ancillary anesthesia drugs Flashcards

(37 cards)

1
Q

which drugs used for sedation? when do you use them?

2 diff classes here.

1 class = 3 drugs

other class = 2 drugs

A

benzos: diazepam and lorazepam

1st gen-antihistamines: hydroxyzine, diphenylhradmine, promethazine

use for amnesci and calming effect (used night before for anxiolysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what do you use for analgesia?what ADEs do they have?

A

morphine and codeine (but they have ADEs for ortho HypoTN, constipation, N/V, respiratory depression/coma)

NSAIDs(ketorolac and ibuprofen but worry about post-sx bleeding and fracture healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what do you use for aspiration pneumonitis?(2 drugs here)

A

neutralize acid w/H2 blockers: cimetidine and ranitdine = prevent new acid but you stilll have old contents in theree.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which two antacids are used in the context of aspiration penumonitis?

A

bicitra and polycitra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what do you use for prophylaxis to allergic rxn?

A

cimetidine and diphenhydramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

why do you use anticholinergics in anesthesia

A

to dry secretions, prevent reflex bradycardia, also sedate/amnesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which three anticholinergics do you use?

A

atropine (bradycardia here)

glycopyrrolate(decreased secretions)

scopolamine( sedation/amnesia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which drugs used in rapid sequence intubation?(4 FLAV)

A

lidocaine(for increased ICP and brochospasm)

fentanyl (for increased ICP,bleeding, CV dz)

vecuronium(decrease ICP increse caused by succinlycholine)

atropine (decrease bardy Cardia caused by succinlycholine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which drugs used to hyopTN/what do you do for hypo tN?

A

GIVE fluids

give dopamine and phenylephrine or ephedrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

all the drugs used in aspiration pneumonitis

5

2H2s

2antacadis

D2 central antagonist aslo used for emesis prevention in migraines

A

cimetidine

ranitidine

bicitra

polycitra

metoclopramide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

drugs used for N/V (3)

A

ondasestron

scopolamine

metoclopramide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

drugs used for CV support (3)

A

dopamine

phenylephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

4 drugs used in anaphylaxis prevention (HAME)

A

epinephrine

aminophylline

hydrocortisone

methylprednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

an anti-dopamine/cholinergic/histaminergic drug used to mitigate anxiety?

A

promethazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

2 1st gen anti histamines used to reduce anxiety with effects of bronchodilation, sedative, anxiolytic and analgesic?

A

hydroxyzine and diphenhydramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are 3 major differences btw H1 and H2 antagonists?

H1 antagonist: diphenyhydramine, promezathine, hydroxyzine

H2 antagonist: cimetidine and ranitidine

A

H1 antagonists have following action: sedative, cholinergic antagonism and anti-emetic effect

17
Q

t/f. cimetidine has slight sedative action

18
Q

3 major problems of opiate receptor agonists

ONE = OD triad

A
  1. orthostatic hyoptension, epigastric distress, antidiarrheal, and increased sphincter tone
  2. N/V via chemoreceptor trigger(dopamine antagonism) + delay of GI transit + increased GI secretion
  3. respiratory depressant + coma-inducing+miosis (OD triad)
19
Q

why are H2 receptor antagonists (cimetidine and ranititdine) use in the prophophylaxis against respiration pneumonitis?

what are their ADEs(3)?

A
  1. fewer CNS effects and they lower the gastric pH
  2. ADE: headache, confusion, seizures, agitation in old pp?
20
Q

why do pts receive bicitra and polycitra

A

b/c H2 antagonsists do not neutralize existsing stoamch contents or prevent gastric emptying

21
Q

which agent used to stimulate gastric emptying?

A

metoclopramide

NOTE: antagonized by anticholinergics and narcotics.

central effects dopamine antagonism: sedation and lowers seizure threshold.

22
Q

how much water needed to stimlate gastric stretch receptors to initate the process of natural stomach emptying?

23
Q

which inhaled ansethetic is especially pro-emetic

A

nitrous oxide

24
Q

atropine - strongest effect

A

_anticholinergic _strongest: vagolytic - 3+; antisialoggoue effect; no sedation or amnesia

25
scopalamine - MOA
**_anticholinergic:_** strongest effect: **_3+ sedation and amnesia_**; 2+ for antisialogogue; 1+ vagolytic
26
glycopyrrolate MOA
**_antichiolinergic = MOA - 3+ ANTI-sialogogue effec_**t; 2+ vagolytic; 0 sedation and amnesia
27
why use anticholinergics in pre-op? 3 reasosn
1. tx of reflex bradycardia 2. blcok muscuraic efffects of anti-cholinesterases 3. drying of secretions
28
rapid sequence intubation: which drug described: what: **_decreased intracranial and brochospasitc reponse_** in increased ICP or penetrating injury, reactive airway disease
lidocaine
29
RSI what: decreased sympathetic responses to laryngoscopy/intubation when: increased ICP, hemorrhage, cardiovascualr disease
fentanyl
30
RSI what: mitigates bradycardia in response to succinlycholine in chidren under10 yrs
atropine
31
what: defaciculates and mitigates ICP response to succinlycholne in increased intracranial pressure of penetrating injury
vecuroniu
32
note sequence of rapid sequence intubation : IV push of sedative --\> succinycholine(neuromuscular blockade)
33
which IV anesthetic agent has antiemetic qualities?
propofol
34
after how many drugs does the risk of polypharmacy increase dramatically?
10
35
bone cement and radio contrast dye are well known causative agents of what?
anaphylacxis in anesthesia
36
what are the 4 components of INITIAL anaphylaxis management?
1. strop drug admin, discontinue anesthetisa 2. give O2 3. give Epinephrine 4. intravascular volume expansion
37
drugs used in the prophylaxis of allergic reaction
cimetidine and diphenydramine (they prevent consequences fo the reaction, but do not prevent it from occuring)