Anemias part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What does a CBC include

A

RBC count
Hgb/Hct (aka H&H)
Red cell indices
Reticulocytes (immature RBCs)
WBC count (with or without differential)
Platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is Hgb

A

Hemoglobin - measure of total amount of hemoglobin in the peripheral blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is hemoglobin

A

oxygen carrying proteins
often a proxy for RBC amount/function
falsely reduced by dilution and vice versa
elevated in environments/conditions producing hypoxia (high altitudes, smokers, COPD,etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is Hct

A

Hematocrit - measure of total blood volume made up of RBCs
expressed as a percentage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the RBC indices

A

look at specific properties of RBCs (size, shape, Hgb, ect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is included in the RBC indices

A

mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
mean corpuscular hemoglobin(MCH)
mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)
Red cell distribution width (RDW) - how many different sizes are there? Range of sizes?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are reticulocytes

A

total number of immature RBCs - used as a proxy for bone marrow function
RBC spit out their nucleus and RNA during maturation - reticulocytes haven’t spit out their RNA yet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the types of leukocytes

A

neutrophils
lymphocytes
monocytes
eosinophils
basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are common causes of increased WBC

A

infection, trauma, malignancy, leukemias, tissue necrosis
WBC are an acute phase reactant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is a CBC with diff used for

A

to identify underlying cause of leukocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are neutrophils

A

primarily for phagocytosis, indication of bacterial infections aka PMNs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the presence of immature neutrophils

A

“left shift”
gives indication that BM is pumping out WBCs before they are fully developed in response to some threat (real or perceived)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are lymphocytes

A

T and B cells, responsible for antigenic immune response; chronic bacterial and viral infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are monocytes

A

similar function as PMNs, but are present longer in the blood
phagocytosis of bacterial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are basophils and eosinophils

A

involved in allergic response (histamine) - also respond to parasitic infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is a platelet count sort of a proxy for

A

clotting function but sometimes even with normal number of platelets they can be dysfunctional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when can platelet levels be reduced

A

consumption (used up in clotting)
reduced production by BM
sequestration in the spleen
destruction (drugs, autoimmune, infections)
hemorrhage
dilution (blood replacement with platelet-poor fluids)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is a normal absolute count of neutrophils

A

2500-8000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the normal absolute count of lymphocytes

A

1000 - 4000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the normal absolute count of monocytes

A

100-700

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the normal absolute count of Eosinophils

A

50-500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the normal absolute count of basophils

A

20-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are signs of anemia

A

DOE (dyspnea on exertion)
Fatigue
bounding pulses
palpitations
muscle cramps
postural dizziness
syncope
headache
jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are history clues that may lead to anemia diagnosis

A

abdominal pain
melena - old/dark blood in stool
Pica - eating ice/dirt/cigarette butts
Menorrhagia - heavy period
NSAID/ASA use
pregnancy
hematochezia - bright red blood in stool
hematoemesis - blood in vomit
history of gastric bypass
+ FH of RBC disorder
history of ETOH abuse
dysphagia
malnutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
how is anemia diagnosed
low number of circulating RBCs low Hgb, low Hct or low absolute number of RBCs
26
what is the classification of anemia by Hgb status
mild: anything 10.0+ Moderate = 7.0-9.9 Severe = <7.0
27
how does elevated MCV present
RBCs larger than normal (aka macrocytic)
28
how does decreased MCV present
RBCs smaller than normal aka microcytiic
29
how does elevated MHC present
more Hgb per cell than normal (also hyperchromic) - darker
30
how does decreased/low MCH present
hypochromia (paler)
31
What is MCHC
mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration average Hgb concentration per RBC percentage of RBC volume that is Hbg
32
what is the formula MCHC
MCHC = Hgb/Hct
33
what is anisocytosis
large variety of cell sizes; large, normal and smaller RBCs present elevated RDW
34
what is Poikilocytosis
abnormally shaped RBCs
35
what is a peripheral smear
microscopic examination tells us RBC color, shape, size, overall structure
36
how does a peripheral smear present with a B12 or folate deficiency
megaloblastic process Macro-ovalocytes - 'big' and 'oval'
37
what are schistocytes/helmet cells
fragmented RBCs intravascular destruction (DIC, TTP, etc)
38
what is hyperchromia
loss of central pallor, spherocytes hereditary spherocytosis (circular and darker in color)
39
what is hypochromia
not enough hemoglobin, thalassemia, iron deficiency, sideroblastic
40
what are target cells
relative 'membrane excess'; abnormal surface-to-volume ratio liver disease, thalassemias
41
what are spiculated cells
liver disease, uremia disorganization in cell membrane (lipids, proteins) AKA echinocytes: Spiny
42
what are Burr cells assicated with
uremia
43
what is acanthocytes associated with
liver disease
44
what are Howell - Jolly Bodies
nuclear remnants asplenia or hyposplenia (sickle cell) seen on wright -giemsa stain
45
what are Heinz Bodies
denatured hemoglobin 'inclusion bodies seen with crystal violet dye)
46
what are basophilic stippling
percipitation of ribosomes *lead/heavy metal poisioning, thalaseemias, ETOH abuse
47
What are the Microcytic anemias
TIC Thalassemias Iron deficiency Chronic disease Siderobloastic
48
What are thalassemias
group of hereditary anemias (autosomal recessive) - one of the most common autosomal recessive in the world absent or defective synthesis of adult hemoglobin (alpha and beta chains) results in RBC destruction in bone marrow or intravascular hemolysis due to damaged red cell membranes
49
Where are thalassemias often seen/attributed with
historically regional: sub-saharan africa, mediterranean, middle east, india, southeast asia/china, central asia conferred protection from malaria
50
What is Hemoglobin H
4 beta chains error in alpha chains - clumping of beta chains
51
what is hemoglobin Barts
4 gamma chains error in alpha chains early in life means more gamma chains ; not compatible with life
52
what is Hemoglobin S
sickle; 2 alpha, 2 mutated beta
53
what is Hemoglobin C
2 alpha, 2 differently mutated beta
54
What are the different types of Thalassemias
Alpha (major and minor) Beta (major and minor) Hgb Barts
55
what are alpha thalassemias
more common in AA, southeast asians or Chinese descent most likely dx in pts <6months of age gene deletion or mutation
56
what is the presentation of alpha thalassemias
often found on incidental screening: - maternal/paternal screening - newborn screenings -part of adult physical screening
57
when and who do we see beta thalaseemia in
more common in AA and mediterranean pts most likely diagnosed about 6+ months of age -fetal Hgb (HbF) being replaced by adult Hgb
58
what is the presentation of beta thalassemia
asymptomatic (beta thalassemia minor) beta thalassemia intermedia - mildly symptomatic, mild anemia, occasional transfusions beta thalassemia major - severe anemia, transfusion
59
what are the clinical symptoms of thalassemia
fatigue dizziness dyspnea tachycardia HA Leg cramps difficult concerntration pallor/jaundice ulcerations arrhythmias heart failure splenomegaly immunocompromise cholelithiasis cirrosis or chronic liver failure slow growth rate delayed puberty
60
what are the clinical bone presentation of thalassemias
bone expansion bone fragility and pathologic fractures iron in the joints - arthropathies
61
what are shown on thalassemia labs
modest reduction in HCT - mild anemia significantly reduced MCV - small RBC (microcytic) normal RBC # normal RDW Normal iron studies peripheral smear results: hypochromia, microcytosis, target cells, acanthocytes (spur cells)
62
what is the definitive diagnosis test for thalassemia
hemoglobin analysis (electrophoresis, genotypic, HPLC)
63
what is the treatment for mild thalassemia
asymptomatic do not need treatment do not give iron - it can be damaging
64
what are the treatment options for thalassemia
folic acid supplementation avoid oxidative drugs TRANSFUSIONS IRON CHELATION THERAPY +/- splenectomy BMT in severe cases
65
What is the number one cause of anemia worldwide
iron deficiency anemia
66
what are the main causes of iron deficiency anemia
blood loss (most common): GI bleeding (usually occult), NSAID induced, menorrhagia, malabsorption Inadequate dietary intake: more likely in peds and females
67
what is the spectrum of iron deficiency
iron depletion (no stored iron) iron deficient erythropoiesis (no storage and transport and functional iron being used) iron deficiency anemia (no storage and transport and functional iron being used)
68
what are the general anemia complaints
Pica, brittle nails, spoon shaped nails, cheilosis, smooth tongue, esophageal webs
69
how does iron deficiency anemia present on peripheral smear
hypochromia, microcytic cells, target cells, nucleated red cells
70
what iron studies confirm iron deficiency anemia
serum ferritin serum iron serum transferrin aka total iron binding capacity (TIBC) transferrin saturation (Tsat)
71
what is the treatment for menstruating females with AUB with iron deficiency anemia
emperic treatment
72
What needs to be done prior to beginning treatment for iron deficiency anemia
search for the source of the anemia (usually source of bleeding)
73
what are the treatment options for iron deficiency anemia
empiric iron treatment OR no evidence of non-dietary cause 120-200mg ELEMENTAL iron per day over 2-3 doses typically ferrous sulfate 325mg PO TID, titrate up
74
what are the Adverse effects of Ferrous sulfate
constipation, black stools, GI upset
75
what should the result of iron deficiency anemia treatment be
Hgb increases 1mg/dL over 1 month continue for minimum of 3 months most sources recommend continuing for 6-12 months will take several months for labs to normalize and stores to replenish
76
what are dietary iron sources
heme iron comes from animal food source - beef, lamb, pork, poultry, eggs, fish non-heme iron comes from plant based foods - fruits, nuts, vegetables, grains, legumes cast iron cookware increases dietary iron
77
what vitamin improves the absorption of iron
vitamin C
78
what is another name for anemia of chronic disease
anemia of inflammation
79
what is anemia of chronic disease
many etiologies - dependent on underling disease state chronic inflammation - iron use ineffective, iron absorption impaired, decreased responsiveness to erythropoietin (Epo) organ failure - decreased EPO production any active malignancy older adults - reduced sensitivity to EPO, reduced EPO production, chronic inflam impaired marrow function
80
what is often co-occurring with anemia of chronic disease
iron or folate deficiency - worsens anemia blood loss of hemolysis - also worsens anemia
81
what is EPO
erythropoietin
82
what is the lab presentation of anemia of chronic disease
variable often mild-moderate anemia (Hgb >8) normochronic, normocytic OR hypochromic, microcytic normal or increased iron stores normal or decreased TIBC, serum iron peripheral smear is normal
83
what is the treatment of anemia of chronic disease
treat underlying cause/disease process correct complicating factors (blood loss, folate deficiency, iron deficiency) IV iron supplementation if warranted EPO administration = must be Hgb <10, attempt to avoid transfusion Transfusion - failure of other treatment - ongoing blood loss
84
what is the etiology of aplastic anemia
aka 'bone marrow failure' - anemia PLUS reduction in all other cell lines (pancytopenia) more prevalent in asian and middle eastern populations peak incidence: bimodal (15-25 and 65-69)
85
what are the causes of aplastic anemia
idiopathic SLE Chemotherapy Radiation Toxins Drug induced Hereditary
86
what is the presentation of aplastic anemia
often symptoms/consequences in reduction of other cell lines increase incidence of infections purpura/petechiae and abnormal bruising abnormal bleeding anemia symptoms: weakness, fatigue, pallor
87
what is diagnostic of aplastic anemia
pancytopenia - low hemoglobin - low absolute reticulocyte - low neutrophil count - low platelet counts
88
what does a biopsy show for aplastic anemia
hypocellular marrow with fatty infiltration +/- abnormal or malignant cells or fibrosis
89
what are the treatment options for aplastic anemia
d/c any potential inciting agents if mild = supportive care - RBC and platelet transfusions - treatment of infections if severe and younger than 40 with compatible sibling donor - BMT from sibling donor if sever and >40 OR <40 with no compatible sibling donor - immunosuppression
90
what is the prognosis of aplastic anemia
in severe: median survival of 3 month without treatment - 20% survive 1 year in young adults (<20) with related BMT - 80-90% complete response rate with pharmacologic treatment about 90% get partial response patients treated without BMT are at increased risk for other marrow disorders
91
what is sideroblastic anemia
rare in practice impaired heme synthesis - iron accumulation
92
what causes sideroblastic anemia
myelodysplasia chronic alcoholism hereditary copper/B6 deficiencies drug induced LEAD POISONING UNTIL PROVEN OTHERWISE
93
what are the labs for sideroblastic anemia
normal or hypochromic cells on peripheral smear basophilic stippling is likely lead poisoning
94
how is sideroblastic anemia definitively diagnosed
bone marrow eval - "ringed sideroblasts on Prussian blue staining"
95
what is the treatment of sideroblastic anemia
treat underlying cause transfusion PRN, ban be lead to iron overload
96
What are the normocytic anemias
ABCD Acute blood loss Bone marrow failure Chronic disease Destruction (hemolysis)
97
acute blood loss anemia
pts will be bleeding obvious of occult GI tract most common site of occult bleeds - if you have a pt >50 yo with unexplained or new anemia YOU MUST RULE OUT COLON CANCER
98
what is the treatment of acute blood loss anemia
stop the bleeding replace the blood
99
what is hemolytic anemias
episodic or continuous RBC destruction classified by intrinsic or extrinsic cuases characterized by elevated reticulocyte count with stable or falling Hgb/Hct
100
what are intrinsic causes
problem is with the RBC
101
what are extrinsic causes
problem outside of the RBC (often autoimmune)
102
what are the lab values for hemolytic anemias
peripheral smear consistent with compensation for increased RBC loss. - blasts, nucleated red vells, various morphologic changes elevated unconjugated bilirubin +/- serum LDH Low Haptoglobin Coombs test - checking for agglutination
103
what does a + Coombs test mean
autoimmune hemolytic anemia
104
What is hereditary spherocytosis
most common genetic hemolytic disease autosomal dominant also likely many undiagnosed RBC membrane defect with results in RBC shape changing from concave to spherical - less malleable, get stuck more often, decreased survival
105
what is the presentation of hereditary spherocytosis
most patients asymptomatic may or may not be associated with anemia peripheral smear: microcytosis, spherocytes - loss of central pallor
106
what is the treatment of hereditary spherocytosis
blood transfusions chronic folic acid supplementation to sustain erythropoesis treatment of choice = splenectomy
107
what is the etiology of G6PD deficiency
glucose - 6 - phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency herediatary, x-linked recessive disorder (M>F) primarily a single amino acid substitution more common in AA, mediterranean and ashkenazi jewish pts (aka Favism)
108
what is G6PD deficiency
related to deficiency in the G6P enzyme important in glulconeogenesis/glycolysis also acts as natural antioxidant deficiency results in episodic hemolytic anemia stress caused by: infection, certain foods (fava beans) certain medications
109
what is the presentation of G6PD
most are asymptomatic episodic symptoms related to triggers: -pallor -jaundice -bilirubinuria - fever -weakness, dizziness, confusion -fatigue -dyspnea -splenomegaly and/or hepatomegaly -tachycardia, heart murmur
110
what is the lab presentation of G6PD
denatured hgb precipitates out - heinz bodies also see 'bite' cells and 'blister cells'
111
what is the definitive diagnosis of G6PD
enzyme assay - reduced levels of G6PD
112
what is the treatment of G6PD
avoid certain foods, meds, environmental exposures Hemolytic episodes self limited with production of new RBCs
113
what is the etiology of sickle cell anemia
inherited anemia - autosomal recessive RBCs with Hgb S SICKLE UNDER STRESS most common in AA pts symptoms start around 6 months of age - Hgb F levels declining
114
what is the presentation of sickle cell anemia
vascular occlusions - painful crises (organ swelling, dysfunction, infractions) delayed growth/puberty splenic sequestration
115
what are pts with sickle cell anemia at risk for
cholelithiasis splenomegaly leg ulcers infections with encapsulated organisms stroke AVN Priapism retinopathy - blindness osteomyelitis hematuria, poorly concentrated urine (renal infarcts)
116
how is sickle cell anemia diagnosed
low Hgb, normal MCV elevated reticulocyte count, elevated LDH, elevated indirect bilirubin coombs test negative sickles cells on peripheral smear nucleated RBCs/Howell-Jolly bodies +/- target cells Hgb electrophoresis >50% Hgb S
117
what is the treatment of sickle cell anemia
pain: analgesics, fluids, O2, rest Prevention of crisis: hydroxyurea (increases Hgb F production) prevention of complications: low dose PCN from dx until 6 years old, pneumococcal vaccine with booster every 10 years, chronic folate supplementations, PFTs screening, transcranial doppler screening possible BMT transplant in kids PRIOR to organ damage genetic counseling/prenatal testing