Anatomy - sidebyside Flashcards by Cherry Huang

Define anisocytosis.

varying cell sizes

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Defi ne poikilocytosis

varying cell shapes

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From which cells do B cells

arise?

stem cells in bone marrow

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From which cells do plasma

cells differentiate?

B cells

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How can a Nissl stain be used
to differentiate microglia
from oligodendroglia?

Microglia are not discernable 
in a Nissl stain while 
oligodendroglia appear as 
small dark nuclei with dark 
chromatin

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In what type of CNS tissue
(white or grey) are
oligodendroglia predominant?

white matter

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Into what cell type does a
monocyte differentiate in
tissues?

Macrophages

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Name 2 substances produced

by an eosinophil.

histiminase and arylsulfatase

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Name the three types of

leukocytic granulocytes.

basophils, eosinophils, and

neutrophils

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Name the two types of

mononuclear leukocytes.

lymphocytes and monocytes

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What are 2 functions of T cell

lymphocytes?

cellular immune response -
regulation of B lymphocytes
and macrophages

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What are 2 morphological

features of microglia?

small irregular nuclei - and

relatively little cytoplasm

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What are 3 examples of

peripheral lymphoid tissue?

follicles of lymph nodes -
white pulp of spleen -
unencapsulated lymphoid
tissue

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What are 3 functions of a

macrophage?

- pagocytosis of bacteria, 
cell debris, and senescent red 
cells - scavenges damaged 
cells and tissues - can 
function as an antigen 
presenting cell

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What are 3 morphological

characteristics of monocytes?

Large - Kidney-shaped
nucleus - Extensive ‘frosted
glass’ cytoplasm

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What are 4 characteristics of

the plasma cell morphology?

Off center nucleus - Clock
face chromatin distribution -
Abundant RER - Well
developed Golgi apparatus

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What are 4 morphologic
characteristics of
lymphocytes?

Round - Small - Densely
staining nucleus - Small
amount of pale cytoplasm

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What are 4 substances
contained within the
lysosomes of neutrophils?

hydrolytic enzymes -
lysozyme - myeloperoxidase
lactoferrin

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What are 4 types of cells into

which T cells di! erentiate?

- cytotoxic T cells (MHC I, 
CD8) - helper T cells (MHCII, 
CD4) - suppressor T cells - 
delayed hypersensitivity T 
cells

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What are the 5 important
causes for eosinophilia in
humans?

Neoplastic, Asthma, Allergic
process, Collagen vascular
disease, and Parasites
(pneumonic NAACP)

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What are the blood cell 
di !enentiation names of the 
ACTIVE T CELL line beginning
with the pluripotent 
hematopoietic stem cell? (4)

Pluripotent hematopoietic
stem cell - Lymphoblast - T
cell - Active T cell

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What are the blood cell 
di !erentiation names of the 
ERYTHROCYTE cell line 
beginning with pluripotent 
hematopoietic stem cell? (4)

Pluripotent hematopoietic
stem cell - Proerythroblast -
Reticulocyte - Erythrocyte

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What are the blood cell 
di !erentiation names of the 
MONOCYTE cell lines 
beginning with the 
pluripotent hematopoietic 
stem cell? (3)

Pluripotent hematopoietic
stem cell - Mono blast -
Monocyte

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What are the blood cell 
di !erentiation names of the 
NEUTROPHIL, EOSINOPHIL, 
and BASOPHIL cell lines 
beginning with the 
myeloblast stage? (6)

Myeloblast - Promyelocyte
Myelocyte - Metamyelocyte
Stab cell - Neutrophil,
eosinophil or basophil

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``` What are the blood cell di !erentiation names of the PLASMA CELL line beginning with the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell? (4) ```

- Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell - Lymphoblast - B cell - Plasma cell

``` What are the blood cell di !erentiation names of the PLATELET CELL line beginning with the hematopoietic stem cell? (4) ```

- Pluripotento hematopoietic stem cell - Megakaryoblast - Megakaryocyte - Platelets

What are the components of | the air-blood barrier?

- Type I pneumocyte - tight | junction - endothelial cell

What are the steps of maturation of a B cell? (2 points)

- maturation in the marrow - migration to peripheral lymphoid tissue

What are the substances contained within the densly basophilic granules of the basophil? (4)

``` - Heparin (anticoagulant) - histamine (vasodilator) - vasoactive amines - Slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis ```

What are two basic morphological characteristics of neutrophils?

- multilobed nucleus - large, spherical azurophilic primary granules (lysosomes)

What are two important | functions of a neutrophil?

- acute infl ammmatory response of a cell - phagocytosis

What are two names for an increased number of red cells?

Erythrocytosis and | polycythemia

What cell type closely | resembles a mast cell?

basophil

What cranial nerves are commonly involved in an acoustic neuroma?

CN VII, VIII (association with | internal acoustic meatus)

What disease is characterized by destruction of oligodendroglia?

Multiple sclerosis

What does CD stand for?

cluster of di ! Erentiation

What drug prevents mast cell | degranulation?

What immunoglobulin can bind to the membrane of a mast cell?

IgE

What is a reticulocyte?

What is an important example | of a Schwannoma?

Acoustic neuroma

What is another name for | pulmonary sufractant?

DPPC | dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine

What is percentage of leukocytes in the blood exist as basophils?

less than 1%

What is the 'gap' between the myelination segment of 2 Schwann cells called?

Node of Ranvier

What is the advantage of the large surface area:volume ratio in erythrocytes?

easy gas exchange (Oxygen | and Carbon dioxide)

What is the basic morphologic | structure of an erythrocyte?

Anucleate, biconcave

What is the basic morphology | of an eosinophil? (2 things)

- bilobate nucleus - packed with large eosinophilic granules of uniform size

What is the embryologic | origin of microglia?

mesoderm

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kiss my dear bear~

What is the function of Interferon gamma with relation to macrophages?

macrophage activation

What is the function of | microglia?

phagocytosis in CNS

What is the function of | oligodendroglia?

myelination of multiple CNS | axons

What is the function of | pulmonary surfactant?

lowers alveolar surface tension and prevents atelectasis

What is the function of | Schwann cells?

myelination of PNS (a Schwann cell myelinates only one PNS axon)

What is the importance of the | lecithin:sphingomyelin ratio?

> 2.0 in fetal lung is indicative of fetal lung maturity

What is the importance of the physiologic chloride shift in erythrocytes?

``` Membranes contain the chloride bicarbonate antiport allowing the RBC to transport carbon dioxide from the the lung periphery for elimination. ```

What is the last segment of lung tissue in which ciliated cells are found?

respiratory bronchioles

What is the last segment of lung tissue in which goblet cells are found?

``` terminal broncioles (remember ciliated cells sweep away mucous produced by goblet cells and therefore run deeper) ```

What is the primary function | of a basophil?

Mediates allergic reactions

What is the primary function | of a leukocyte?

Defense against infections

What is the primary function | of a mast cell?

Mediates allergic reactions

What is the primary function | of a plasma cell?

production of large amounts of a specific antibody to a particular antigen

What is the primary source of | energy for erythrocytes?

glucose (90% anaerobically degraded to lactate, 10% by HMP shunt)

What is the process of | degranulation in mast cells?

release of histamine, heparin, and eosinophil chemotactic factors

What is the range of concentration for leukocytes in the blood?

4,000 - 10,000 cells per | microliter

What is the response of an eosiniphil to antigen antibody complexes?

high degree of phagocytosis

What is the response of | microglia to tissue dammage?

transformation into large | ameboid phagocytic cells

What is the response to | microglia infected with HIV?

fusion to form multinucleated | giant cells in CNS

What is the survival time for | an erythrocyte?

120 days

What pathognomonic change is seen in neutrophils of a person who is folate/vitamin B12 defi cient?

hypersegmented polys

1 - 6%

What percentage of leukocytes exist as neutrophils in the blood?

40 - 75%

What percentage of leukocytes in blood are monocytes?

2 - 10%

What process occurs when type I pneumocytes are damaged?

Type II pneumocytes develop | into type I

``` What substance in eosinophilic granules is primarily responsible for defense against helminths and protozoan infections? ```

major basic protein

Where is the site of | maturation of T lymphocytes?

Thymus

Which cell type constituitively secretes pulmonary surfactant?

Type II pneumocyte

Which cell type lines the | alveoli?

Type I pneumocyte

Which leukemia is the result | of plasma cell neoplasm?

Multiple myeloma

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is a mast cell involved in?

Type I hypersensitivity | reaction

Which type of immunity do B | cells exhibit?

humoral immunity

After arising from the floor of the primitive pharynx, where does the thryoid diverticulum go?

It descends down into the | neck

After the first breath at birth, what causes closure of the ductus arteriosus?

An increase in oxygen

After the first breath at birth, what causes the closure of the foramen ovale?

A decrease resistance in pulmonary vasculature causes increased left atrial pressure vs. right atrial pressure

Although the diaphragm descends during development, it maintains innervation from ____?

C3-C5

An easy pneumonic to remember fetal erythropoiesis is?

Young Liver Synthesizes | Blood

At what time in the course of development is the fetus most susceptible to teratogens?

Weeks 3-8

``` Deoxygenated blood from the SVC is expelled into the pulmonary artery and ____ ____ to the lower body of the fetus. ```

ductus arteriosus

Do the cardiovascular structures arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Mesoderm

Do the chroma" n cells of the adrenal medulla arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Do the enterochroma" n cells arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

``` Do the lungs arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm? ```

Endoderm

``` Do the lymphatics arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm? ```

Mesoderm

Do the melanocytes arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Do the neural crest cells arise from mesoderm, ectoderm, or endoderm?

Ectoderm

Do the odontoblasts arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Do the parafollicular (C) cells of the thyroid arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Do the Schwann cells arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Do the urogenital structures arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Mesoderm

Does blood arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Mesoderm

Does bone arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Mesoderm

``` Does muscle arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm? ```

Mesoderm

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``` Does the thyroid arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm? ```

Endoderm

Does the adrenal cortex arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Mesoderm

``` Does the ANS arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm? ```

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Does the celiac ganglion arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Does the dorsal root ganglion arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Does the dura connective tissue arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Mesoderm

Does the gut tube epithelium arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Endoderm

``` Does the liver arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm? ```

Endoderm

``` Does the pancreas arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm? ```

Endoderm

Does the parathyroid arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Endoderm

``` Does the pia arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm? ```

Neural Crest (Ectoderm)

Does the serous linings of body cavities arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?

Mesoderm

``` Does the spleen arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm? ```

Mesoderm

``` Does the thymus arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm? ```

Endoderm

From what does the ligamentum teres hepatis arise?

Umbilical vein

How does a bicornate uterus | form?

Results from incomplete fusion of the paramesonephric ducts

How does a cleft lip form?

Failure of fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal processes

How does a cleft palate form?

Failure of fusion of the lateral palatine processes, the nasal septum, and/or the median palatine process

How does a horseshoe kidney | form?

``` Inferior poles of both kidneys fuse, as they ascend from the pelvis during development they get trapped under the inferior mesenteric artery, and remain low in the abdomen ```

How is meckel's diverticulum di !erent than an omphalomesenteric cyst?

Omphalomesenteric cyst is a cystic dilatation of the vitelline duct

How long does full development of spermatogenesis take?

2 months

How many arteries and veins does the umbilical cord contain?

—2 umbilical arteries (carries deoxygenated blood away from fetus) - 1 umbilical vein (oxygenated blood to fetus)

Is a primary spermatocyte 2N | or 4N?

Is a primary spermatocyte | haploid or diploid?

Diploid, 4N

Is a secondary spermatocyte | haploid or diploid?

Haploid, 2N

Is a secondary spermatocyte | N or 2N?

Is a speratogonium haploid or | diploid?

Diploid, 2N

Is a spermatid haploid or | diploid?

Haploid, N

Meiosis I is arrested in which | phase until ovulation?

Prophase

Meiosis II is arrested in which | phase until fertilization?

Metaphase (an egg MET a | sperm)

``` Most oxygenated blood reaching the heart via IVC is diverted through the ____ ____ and pumped out the aorta to the head. ```

foramen ovale

The right common cardinal vein and right anterior cardinal vein give rise to what adult heart structure?

Superior vena cava

The stapedius muscle of the ear is formed by which branchial arch?

2nd

``` This type of bone formation consists of ossification of cartilaginous molds and forms long bones at primary and secondary centers. ```

Endochondral

True or False, blood in the umbilical vein is 100% saturated with oxygen?

False, it is 80% saturated

True or False, there are two | types of spermatogonia?

True, type A & type B

What are the 1st branchial arch derivatives innervated by?

CN V2 and V3

What are the 2nd branchial arch derivatives innervated by?

CN VII

What are the 3rd branchial arch derivatives innervated by?

CN IX

What are the 4th and 6th branchial arch derivatives innervated by?

CN X

What are the cartilage derivatives (5) of the 4th and 6th branchial arches?

— Thyroid - Cricoid - Arytenoids - Corniculate - Cuneiform

What are the five 2's associated with meckel's diverticulum?

``` — 2 inches long - 2 feet from the ileocecal valve - 2% of the population - Commonly presents in the first 2 years of life - May have 2 types of epithelia ```

What are the rule of 2's for the 2nd week of development?

``` — 2 germ layers: epiblast & hypoblast - 2 cavities: amniotic cavity & yolk sac - 2 components to the placenta: cytotrophoblast & syncytiotrophoblast ```

What are the rule of 3's for | the 3rd week of development?

3 germ layers (gastrula): ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm

What can a persistent cervical | sinus lead to?

A branchial cyst in the neck

What can be found in the | cortex of the thymus?

It is dense with immature T | cells

What can be found in the | medulla of the thymus?

It is pale with mature T cells, epithelial reticular cells, and Hassall's corpuscles

What connects the thyroid | diverticulum to the tongue?

The thyroglossal duct

What devlopmental contributions does the 5th branchial arch make?

None

``` What do the 2nd - 4th branchial clefts form, which are obliterated by proliferation of the 2nd arch mesenchyme? ```

Temporary cervical sinuses

What does aberrant development of the 3rd and 4th pouches cause?

DiGeorge's syndrome

What does the 1st aortic arch | give rise to?

Part of the maxillary artery

What does the 2nd pharyngeal pouch develop into?

Epithelial lining of the | palantine tonsils

What does the 3rd aortic arch | give rise to?

Common carotid artery and proximal part of the internal carotid artery

What does the 4th pharyngeal | pouch develop into?

Superior parathyroids

What does the 5th aortic arch | give rise to?

Nothing

What does the 5th pharyngeal | pouch develop into?

C cells of the thyroid

What does the 6th aortic arch | give rise to?

The proximal part of the pulmonary arteries and (on left only) ductus arteriosus

What does the ductus | arteriosus give rise to?

Ligamentum arteriosum

What does the ductus venosus shunt blood away from?

Liver

What does the fi rst branchial | cleft develop into?

The external auditory meatus

What does the foramen ovale | give rise to?

Fossa ovalis

What does the left 4th aortic | arch give rise to?

Aortic arch

What does the ligamentum | venosum come from?

Ductus venosus

What does the notochord give | rise to?

Nucleus Pulposus

What does the primitive atria | give rise to?

Trabeculated left and right | atrium

What does the primitive | ventricle give rise to?

Trabeculated parts of the left | and right ventricle

What does the right 4th aortic | arch give rise to?

Proximal part of the right | subclavian artery

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Hug hug~

What does the right horn of the sinus venosus give rise to?

Smooth part of the right | atrium

What does the spleen arise | from?

Dorsal mesentery, but is supplied by the artery of the foregut

What does the thymus arise | from?

Epithelium of the 3rd | branchial pouch

What does the thyroid | diverticulum arise from?

The fl oor of the primitive | pharynx

What does the truncus | arteriosus give rise to?

The ascending aorta and | pulmonary trunk

What does the umbilical | arteries give rise to?

Medial umbilical ligaments

What ear muscle does the 1st | branchial arch form?

Tensor tympani

What effect does 13-cis- retinoic acid have on the fetus?

Extremely high risk for birth | defects

What effect does ACE | inhibitors have on the fetus?

Renal Damage

What effect does iodide have | on the fetus?

Congenital goiter or | hypothyroidism

What effect does warfarin and | x-rays have on the fetus?

Multiple anomalies

What effects does cocaine | have on the fetus?

Abnormal fetal development | and fetal addiction

What embryonic structure are the smooth parts of the left and right ventricle derived from?

Bulbus cordis

What embryonic structure does the coronary sinus come from?

Left horn of the sinus | venosus

What embryonic structure does the median umbilical ligament come from?

Allantois (urachus)

What fetal landmark has developed within week 2 of fertilization?

Bilaminar disk

What fetal landmark has occurred within week 1 of fertilization?

Implantation

What fetal landmark has occurred within week 3 of fertilization?

Gastrulation

What fetal landmarks (2) have developed within week 3 of fertilization?

Primitive streak and neural | plate begin to form

What five things arise from | neuroectoderm?

— Neurohypophysis - CNS neurons - Oligodendrocytes - Astrocytes - Pineal gland

What four structures make up | the diaphragm?

— Septum transversum - pleuroperitoneal folds - body wall - dorsal mesentery of esophagus

What four things arise from | surface ectoderm?

— Adenohypophysis - Lens of eye - Epithelial linings - Epidermis

What four things does Meckel's cartilage (from the 1st arch) develop into?

— Mandible - Malleus - Incus | - Sphenomandibular ligament

What four things does Reichert's cartilage (from the 2nd arch) develop into?

— Stapes - Styloid process - Lesser horn of hyoid - Stylohyoid ligament

What four things does the dorsal pancreatic bud become?

Body, tail, isthmus, and | accessory pancreatic duct

What four things does the mesonephric (wol"an) duct develop into?

— Seminal vesicles - Epididymis - Ejaculatory duct - Ductus deferens

What induces the ectoderm to form the neuroectoderm (neural plate)?

Notochord

What is a hiatal hernia?

Abdominal contents herniate into the thorax due to incomplete development of the diaphragm

What is a hypospadias?

Abnormal opening of penile urethra on inferior side of penis due to failure of urethral folds to close

Anatomy - sidebyside Flashcards

(200 cards)