, and phalanges B. Scapula, humerus, radius, ulna, carpus, metacarpals, and phalanges C. Scapula, femur, tibia, fibula, carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges D. Pelvis, humerus, radius, ulna, tarsals, metatarsals, and phalanges

``` The xiphoid process is found on the A. Vertebrae B. Sacrum C. Skull D. Sternum ```

``` The obturator foramen is found A. At the base of the skull B. In the mandible C. In the maxillary bone D. In the Pelvis ```

``` During episodes of chronic laminitis, what bone in the equine foot may rotate downward, pressing against the sole causing pain? A. Navicular B. Coffin C. Short pastern D. Cannon ```

``` The anatomic name for the hip joint is the A. Temporomandible joint B. Glenohumeral joint C. Femorotibial joint D. Coxofemoral joint ```

``` Muscle finders ate held together by connective tissue and are enclosed in a sheet of fibrous membrane called A. Tendon B. Aponeurosis C. Fascia D. Ligament ```

``` A muscle whose movement increases the angle between two bones is known as A. Abductor B. Adductor C. Extensor D. Flexor ```

``` The large, round, lateral cheek muscle used primarily for elevation of the mandible to aid in chewing is the A. Sternomastoid B. Masseter C. Startorius D. Digsstric ```

``` The extensive aponeorosis that covers the lower back to join the superficial muscles in that area is called the A. Fascia lata B. Cutaneous maximus C. Lumbodorsal fascia D. Linea alba ```

``` The muscle that is located on the shoulder, originates on the clavicle, inserts on the ulna, and whose action is to flex the forearm is the A. Clavibrachoalis B. Pectoantebrachialis C. Sternomstoid D. Latissimus dorsi ```

``` The opening is the distal end of the simple stomach that allows for emptying of its contents into the duodenum is called the A. Fundus B. Body C. Pylorus D. Cardia ```

``` The extensive aponeorosis that covers the lower back to join the superficial muscles in that is called the A. Fascia lata B. Cutaneous maximus C. Lumbodotsal fascia D. Linea alba ```

``` The opening at the distal end of the simple stomach that allows for emptying of its contents into duodenum is call the A. Fundus B. Body C. Pylorus D. Cardia ```

``` The gluteal muscle include the gluteus maxmimus, and the A. Biceps femoris B. Tensor fascia lata C. Satorius D. Caudofemoralis ```

Which of the fallowing sequences lists the abdominal muscle layer in order, starting with the most superficial? A. External oblique, internal oblique, transverse abdominis B. External oblique, internal oblique, rectus abdominis C. Internal oblique, external oblique, transverse abdominis D. Rectus abdominis, internal oblique, external oblique

``` The muscle that is found in the midventral abdominal area on either side of the linea alba, extending from the pubis to the upper ribs and sternum, is the A. Transverse abdominis B. Latissimus dorsi C. Rectus abdominis D. Spinotrapezius ```

``` Which is a powerful muscle of the head that contributes to the act of chewing by closing the mouth? A. Digestricus B. Masseter C. Mylohyodeus D. Patysma ```

``` What muscle condition would result from lack of use, such as during immobilization of a fractured bone or as result of nerve damage to a body part? A. Myopathy B. Atrophy C. Hypertrophy D. Myalgia ```

``` What muscle is observed from from the medial surface of the thigh? A. Gracillis B. Gastrocnemius C. Biceps femoris D. Caudofemoralis ```

``` The chief action of the quadriceps femoris group is to A. Flex the foot B. Extend the stifle C. Extend elbow D. Abduct the hind leg ```

``` What is the chief action of the three heads of the triceps brachii? A. Extension of the forearm B. Flexor of the lower hind limb C. Addiction of the shoulder D. Flexion of the neck ```

Which of the fallowing is not a function of the muscular system? A. Protection B. Generation of body heat C. Transport of ingesta through intestinal tract D. Movement of the skeleton

``` Which one of the fallowing works in opposition to the prime mover, relaxing as the prime mover is contracting? A. Fixator B. Antagonist C. Synergistic D. Flexor ```

``` The abbreviation ACTH stands for A. Acidic coloroteopic hormone B. Anterior control tropic hormone C. Adrenocorticotropic hormone D. Adrenocontrol tropic hormone ```

The most important function of ADH is to A. Assist glucose in crossing into the body cells B. Stimulate parturition C. Increase production of thyroid hormone D. Help control water loss from the kidneys

``` Fallowing coutus, what hormone that also aids in fetal expulsion is believed to stimulate uterine contraction and thereby aid transport of sperm to the oviducts? A. Oxytocin B Progesterone C. Testosterone D. FSH ```

``` Where are the adrenal glands located? A. Base of the brain B. Adjacent to the trachea C. Near the kidney D. Caudal to the eyes ```

``` Parathyroid hormone is the major factors controlling the blood level of A. Iodine B. Magnesium C. Chloride D. Calcium ```

``` The number of parathyroid glands in all species is A. 2 B. 4 C. 10 D. Variable ```

``` The disease caused by a lack of insulin or the body's inability to use insulin is A. Diabetes mellitus B. Diabetes insipidus C. Addison's disease D. Cushiness disease ```

``` Insulin is produced in the pancreas by he beta cells in the islets of Langerhans. What is produced by the alpha cells? A. Thyroxine B. Glucagon C. Estrogen D. Calcium ```

``` What type of hormone transmission uses intestinal fluid to diffuse the hormone though the body? A. Endocrine B. Neurocrine C. Paraceine D. Exocrine ```

``` What substance is not classified as an endocrine hormone? A. Pancreatic juice B. Polypeptide (protein) C. Steroid D. Amine ```

``` The epithelium of the skin is A. Simple squamous, keratinized B. Simple squamous, nonkeratinized C. Stratified squamous, keratinized D. Stratified squamous, nonkeratinized ```

``` Sweat glands in the skin are A. Compound alveolar B. Compound tubular C. Simple alveolar D. Simple tubular ```

``` The huge, comma-shaped section of the large intestine of the horse that occupies much of the the right of the abdomen is the A. Cecum B. Colon C. Rectum D. Ileum ```

``` Which of the fallowing lists the sections of the small intestine in order from anterior to posterior? A. Jejunum, ileum, duodenum B. Duodenum, colon, jejunum C. Ileum, duodenum, cecum D. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum ```

``` In what portion of the ruminant digestive system does most microbial fermentation take place? A. Abomasum B. Duodenum C. Rumen D. Omasum ```

``` In the ruminant animal, the fermentation take process produces gas in the rumen, which, if not eliminated, can cause a condition called BLOUT. What instrument can be used to relieve this condition? A. Emasculator B. Trocar C. Burdizzo D. Rochester-Carmalt forceps ```

``` Rumination is cycle of activity composed of four phases. Which of the fallowing is not included in this process? A. Eructation B. Remastication C. Redeglutition D. Reutination ```

``` Where does fermentation occur in nonrumination herbivores, such as the horse? A. Jejunum and ileum B. Cecum and colon C. Ileum and cecum D. Rumen and cecum ```

``` What organ is located immediately behind the diaphragm in the carnivore? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Pancreas D. Kidney ```

``` Hardware disease is usually associated with ingestion of nails, wire, or other sharp objects. The portion if the digestive tract that collects these objects is the A. Reticulum B. Omasum C. Rumen D. Abomasum ```

``` What animals have a dental pad in place of dental incisors and canines? A. Horse, cow B. Cow, goat C. Dog, sheep D. Cat, horse ```

``` The serosa that covers the organs of the abdominal cavity is called the A. Visceral peritoneum B. Visceral pleura C. Mesentery D. Parietal peritoneum ```

``` The connecting peritoneum that suspends the intestinal tract from the abdominal wall and contains vessels, nerves, and lymphatics that supply their respective organs is the A. Mesentery B. Omentum C. Pleura D. Omasum ```

``` What structure divides the rostral part of the pharynx into the oropharynx and nasopharynx? A. Tongue B. Hard palate C. Epiglottis D. Soft palate ```

``` The nucleus is an essential component of all body cells except for A. Liver cells B. Immature red blood cells C. Kidney cells D. Mature red blood cells ```

The cell membrane that surrounds tissue is made up of A. Two lipid layer that surrounds a protein that surrounds a protein layer B. Two protein layers that surround a lipid layer C. An outer protein layer and an inner lipid layer D. An outer lipid layer and an inner protein layer

What cell component is primarily responsible for protein synthesis? A. Golgi apparatus B. Mitochondria C. Nucleus D. Granular (rough) endoplasmic reticulum

``` Which of the fallowing function of the epithelium is indicated when stratified squamous epithelium is highly keratinized? A. Absorption B. Secretion C. Excretion D. Protection ```

``` The lining epithelium of blood vessels is called A. Mesothelium B. Myoepithelium C. Endothelium D. Exothelium ```

What type of epithelium lines the upper portion of the respiratory system and plays an important role in the body's defense mechanism? A. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium B. Stratified columnar epithelium C. Simple ciliated cuboidal epithelium D. Stratified squamous epithelium

``` The type of epithelial cell capable of significant variation in shape, depending on changes in the size of the organ that it lines, is called a A. Squamous epithelium B. Columnar epithelium C. Transitional epithelium D. Cuboidal epithelium ```

``` The mineral most important for normal contraction of striated muscle fibers is A. Phosphorus B. Iron C. Calcium D. Magnesium ```

Cardiac muscle fibers can be identified by A. The presence of cross striations and peripheral nuclei B. The absence of cross striations and the presence of central nuclei C. The absence of cross striations and the presence of peripheral nuclei D. The presence of cross striations and central nuclei

``` The junctions between adjacent cardiac muscle fibers are called A. Terminal bars B. Intercalated disks C. Motor end plates D. Synapses ```

Regeneration of cardiac muscle fibers fallowing injury A. Is possible when the nucleus and part of the cytoplasm are preserved B. Occurs though mitotic division of fibers C. Does not occur D. Occurs from perivascular connective tissue cells

Peritoneum, pleura, and pericardium consist of a flattened arrangement of A. Adipose tissue covered by a layer of mesothelium B. Hyaline cartilage covered by a layer of endothelium C. Loose connective tissue coveted by a layer of endothelium D. Loose connective tissue covered by a layer of mesothelium

``` The apex of the heart is Normally positioned A. Caudal and the the left B. Caudal and to the right C. Cranial and to the left D. Cranial and to the right ```

``` What cardiac chamber receives blood from the systemic veins? A. Left atrium B. left ventricle C. Right atrium D. Right ventricle ```

``` The valve that prevents blood from flowing back into the left atrium during ventricular systole is the A. Aortic B. Mitral C. Pulmonary D. Tricuspid ```

``` The cardiac chamber that pumps blood into the pulmonary artery is the A. Left atrium B. left ventricle C. Right atrium D. Right ventricle ```

``` The valve that prevents blood from flowing back into the left ventricle during ventricular diastole A. Aortic B. Mitral C. Pulmonary D. Tricuspid ```

The second heart sound is produced by A. Closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves B. Closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves C. Closure of the aortic and mitral valves D. Closure of the mitral and pulmonary valves

``` What vessel normally carries carbon dioxide-rich blood? A. Aorta B. Pulmonary vein C. Umbilical vein D. Vena cava ```

``` Which of the fallowing organs is not essential to life? A. Heart B. Liver C. Pancreas D. Spleen ```

``` The most nervous type of blood cell is the A. Basophil B. Monocytes C. Neutrophil D. Res blood cell ```

``` Which of the fallowing white blood cells is not a granulocytes? A. Basophil B. Eosinophil C. Monocytes D. Neutrophil ```

``` For what blood cell is phagocytosis the main function? A. Basophil B. Eosinophil C. Monocyte D. Red blood cell ```

``` Chordae tendineae are present n which valve? A. Aortic B. Lymphatic C. Mitral D. Pulmonary ```

``` The valve that prevents blood from flowing back into the ventricle at the end of ventricular systole is the A. Aortic B. Mitral C. Pulmonary D. Tricuspid ```

``` What blood vessel normally carries oxygen-rich blood? A. Aorta B. Pulmonary artery C. Umbilical artery D. Vena cava ```

``` What lymphoid organ normally is prominent in young animals only? A. Gut-associated lymphatic tissue B. Spleen C. Thymus D. Tonsil ```

``` The least numerous type of blood cell in circulation is normally the A. Basophil B. Eosinophil C. Lymphocyte D. Monocyte ```

``` Blood vessels that are the site of the transfer of nutrients between the blood and tissues are the A. Arteries B. Arterioles C. Capillaries D. Veins ```

``` The circulatory system is lined by what kind of epithelium? A. Simple columnar B. Simple squamous C. Stratified squamous D. Transitional ```

``` What vessels contain valves? A. Arterioles B. Capillaries C. Lymph capillaries D. Medium-sized veins ```

``` The heart chamber that pumps blood to the lungs is the A. Left atrium B. Left ventricle C. Right atrium D. Right ventricle ```

``` The heart chamber that receives blood from the pulmonary veins is the A. Left atrium B. Left ventricle C. Right atrium D. Right ventricle ```

``` The heart chamber that pumps blood through the aorta is the A. Left atrium B. Left ventricle C. Right atrium D. Right ventricle ```

``` The valve at the overflow tract of the right ventricle is the A. Aortic B. Mitral C. Pulmonary D. Tricuspid ```

``` The left atrioventricular valve is the A. Aortic B. Mitral C. Pulmonary D. Tricuspid ```

``` The left ventricular outflow valve is the A. Aortic B. Mitral C. Pulmonary D. Tricuspid ```

The first heart sound is produced by A. Closure of the left and right atrioventricular valves B. Closure of the pulmonary and aortic valve C. Contraction of the left and right atria D. Contraction of the left and right ventricle

``` The bundle of His is located in what part of the heart? A. Interventricular septum B. Left and right ventricular walls C. Right atrial D. Apex of the heart ```

``` The blood vessel that shunts blood from the pulmonary artery to the aorta in a fetus us the A. Ductus arteriosus B. foramen ovale C. Umbilicus arteriosus D. Umbilicus venosus ```

``` The main component of the tunica media of muscular arteries A. Cardiac muscle fibers B. Elastic fibers C. Skeletal muscle fibers D. Smooth muscle fibers ```

``` The pulmonary valve prevents blood from flowing back into the A. Left atrium B. Right atrium C. Left ventricle D. Right ventricle ```

``` The mitral valve prevents blood from flowing back into the A. Left atrium B. right atrium C. Left ventricle D. Right ventricle ```

``` The aortic valve prevents blood from flowing back into the A. Left atrium B. Right atrium C. Left ventricle D. Right ventricle ```

``` The tricuspid valve prevents blood from flowing back into the A. Left atrium B. Right atrium C. Left ventricle D. Right ventricle ```

``` Each cardiac cycle in a normal heart results from an impulse that is initiated in the A. Atrioventricular node B. Bundle of His C. Purkinje fibers D. Sinoatrial node ```

``` The ductus arteriosus in a fetus joins the A. Aorta and pulmonary artery B. Aorta and pulmonary vein C. Vena cava and pulmonary artery D. Vena cave and pulmonary vein ```

``` The valve that prevents blood from flowing back into the left ventricle at the end of ventricle systole is the A. Aortic B. Mitral C. Pulmonary D. Tricuspid ```

``` The Purkinje fibers in the heart are located in the A. Interventricular septum B. Left and right ventricular walls C. Right atrial wall D. Interatrial septum ```

``` Blood that have returned to the heart through the cranial and caudal venae cavae first passes through what heart valve? A. Aortic B. Mitral C. Pulmonary D. Tricuspid ```

``` The right atrium receives blood from what blood vessel? A. Aorta B. Pulmonary artery C. Pulmonary vein D. Vena cava ```

``` What heart chamber pumps blood to the systemic circulation? A. Left atrium B. Left ventricle C. Right atrium D. Right ventricle ```

``` The left atrium receives blood from what blood vessel? A. Aorta B. Pulmonary artery C. Pulmonary vein D. Vena cava ```

``` Which structure of the fetal heart largely allows blood to bypass the pulmonary circulation? A. Foramen magnum B. Foramen ovale C. Nutrient foramen D. Obturator foramen ```

``` The large lymphoid organ that stores blood but is not essential to life is the A. Kidney B. Liver C. Pancreas D. Spleen ```

``` What blood component is most important in plugging leaks in damaged blood vessels? A. Albumin B. Neutrophil C. Platelet D. Red blood cell ```

``` Which if the fallowing is not a feature of the right side of the heart? A. Atrium B. Chordae tendineae C. Pulmonary valve D. Mitral valve ```

``` The first cardiac chamber that blood enters after returning from the lungs is the A. Left atrium B. Left ventricle C. Right atrium D. Right ventricle ```

What are the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system stimulation on the heart? A. Decrease rate and decrease for e of contractions B. Decrease rate and increased force of contractions C. Increased rate and decreased force of contractions D. Increased rate and increased force of contractions

The foramen ovale in the developing fetus allows blood to flow A. From the left atrium to the right atrium B. From the right atrium to the left atrium C. From the left ventricle to the right ventricle D. From the right ventricle to the left ventricle

``` What body fluid cannot clot? A. Plasma B. Serum C. Whole blood D. Lymph ```

``` What white blood cells normally contains red-staining granules in its cytoplasm? A. Basophil B. Eosinophil C. Monocyte D. Neutrophil ```

``` What white blood cell is important in immunity production and normally has a single, large nucleus that occupies most of the cell? A. Eosinophil B. Lymphocyte C. Monocyte D. Neutrophil ```

``` Which of the fallowing structures are listed in the order in which they are encountered by a blood cell? A. Arteries, veins, capillaries, heart B. Capillaries, veins, hearts, arteries C. Heart, veins, capillaries, arteries D. Veins, capillaries, arteries, heart ```

``` What vessel being fresh, oxygenated blood from the placenta to a developing fetus? A. Ductus arteriosus B. Pulmonary vein C. Umbilical artery D. Umbilical vein ```

``` Which of the fallowing is not one of the main function of the digestive system? A. Absorption B. Digestive C. Prehension D. Secretion ```

The digestive system of herbivores A. Contains an enlarged microbial fermentation B. Is generally simpler and narrower than that of carnivores C. Is made to handle both plant and animal food sources D. Relies mainly on enzymatic digestion

``` From the stomach to the anus, the digestive tube is lined by what kind of epithelium? A. Simple columnar B. Simple squamous C. Stratified columnar D. Stratified squamous ```

``` Most of the tooth is made up of what tissue? A. Bone B. Cementum C. Dentin D. Enamel ```

``` The most rostral teeth in the dental arcade are the A. Canines B. Incisors C. Molars D. Premolar ```

``` The smallest ruminant forestomach, and the one most commonly involved in hardware disease, is the A. Abomasum B. Omasum C. Reticulum D. Rumen ```

``` The most distal short portion of the small intestine, just before it joins the large intestine, is the A. Duodenum B. Ileum C. Ilium D. Jejunum ```

``` The root of a too this normally covered by A. Cartilage B. Cementum C. Dentin D. Enamel ```

``` The most caudal teeth are the A. Canines B. Incisors C. Molars D. Premolar ```

``` The surface area of the small intestinal lining is increased by A. Gyri B. Papillae C. Rugae D. Vili ```

``` The organ that has endocrine function and also produces many digestive enzymes is the A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Spleen D. Thymus ```

``` The largest ruminant forestomach is the A. Abomasum B. Omasum C. Reticulum D. Rumen ```

``` The crown of a tooth is covered by A. Cementum B. Dentin C. Enamel D. Serosa ```

``` The ruminant forestomach that dehydrates and grinds feed is the A. Abomasum B. Omasum C. Reticulum D. Rumen ```

``` The first short portion of the small intestine that comes off the stomach is the A. Cecum B. Duodenum C. Ileum D. Jejunum ```

``` The longest portion of the smallest intestine, where most absorption of nutrients occurs, is the A. Cecum B. Duodenum C. Ileum D. Jejunum ```

``` The opening of the esophagus into the stomach is called the A. Cardia B. Fundus C. Pylorus D. Ruga ```

``` The blind-ended sac that is part of the large intestine is the A. Cecum B. Colon C. Duodenum D. Rectum ```

``` The exocrine secretion of the pancreas contains large amounts of A. Bile B. Digestive enzymes C. Hydrochloride acid D. Mucus ```

``` The largest gland in the normal adult animal body is the A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Spleen D. Vena cava ```

``` The outermost layer of the digestive tube is the A. Mucosa B. Muscle layer C. Serosa D. Submucosa ```

``` Which of these combinations of digestive structures is lined entirely by simple columnar epithelium? A. Anus, duodenum, ileum, stomach B. Cecum, colon, jejunum, stomach C. Colon, esophagus, ileum, stomach D. Duodenum, jejunum, ileum, pancreas ```

``` Which of the fallowing is not secreted by gastric glands? A. Acid B. Chyme C. Digestive enzymes D. Mucus ```

``` The structure in a newborn ruminant animal that allows milk to bypass the rumen and reticulum and go directly to the omasum is the A. Eructation B. Esophageal groove C. Reticular folds D. Rumination ```

``` What structure is not part of the large intestine? A. Cecum B. Colon C. Ileum D. Rectum ```

``` Villi are prominent in the lining of what structure? A. Esophagus B. Large intestine C. Small intestine D. Stomach ```

``` Which of the fallowing is not a normal function if the liver in an adult animal? A. Bile secretion B. blood cell formation C. Destruction of old red blood cells D. Protein synthesis ```

Hhh

``` The correct term for chewing of food is A. Eructation B. Mastication C. Prehension D. Rumination ```

``` In which of these animals is microbial fermentation most important in the digest process? A. Cat B. Dog C. Horse D. Pig ```

``` The inner lining of the digestive tube is called the A. Mucosa B. Musculorum C. Serosa D. Submucosa ```

``` The teeth that are not present in all common domestic animals are the A. Canines B. Incisors C. Premolar D. Molars ```

``` The common passageway of the respiratory and digestive systems is the A. Esophagus B. Larynx C. Pharynx D. Trachea ```

``` What fluid contributes least to the process of digestion? A. Bile B. Pancreatic juice C. Saliva D. Stomach gland secretions ```

``` In what structure does no significant digestion or absorption take place? A. Esophagus B. Large intestine C. Small intestine D. Stomach ```

``` The portal vein carries nutrient-rich blood from the intestines to the A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Spleen D. Stomach ```

``` What gland is also called the MASTER GLAND? A. Thyroid B. Adrenal C. Pituitary D. Thymus ```

``` The anterior pituitary gland secretes A. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B. Insulin C. Oxytocin D. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) ```

``` The adrenal glands produce A. Insulin B. Glucocorticoids C. Parathormone D. Calcitonin ```

``` The pancreas produces A. Thyroxine B. Prolatin C. Insulin D. Progesterone ```

``` What gland regulates most of the endocrine system? A. Thyroid B. Pancreas C. Thymus D. Pituitary ```

``` What hormones are produced by the thyroid gland? A. Thyroxine and insulin B. Parathormone and thyroxine C. Calcitonin and insulin D. Thyroxine and calcitonin ```

``` What hormone stimulates milk let-down? A. Testosterone B. Epinephrine C. Oxytocin D. Relaxin ```

``` Where is the thyroid gland located? A. At the base of the brain B. Adjacent to the trachea C. Adjacent to the cranial end of each kidney D. At the duodenal loop ```

Exocrine glands are A. Glands whose secretory products are transported via ducts B. Glands whose secretory enter the bloodstream C. Glands whose excretory produces are transported via ducts D. Glands whose excretory products enter the bloodstream

``` Hypoadrenocorticism is commonly referred to as A. Cushings disease B. Addinsons disease C. Bangs disease D. Carres disease ```

``` The adrenal medulla secretes A. Thyroxine B. Estogen C. Progesterone D. Epinephrine ```

``` What substance is required for production of thyroid hormones? A. Insulin B. Epinephrine C. Iodine D. Sodium ```

What clinical sign is associated with hyperthyroidism? A. Loss of weight with a normal or increased appetite B. Lethargy C. Decreased tolerance of cold D. Deceased metabolic rate

``` An appreciable enlargement of the thyroid gland is termed A. Hypothyroidism B. Goiter C. Parathyroid D. Lump jaw ```

``` When one hormone increases the activity of another hormone, the effect is termed A. Potentiation B. Antagonism C. Doubling D. Nullification ```

Anatomy and physiology Flashcards

(506 cards)