Anatomy Practice MCQ Part 1 Flashcards

(154 cards)

1
Q

The most medial part of the Palatine bone is called:

A

Nasal crest

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2
Q

In the posterior cranial fossa, the following sulci are distinguished:

A

Groove of inferior petrous sinus, groove of transverse sinus, groove of sigmoid sinus

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3
Q

The medial wall of pterygopalatine fossa is formed by:

A

The sphenoidal process of palatine bone

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4
Q

What anatomical formation is not the main element of the joints?

A

Articulate cartilage

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5
Q

Which anatomical formation is the feature of a complex joint?

A

Articular disc

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6
Q

In which of the following areas does cerebrospinal fluid circulate?

A

Subarachnoid space

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7
Q

The occipital venous sinus is situated in the basis of the:

A

Falx cerebelli

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8
Q

Which of these nerves innervate the deltoid muscle and provides sensory input from the shoulder?

A

Axillary nerve

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9
Q

Sensory innervation of the dura mater encephali is provided by:

A

Trigeminal nerve, Vagus nerve

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10
Q

At which part of the vertebral column forms kyphosis?

A

Thoracic, Sacral

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11
Q

Which part of the vertebral column usually forms scoliosis?

A

Thoracic

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12
Q

The pyramids are located in the:

A

Medulla

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13
Q

Which anatomical formations are related to the elbow joint (art. cubiti)?

A

Radial collateral ligament, Quadrate ligament, Oblique cord, Anular ligament

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14
Q

According to the shape of the articular surfaces, the humeroulnar joint (art. humeroulnaris) is:

A

Hinge

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15
Q

Proximal and distal radioulnar joints are:

A

Combined, Cylindrical

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16
Q

According to the shape of the articular surfaces, the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb is:

A

Saddle

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17
Q

According to the shape of their articular surfaces, the metacarpophalangeal joints of the hand are:

A

Condyloid

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18
Q

According to the shape of their articular surfaces, interphalangeal joints of the hand are:

A

Hinge

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19
Q

Which anatomical formations are the boundary lines between the greater and the lesser pelvis?

A

Promontorium, Arcuate line, Pubic crest

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20
Q

The interosseous sacro-iliac ligaments attach to the:

A

Iliac tuberosity

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21
Q

Which anatomical formation was generated as a result of the fit of vessels and nerves?

A

Obturator groove

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22
Q

The inferior aperture of the pelvis is bounded by:

A

Lig. sacrotuberale, Ramus ossis ischii, Lig. arcuatum pubis

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23
Q

Which of the following characteristics belong to the ankle joint?

A

It is a synovial joint, It is a hinge joint, In plantar flexion, additional movements are possible, Its main ligaments are located medially and laterally

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24
Q

Which ligament strengthens the longitudinal arch of the foot?

A

Lig. plantare longum, Ligg. tarsometatarsea plantaria

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25
Which definition is the most correct about the subject of human anatomy?
It is a science about an origin, macro and microscopic structure, age features, and functions of the human body
26
Which principles of studying the human body are used in modern anatomy?
Principle of integrity of an organism, Principle of conformity of structure and function, Principle of unity of an organism and environment
27
Which parasympathetic ganglia are situated near the III branches of the trigeminal nerve?
Otic, Submandibular
28
What type of joint affords triaxial movement?
Ball and socket
29
Which of the following functions are functions of bones of the skeleton?
Supporting, Movement, Protection, Exchange of mineral substances, Blood formation
30
Which of the following surrounds the individual muscle cell?
Endomysium
31
Middle meningeal artery is transmitted through:
Foramen spinosum
32
The aortic opening (aortic hiatus) in the human diaphragm transmits:
Aorta, Thoracic duct, Azygos vein
33
Greater vein of Galen is formed by the union of:
Two internal cerebral veins
34
Left testicular vein drains into:
Left renal vein
35
The sternal angle is found at:
Manubriosternal joint
36
Which of the following defines a true rib?
Upper 7 pairs
37
Which of the following is a synovial joint?
Pivot, Gliding, Ball and socket, Condyloid
38
Superior petrosal sinus:
Drains into the transverse sinus
39
The mediastinum contains all the following structures:
Heart, Pulmonary arteries, Trachea, Esophagus
40
Nerve fiber of ganglion ciliare innervate the following structures:
Musculus ciliaris, Musculus sphincter pupillae
41
Anterior cruciate ligament prevents:
Anterior dislocation of tibia
42
Ossification of the parts of the body of the sternum usually is completed by the age:
21
43
The superficial external pudendal artery is a branch of:
Femoral artery
44
Which of these statements correctly describe intercostal muscles?
Innermost intercostals are the best developed of the intercostals
45
Which of these is an angular movement?
Flexion, Abduction, Hyperextension, Extension
46
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the blood vessels of the thoracic wall?
Superficial structures of the thorax are served by intercostal vessels
47
All the following statements concerning the internal thoracic artery are correct, EXCEPT:
It is a branch of the arch of the aorta
48
Produce the fluid that keeps most joints moist:
Synovial membrane
49
Which of the following is an example of a hinge joint?
Elbow, Knee, Interphalangeal, Tibia/talus
50
Which formations are located internally to the capsule of the knee joint?
Lig. Transversum genus, Meniscus medialis, Plicae alares, Lig. Cruciatum anterius, Lig. Cruciatum posterius
51
The following muscles have no attachment to the scapula:
Pectoralis major, Brachialis, Temporalis
52
The opening of the inferior vena cava in the diaphragm is at the level of:
T8
53
The openings in the diaphragm are:
Aortic, Vena caval, Oesophageal
54
Radial bursa encloses the tendon of:
Flexor pollicis longus
55
The triceps brachii muscle:
Extends the arm
56
Lateral boundary of the cubital fossa is formed by:
Brachioradialis
57
The following structures are attached to the greater tubercle of the humerus:
Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres minor
58
The femoral ring is bounded by the following structures:
Femoral vein, Lacunar ligament, Superior ramus of pubis, Inguinal ligament
59
Sartorius muscle originates from:
Anterior superior iliac spine
60
In the lower quarter of the abdominal wall, the aponeurosis of the internal oblique muscle does not split, and all three aponeurotic layers pass anterior to the rectus abdominis. This area is called:
Arcuate line
61
The ligamentum arteriosum is located between the:
Left pulmonary artery and the aortic arch
62
All the following statements concerning pulmonary veins are correct, EXCEPT:
Usually, they enter the right atrium of the heart
63
The following statements characterize the structure of the scapula:
A subscapular fossa on its costal surface, A spine continuing into the acromion, Three angles and three borders, The glenoid cavity at its lateral angle
64
Which of these statements concerning the pericardial sac are correct?
Has two layers, a serous layer and a fibrous layer, Is a double-walled sac containing the heart and the roots of the great vessels, The pericardial sac and its content comprise the middle mediastinum, The pericardial sac is fused to the central tendon of the diaphragm
65
Which of these statements correctly describes the heart?
Its base is made largely of the left atrium and a portion of the right atrium
66
The right atrium includes all these structures, EXCEPT:
Trabeculae carneae
67
Which of these statements correctly describes the azygos venous system?
Primarily, it drains blood from the body wall, It is located entirely on the right side of the vertebral column, It is formed by the union of the ascending lumbar veins with the right subcostal veins
68
Which of these statements correctly describes the thoracic duct?
It returns lymph from the greater part of the body to the venous system, The vessel usually starts from the level of the second lumbar vertebra, It is also known as the left lymphatic duct
69
Which of these statements correctly describes the thoracic vertebrae?
They are distinguished by the presence of facets on the sides of the bodies, Support the weight of the upper body and protect the spinal cord
70
Ribs may be described correctly by all the following, EXCEPT:
Ribs 1 through 12 are called true ribs
71
Which of these statements concerning ribs are correct?
Attach in the posterior to a thoracic vertebra, The first 7 pairs are also called true ribs, Ribs and cartilages increase in length progressively from 1st to 7th rib, The last two (eleventh and twelfth ribs) are termed floating ribs
72
Which of these statements concerning intercostal arteries are correct?
There are eleven posterior intercostal arteries on each side, The lower 9 posterior intercostal arteries arise from the aorta, The anterior intercostal branches from internal thoracic artery, Intercostal arteries run under the shelter of a costal groove, Intercostal arteries may accompany each intercostal nerve
73
Which of the following structures is NOT located in the mediastinum?
Lungs
74
All the following are parts of the parietal pleura, EXCEPT:
Pulmonary pleura
75
Which of the following bones participate to form the radiocarpal joint?
The radius, Os scaphoideum, Lunatum, Triquetrum
76
Each segmental bronchus together with the portion of lung it supplies is called:
Bronchopulmonary segment
77
The pulsation of which artery can be palpated in front of the tragus?
Superficial temporal
78
The tracheal bifurcation can be seen at the level:
T4-T5 in the supine living subject
79
The following structures enter into the right atrium of the heart:
Coronary sinus, Inferior vena cava, Superior vena cava, Anterior cardiac veins
80
Which of these statements concerning the articulations of the ribs with the vertebral column are correct?
Costovertebral articulations consist of synovial joints, The head of the rib articulates with vertebral body, An articular capsule surrounds the joint, The tubercle of a rib articulates with the tip of a transverse process
81
Which of the following nuclei are cranial parts of the parasympathetic nervous system?
Nucleus accessorius, Nucleus dorsalis nervi vagi
82
What nerve is a mixed branch of the cervical plexus?
Phrenic nerve
83
Which of the following statements is true of the trachea?
It ends at the level of the sternal angle
84
The superior vena cava returns blood from these structures:
Head, Neck, Upper limb
85
Which of these statements concerning the brachiocephalic veins are correct?
Each is formed by the union of the internal jugular and the subclavian veins, They are the major veins returning blood to the superior vena cava, They unite to form the superior vena cava, Each vein receives the internal thoracic vein
86
All these structures occupy the superior mediastinum:
Aortic arch, Trachea, Esophagus, Brachiocephalic vein
87
Which of the following statements regarding the coronary arteries is correct?
They arise from the right and left aortic sinuses
88
Which of these statements concerning the Sinoatrial node are correct?
Innervated by the vagus nerve, Also called the impulse-generating (pacemaker) node, Also called the sinus node
89
All the following statements concerning the left ventricle are correct, EXCEPT:
It forms the base of the heart
90
Characteristics of the left atrium consist of all the following, EXCEPT:
It receives the pulmonary arteries
91
What is characteristic of the right ventricle?
It gives origin to the pulmonary trunk
92
What is the impulse-generating node of the heart called?
Also called the sinus node. ## Footnote Innervated by the vagus nerve.
93
Which statement about the left ventricle is incorrect?
It forms the base of the heart.
94
Which statement about the left atrium is incorrect?
It receives the pulmonary arteries.
95
What is characteristic of the right ventricle?
It gives origin to the pulmonary trunk.
96
Which statement correctly describes the chambers of the heart?
The superior vena cava opens into the right atrium.
97
Which statement about the heart is incorrect?
An anterior surface formed mainly by the left atrium.
98
What arteries supply the epicardium?
Coronary arteries.
99
Which statement about the fibrous pericardium is true?
It extends upward to the level of the sternal angle.
100
What is true about lymphatic drainage of the lungs?
No lymph vessels are located in the walls of the pulmonary alveoli.
101
Which artery is the first branch of the celiac trunk?
Left gastric.
102
What are characteristics of the left lung?
The cardiac notch is found.
103
Which nerves supply the central part of the parietal diaphragmatic pleura?
Phrenic.
104
Where can maculae be found?
Saccule, Utricle.
105
Where is the calyx majori present?
Kidney.
106
Which biliary ducts form the common bile duct?
Cystic duct, Common hepatic duct.
107
Where does the pancreatic duct open in the duodenum?
Descending part.
108
Which paranasal sinuses communicate with the middle nasal meatus?
Frontal sinus, Maxillary sinus, Middle cellulae of ethmoid bone.
109
What anatomical formations reside behind the trachea?
Esophagus, Vagus nerve, Truncus sympaticus.
110
What is true about the parotid duct?
Opens at the level of the upper second molar tooth, It pierces the buccinator muscle and passes on the surface of masseter, Is lined by tall columnar epithelium, Opens at vestibulum cavitas oris.
111
Which structure regulates the amount of light passing to the visual receptors of the eye?
Iris.
112
Where is portocaval anastomosis seen?
In the rectum-superior rectal vein and inferior rectal vein, At the umbilicus-paraumbilicalis vein and inferior epigastric vein.
113
The right gastroepiploic artery is a branch of which artery?
Gastroduodenal.
114
What anatomical formations compose the renal crus?
Renal vein, Lymphatic vessels.
115
What is the common term for the Adam's apple?
Thyroid cartilage.
116
Which structures are the smallest in diameter?
Alveolar ducts.
117
What are the parasympathetic ganglia of the head?
Pterygopalatinum, Oticum, Ciliare.
118
Which substances ensure elasticity of bones?
Ossein.
119
What are the characteristics of cervical vertebrae?
Foramen in transverse process, Bifurcated spinous process, Anterior and posterior tubercles on transverse processes.
120
Which nerve carries sensory impulses?
Trigemina.
121
Which thoracic vertebrae have complete costal facets on their bodies?
1st, 11th, 12th.
122
Destruction of which cranial nerve would result in the inability to smile?
VII.
123
Where is the sulcus of the subclavian artery located on the first rib?
Behind tubercle of anterior scalene muscle.
124
Where is the sulcus of the rib located?
Along inferior margin of internal surface.
125
Where is the glenoid cavity of the scapula located?
On the lateral angle of the scapula.
126
What bones form the girdle of the upper limb (shoulder girdle)?
Clavicle, Scapula.
127
Where is the light reflex center located?
Pretectal region.
128
What protuberances are distinguished on the surfaces of the clavicle?
Trapezoid line, Conoid tubercle.
129
What anatomical formations are located on the proximal end of the humerus?
Anatomical neck, Head.
130
What anatomical formations are located on the distal end of the humerus?
Coronoid fossa, Capitulum.
131
Where is the sulcus of the radial nerve on the humerus located?
On posterior surface.
132
Near which epicondyle of the humerus is the sulcus of the ulnar nerve located?
Behind medial epicondyle.
133
What anatomical formations are located on the proximal end of the ulna?
Olecranon, Trochelear notch, Coronoid process.
134
What anatomical formations are located on the distal end of the radius?
Ulnar notch, Styloid process.
135
What bones reside in the proximal row of the wrist?
Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetrum.
136
Which structures pass through the greater sciatic foramen except?
The obturator internus tendon.
137
What are the smallest dimensions of a female pelvis?
Direct measure of outlet of small pelvis.
138
What are the anatomical specificities of a female pelvis?
Interpubic angle is more than 90 degrees, Superior pelvis plane forms with horizontal plane an angle of 55-60 degrees.
139
What dimension of the small pelvis is called the true or gynecological conjugate?
Distance between promontory and the most prominent point of symphysis.
140
What anatomical formations are located on the proximal end of the femur?
Head, Greater trochanter.
141
What anatomical formations are located on the distal end of the femur?
Medial epicondyle, Popliteal surface, Intercondylar fossa.
142
What anatomical formations are located on the proximal end of the tibia?
Medial condyle, Lateral condyle, Intercondylar area, Intercondylar eminence.
143
What anatomical formations are located on the distal end of the tibia?
Medial malleolus, Fibular notch.
144
What bones of the tarsus form its distal row?
Medial cuneiform bone, Navicular bone, Lateral cuneiform bone, Cuboid bone.
145
What does the axon of nucleus salivatorius superior innervate?
Glandula lacrimalis, Glandula submandibularis, Sublingualis.
146
What are the parts of the calcaneus?
Cuboid articular surface, Sulcus of tendon of long peroneal (fibular) muscle, Sustentaculum of talus.
147
What anatomical structures belong to the central part of the vegetative nervous system?
Columna intermediolaterali, Nucleus accessories of III cranial nerve, Nuclei parasympathici sacrales, Nucleus salivatorius superior.
148
Which bones of the cranium have a pneumatic cavity?
Sphenoid bone, Ethmoid bone, Temporal bone.
149
What are the parts of the frontal bone?
Squama, Orbital part, Ethmoid notch, Nasal part.
150
What are the parts of the occipital bone?
Basilar part, Hypoglossal canal, Sulcus of transverse sinus, Squama.
151
What anatomical formations are located on the posterior surface of the pyramid of the temporal bone?
Subarcuate fossa.
152
What canals pass through the pyramid of the temporal bone?
Facial canal, Mastoid canaliculus, Carotid canal.
153
What are the inlet and outlet openings of the tympanic canaliculus?
Hiatus of the canal of the lesser petrosal nerve, Bottom of fossula petrosa.
154
Where does the stapes send its vibrations?
Oval window.