ANATOMY - general Flashcards
(166 cards)
1
Q
how many pairs of spinal nerves
A
31
2
Q
how many pairs of cranial nerves
A
12
3
Q
at 4 weeks development how many regions are there in the neural tube and what are they called
A
3
prosencephalon
mesencephalon
rhombencephalon
4
Q
by 6-8 weeks development how many brain regions are there
A
5
5
Q
to make 5 regions what 2 regions divide
A
prosencephalon
rhombencephalon
6
Q
at 6-8 weeks development what are the 5 brain regions
A
telencephalon diencephalon mesencephalon metencephalon mylencephalon
7
Q
what does the telencephalon give rise to
A
cerebral hemispheres
8
Q
what does the diencephalon give rise to
A
thalamus and hypothalamus
9
Q
what does the mesencephalon give rise to
A
midbrain
10
Q
what does the metencephalon give rise to
A
pons
cerebellum
11
Q
what does the myelencephalon give rise to
A
medulla oblongata
12
Q
what are the 2 main cell types in the CNS
A
neurons and glial cells
13
Q
most neurones are ___ polar
A
multi
14
Q
what are the 4 types of glial cell
A
astrocytes
oligodendrocytes
microglia
ependymal cells
15
Q
what shape are astrocytes
A
star shaped - many processes
16
Q
what are the 3 functions of astrocytes
A
support, maintain BBB, environmental homeostasis
17
Q
what is the function of oligodendrocytes
A
produce myelin in CNS
18
Q
the nucleus of oligodendrocytes is ____ and ____ stained
A
round and moderately
19
Q
microglia are similar in lineage to ____
A
macrophages
20
Q
what is the function of microglia
A
immune monitoring and antigen presentation
21
Q
does the brain have a fast or slow rate of lymphoid trafficking
A
slow
22
Q
when do microglia move into brain from circulation
A
during development
23
Q
what is the difference in microglial appearance when resting compared with when active
A
resting - elongated nucleus and short spiny processes
activated - rounder and look like macrophages
24
Q
what is the function of ependymal cells
A
ciliated cuboidal/columnar epithelial cells that line the ventricles
25
which matter has a huge number of neurones, cell processes, synapses and support cells
grey
26
what does the white matter contain
medullary centre - axons (mostly myelinated) and their support cells
27
what are the 3 columns of the spinal cord white matter
posterior (dorsal)
lateral
anterior (ventral)
28
what are the 5 lobes of the brain
```
frontal
parietal
occipital
temporal
insular
```
29
insular lobe has an important role in the experience of ___
pain
30
list the meninges from superficial to deep
dura
arachnoid
pia
31
the spinal cord terminates at what level
L1/L2
32
the spinal cord terminates in a tapered cone shape called the _____ ____ which continues as a thin connective tissue cord called the ___ ____ which is anchored to the ___
conus medullaris
filum terminale
dorsum of the coccyx
33
the spinal cord has an ____ layer of white matter and an ____ layer of grey matter
outer white
| inner grey
34
what is found in the white matter of the spinal cord
longitudinally orientated nerve fibres (axons)
| glial cells and blood vessels
35
what is found in the grey matter of the spinal cord
```
neuronal soma
cell processes
synapses
glia
blood vessels
```
36
there is a small central canal that extends the length of the cord and opens where rostrally and caudually is ____
4th ventricle
| blind ending
37
the white matter takes up a bigger/smaller portion of the cord as you descend
smaller
38
what are the 4 divisions of the grey matter in the spinal cord
right and left anterior and posterior horns
39
what does the horizontal part of the H represent in the spinal cord
dorsal and ventral grey matter commisures which surround the central canal
40
at T1 - L2 what can be found in addition to the R and L anterior and posterior horns
a lateral horn - contains preganglionic sympathetic neurones
41
where is the cord larger
cervical and lumbar regions
42
what is the main blood supply of the spinal cord
3 major longitudinal arteries - 1 anterior and 2 posterior
43
the 3 longitudinal arteries of the spinal cord originate where and run how long
originate from vertebral arteries and run length of the cord
44
what other arteries are found in the cord
segmental (A+P) and radicular arteries
45
from where are the segmental arteries derived
vertebral, intercostal and lumbar arteries
46
where do the radicular arteries travel
along the dorsal and ventral roots
47
what is the venous drainage of the spinal cord (read)
Venous drainage is via three anterior and three posterior spinal veins. These veins are valveless, and form an anastamosing network along the surface of the spinal cord. They also receive venous blood from the radicular veins.
The spinal veins drain into the internal and external vertebral plexuses, which in turn empty into the systemic segmental veins. The internal vertebral plexus also empties into the dural venous sinuses superiorly.
48
what separates the 2 cerebral hemispheres
falx cerebri of the dura mater
49
what matter is the surface of each cerebral hemisphere
grey
50
what white matter structure connects the 2 cerebral hemispheres
corpus callosum
51
what is the function of the superior temporal gyrus
reception and processing of sound
52
what is the frontal lobe responsible for
```
higher intellect
personality
mood
social conduct
language (dominant hemisphere only)
```
53
what is the parietal lobe responsible for
contributes to control of language and calculation (dominant side)
visuospatial functions e.g. 2PD (non-dominant side)
54
what is the temporal lobe responsible for
memory and language
| hearing
55
what is the location of primary auditory cortex
temporal lobe
56
what is the temporal lobe responsible for
vision - location of the primary visual cortex
57
what separates the cerebellum from the cerebrum
tentorium cerebelli
58
what are the 3 main paired arteries of the brain
anterior middle and posterior cerebral arteries
59
the anterior cerebral artery is a branch of what
ICA
60
what part of the brain does the anterior cerebral artery supply
anteromedial aspects
61
middle cerebral artery is a continuation of what
ICA
62
what parts of the brain are supplied by the middle cerebral artery
most of lateral portions
63
the posterior cerebral artery is a branch of what
basilar artery
64
what does the posterior cerebral artery supply
medial and lateral sides of the posterior cerebrum
65
what is the venous drainage of the brain
network of small cerebral veins which drain into the dural sinuses - endothelial lined spaces between the outer and inner layers of the dura mater
66
how is the cerebellum attached to the cerebrum
3 peduncles - middle superior and inferior
67
what are the 3 layers of the cerebellar cortex
molecular layer (outer)
purkinje cell layer (middle)
granule cell layer (inner)
68
important afferents to the cerebellum mainly arrive from what 3 areas
spinal cord - somatic proprioceptors and pressure receptors
cerebral cortex - relayed via pons
vestibular apparatus - via vestibular nuclei
69
how do afferents enter the cerebellum
| they project mainly to what layer
via cerebellar peduncles and project mainly to granule cell layer
70
the only outputs of the cerebellum is via the axons of _____ cells
purkinje cells
71
where do the purkinje cells synapse
depp cerebellar nuclei - coordinate the functions of all the motor tracts of brainstem and spinal cord
72
cerebellar hemispheres influence the _____ side of the body
ipsilateral
73
what would be seen with a midline cerebellar lesion
disturbance of postural control - patient will fall over when sitting or standing despite preserved limb coordination
74
what would be seen with a unilateral hemispheric lesion
disturbance of coordination of limbs
| intention tremor, unsteady gait in absence of weakness or sensory loss
75
what would be seen with bilateral cerebellar dysfunction
dysarthria (slowed slurred speech)
bilateral incoordination of arms
staggering wide based gait (cerebellar ataxia)
76
what drug can cause acute bilateral cerebellar hemisphere dysfunction
alcohol
77
what is the function of the basal ganglia
facilitate purposeful movement
inhibit unwanted movement
and role in posture and muscle tone
78
what are the basal ganglia
number of masses of grey matter located near the base of each cerebellar hemisphere
79
what are the 5 basal ganglia
```
caudate nucleus
putamen
globus pallidus
subthalamic nucleus
substantia nigra
```
80
what makes up the striatum
caudate nucleus and putamen
81
what makes up the lenticular nucleus
putamen and globus pallidus
82
what makes up the corpus striatum
caudate nucleus putamen and globus pallidus
83
parkinsons is a degeneration of the _____ ____ dopaminergic neurons
substantia nigra
84
what is the direct pathway
the way basal ganglia work with motor cortex to enhance normal movement - enhances outflow of thalamus enhancing the desired movement
85
what is the indirect pathway
the way basal ganglia work with motor cortex to suppress unwanted movement - inhibits flow of thalamus
86
unilateral lesions of the basal ganglia affect _____ side of body
contralateral
87
what motor signs do lesions of the basal ganglia cause
muscle tone change
| dyskinesias - abnormal involuntary movement
88
what are 3 examples of dyskinesias lesions of the basal ganglia could cause
tremor - sinusoidal movements
chorea
myoclonus
89
what is chorea
rapid asymmetrical movements usually affecting distal limb musculature
90
what is myoclonus
muscle jerks
91
name a disease where there is progressive degeneration of the basal ganglia and cerebral cortex where chorea and progressive dementia are seen
huntingtons disease
92
Are lesions of the basal ganglia extrapyramidal or pyramidal
extrapyramidal
93
what are the 3 fibres of the white matter tracts of the brain
associated fibres
commisural fibres
projection fibres
94
what is the function of assoc. fibres
connect cortical sites lying in the same hemisphere
95
what is the function of commisural fibres
connect one hemisphere to the other usually areas of similar function
96
what is the function of projection fibres
connect hemispheres to deeper structures including thalamus, corpus striatum, brain stem, spinal cord
97
what are the 5 layers of the scalp
```
S - skin
C- connective tissue
A - aponeurosis
L - loose connective tissue
P - pericranium
```
98
what kind of joints are sutures and what are they for
fibrous joints
| prevent small fractures from spreading
99
what is the weakest part of the skull
pterion
100
the pterion is a junction of what bones
sphenoid
parietal
temporal
frontal
101
what artery crosses over the deep aspect of the pterion
middle meningeal artery
102
sensory nerve supply to the dura is mainly from what
CN V
103
what encloses the dural venous sinuses
dura mater
104
how is CSF reabsorbed
arachnoid granulations into dural venous sinuses
105
where does the CSF circulate
subarachnoid space
106
what is the meningeal layer that adheres to the brain and blood vessels and nerves entering or leaving brain
pia
107
what is the dura adherent to
internal aspect of skull
108
the _____ ___ is a tough sheet of dura mater forming a roof (diaphragm) over the pituitary fossa
diaphragm sellae
109
the ____ ___ is a sheet of dura mater tenting over cerebellum
tentorium cerebelli
110
the tentorium cerebelli attaches to what
ridges of petrous temporal bones
111
the tentorium cerebelli has a central gap to let what pass through
brainstem
112
the ____ ___ is a midline structure made of dura mater that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres
falx cerebri
113
the falx cerebri attaches:
_______ anteriorly
internal aspect of the _____ suture
_____ posteriorly
crista gali of the ethmoid bone anteriorly
internal aspect of the saggital suture
internal occipital protuberance posteriorly
114
the cerebral veins drain venous blood from brain into the ...
dural venous sinuses
115
the ophthalmic veins drain into the ....
cavernous sinus
116
what is found in the midline at the internal occipital protuberance
confluence of venous sinuses
117
____ vein is part of the danger triangle of face
facial
118
what sinus goes through the jugular foramen
sigmoid sinus
119
the right brachiocephalic trunk bifurcates to give
right common carotid
| right vertebral artery
120
the external carotid remains external to the cranial cavity and supplies
neck face scalp
121
the carotid artery becomes internal to cranial cavity via ___ to supply ___
carotid canal
| brain
122
how does the vertebral artery reach the brain
passes through transverse foramina in cervical vertebra then through foramen magnum
123
the left vertebral artery is a branch of what
left subclavian
124
where is the circle of willis
inferior to midbrain
125
the circle of willis is closely related to what 2 things
pituitary stalk and optic chiasm
126
ACA supplies _____ aspect of the cerebral hemispheres
medial
127
MCA supplies ____ aspect of cerebral hemispheres
lateral
128
PCA supplies _____ aspect of cerebral hemispheres including visual cortex
posterior
129
how much CSF circulates daily
400-500 mls
130
what produces the CSF
choroid plexuses of ventribles
131
choroid plexus is modified ___
pia
132
how can you access the CSF
LP at L3/4 L4/5
133
where does the subarachnoid space end
S2
134
CSF flows from the right and Left lateral ventricles within the R and L cerebral hemispheres to the _____ via the ____
3rd ventricle
| via the R and L foraminae of monro
135
where is the 3rd ventricle found
in midline within diencephalon
136
how does CSF flow from the 3rd to 4th ventricle
cerebral aqueduct (connects them in the midline)
137
where is the 4th ventricle found
between cerebellum and pons
138
from the 4th ventricle where does the CSF go
subarachnoid space and central canal
139
what is the name of the absorbative herniations of arachnoid mater protruding into the dural venous sinuses that reabsorb CSF from sub arachnoid space
arachnoid granulations
140
what is hydrocephalus
excessive production, obstruction to flow or inadequate reabsorption of CSF leading to increased CSF volume
141
how can hydrocephalus be treated
ventricular peritoneal shunt
142
what are the 2 main types of cerebral herniation
supratentorial
| infratentorial
143
what are the 4 types of supratentorial herniations
cingulate (subflacine)
central
uncal/transtentorial
transcalvarial
144
what happens in an uncal herniation
uncus of temporal lobe (medial part) herniates inferior to the tentorium cerebelli
145
what are the 2 types of infratentorial herniation
```
upward
downward (tonsillar)
```
146
what happens in a tonsillar herniation
cerebellar tonsils herniate into foramen magnum
147
what are the 3 types of intracranial haemorrhage
extradural
subdural
subarachnoid
148
extradural haemorhage is between what
bone and dura
149
what is a common cause of extradural haemorrhage
ruptured middle meningeal artery due to trauma to pterion
150
subdural haemorrhage is bleeding where
between dura and arachnoid
151
what can cause subdural haemorrhage
torn cerebellar veins commonly with falls in elderly
152
what is a common cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage
ruptured circle of willis due to berry aneurysm or congenital aneurysm
153
what is a stroke
abrupt loss of focal brain function lasting more than 24 hours due to either spontaneous haemorrhage into brain substance or inadequate blood supply to part of brain i.e. ischaemia
154
if there were the following signs where would you think a stroke had occurred:
visual field defects - contralateral hemianopia or quadrantanopia with macular sparing
occipital lobe
155
if there were the following signs where would you think a stroke had occurred:
personality changes
behavioural changes
inability to problem solve
frontal lobe
156
if there were the following signs where would you think a stroke had occurred:
hemispatial neglect
parietal lobe
157
if there were the following signs where would you think a stroke had occurred:
patient cannot recognise sounds
temporal lobe
158
what is the acronym for cerebellar dysfunction
DANISH
- dysdiadokinesis
- ataxia
- nystagmus
- intention tremor
- scanning speech
- hypotonia
159
what is dysdiadokinesis
difficulty carrying out rapid alternating movements
160
all motor neurones of skeletal muscle and autonomic nervous system are ___polar
with cell body in ___
multipolar
| CNS
161
nerves are called ____ in the brain and tend to be ___ modality
tracts
| single
162
what is the location of cell bodies of primary sensory afferents
DRG
163
motor axons pass from the ___ horn
ventral
164
sensory axons pass from the ___ horn
dorsal
165
___ rami form nerve plexuses
anterior
166
sacral plexus
L5 - S4
