Anes Midterm Flashcards

(122 cards)

1
Q

enhances affinity for GABA

presynaptic
post synaptic
polysynaptic

A

postsynaptic

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2
Q

. Lidocaine is already on its ionized form even before entry into the cell.
.
True or False

A

. true

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3
Q

bradycardia, respiratory depression, bronchoconstriction

A) Naloxone
B) Droperidol
C) Ketamine
D) Fentanyl
E) Morphine
A

fentanyl

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4
Q

IV barbituates have rapid induction

true or false

A

.true

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5
Q

agonist of sigma receptor

A) Mu-1 Receptor
B) Nalbuphine
C) Ketamine
D) Modulted MU Receptor
E) Noloxone
F) Morphine
A

ketamine

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6
Q

coded information is relayed to the CNS

transduction
transmission
modulation
perception

A

transmission

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7
Q

. Bradycardia and vasodilation are not observed with cocaine.
.
True or False

A

. True

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8
Q

pain at the actual incision

a. primary hyperalgesia
b. secondary hyperalgesia

A

primary hyperalgesia

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9
Q

barbiturates depress what type of response

presynaptic
post synaptic
polysynaptic

A

polysynaptic

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10
Q

cardiovascular stimulation, nausea, vomiting

A) Naloxone
B) Droperidol
C) Ketamine
D) Fentanyl
E) Morphine
A

naloxone

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11
Q

ancitconvulsant activity

phenobarbital
methohexital
thiopental
thiamylal

A

phenobarbital

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12
Q

. Ester anes are chiefly metabolizsed in the liver
.
True or False

A

. False

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13
Q

Chronic cancer pain is described as

A

pain is evoked

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14
Q

. In general, low potent anesthetic will have a slow onset and longer duration of action.
.
True or False

A

. False (fast onset and short duration of action)

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15
Q

parin arising from lesion of the central nervous system

A

central pain

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16
Q

(decreases/increases) release of acetylcholine

presynaptic
post synaptic
polysynaptic

A

decreases - presynaptic

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17
Q

has 3 major neural components

transduction
transmission
modulation
perception

A

transmission

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18
Q

IV barbituates have secretions

true or false

A

. False

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19
Q

. Lidocaine will have a slow onset upon infiltration into an infected tissue.
.
True or False

A

. True

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20
Q

In order, what are the effects at the onset of blockade

. Loss of pain and temp
. Loss of pressure and touch
. Loss of proprioception
. Motor paralysis

A

. Loss of pain and temp > . Loss of proprioception > . Loss of pressure and touch > .Motor paralysis

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21
Q

flumazenil is the specific benzodiazepine antagonist drug which antagonises the sedative effects of adenosine

true or false

A

. true

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22
Q

to prevent inadvertent subarachnoid injection of the anesthetic when doing epidural block, the following is done

A

. Adding epinephrine to the anesthetic
. Doing the block with the patinet in Buie position
. Use of a “test” dose

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23
Q

. Potency and penetrability of a local anesthetic is directly related to its lipid solubility
.
True or False

A

. True

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24
Q

with sulfur group, fast onset

A) Methohexital
B) Phenobarbital
C) Thiamyal
D) Thiopental

A

thiopental (thiamyal)

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25
. Type A nerve fibers are classified in alpha, beta, gamma, and delta. . True or False
. true
26
site of action for epidural anesthesia
nerve root
27
. Among alpha, beta, gamma, and delta fibers; alpha fibers are the most difficult to block . True or False
. true
28
. The presence of a methyl groups in tetracaine enhances its lipid solubility . True or False
. True
29
. Bradycardia and vasodilation are potential systemic toxicity effects of loca anesthesia. . True or False
. True
30
contraindicated in porphyria ``` A) Barbiturates B) Diazepam C) Fentanyl D) Ketamine E) Innovar ```
barbiturates
31
desmethyldiazepam is its metabolite ``` A) Diazepam B) Midazolam C) Lorazepam D) Flumazenil E) Physotigmine F) Aminophylline ```
diazepam
32
. Local anesthetic with pKa close to the physiological pH has more rapid onset. . True or False
. True
33
Name the ester local anesthetics
Cocaine Procaine Chloroprocaine Tetracaine
34
methemoglobinemia
prilocaine
35
. Local anes with poor lipid solubility has low potency. . True or False
. True
36
. Upon entry into the cell, local anes become cations blocking sodium influx. . True or False
. True
37
No histamine release A) Methohexital B) Phenobarbital C) Thiamyal D) Thiopental
Phenobarbital (methohexital)
38
neural activity leading to control of the pain transduction transmission modulation perception
modulation
39
sulfur group phenobarbital methohexital thiopental thiamylal
thiopental | thiamylal
40
principle site of action of anesthetics in neuraxial block
ner roots of the spinal nerve
41
4 neural pathways in order
transduction transmission modulation perception
42
hypotension in pt is subjected to neuraxial bock may be safely managed by rapid IV fluid infusion provided that
the pt has a normal cardiac and renal function
43
Cocain, chloroprocaine and prilocane are examples of ester anesthetics True or False
. False
44
Specific benzodiazepine antagonist ``` A) Diazepam B) Midazolam C) Lorazepam D) Flumazenil E) Physotigmine F) Aminophylline ```
flumazenil
45
pain in the surrounding normal tissue a. primary hyperalgesia b. secondary hyperalgesia
secondary hyperalgesia
46
Spinal anesthesia for surgeries of the lower extremities can have a block up to the umbilicus which is consistent with the ff. dermatomal level: A. T4 B. T6 C. T10 D. T12
C. T10
47
Amides are chiefly metabolized by
in the liver by CYP 450
48
agonist of kappa receptor ``` A) Mu-1 Receptor B) Nalbuphine C) Ketamine D) Modulted MU Receptor E) Noloxone ```
nalbuphine
49
demonstrate differential block
bupivacaine, ropivacaine
50
antagonist of Mu-2 receptor ``` A) Mu-1 Receptor B) Nalbuphine C) Ketamine D) Modulted MU Receptor E) Noloxone ```
nalbuphine
51
``` . Injection done superficial to the ligamentum favum . A. epidural anesthesia B. spinal anesthesia C. both D. Neither ```
D. Neither
52
naloxone is an angonist and antagonist drug which is used to detect suspicious physical dependence true or false
. False; antagonist only
53
3 ways to prepare tetracaine
saline solution - isobaric D10W - hyperbaric distilled water - hypobaric
54
The ff. approach is directed towards insertion of the spinal needle into the largest interspace in the vertebral column: A. midline B. paramedian C. lumbosacral D. caudal
C. lumbosacral
55
barbiturates are contraindicated with patient who has porphyria true or false
. true
56
somnolence without total unconsciousness ``` A) Barbiturates B) Diazepam C) Fentanyl D) Ketamine E) Innovar ```
innovar (aka neurolept analgesia)
57
antagonizes sedative effects of adenosine ``` A) Diazepam B) Midazolam C) Lorazepam D) Flumazenil E) Physotigmine F) Aminophylline ```
aminophylline
58
for supraventricular tachycardia
lidocaine
59
Barbiturates antagonist
none (benzodiazepines do)
60
Convulsant A) Methohexital B) Phenobarbital C) Thiamyal D) Thiopental
Methohexital
61
antagonist of kappa receptors ``` A) Mu-1 Receptor B) Nalbuphine C) Ketamine D) Modulted MU Receptor E) Noloxone ```
naloxone
62
supraspinal analgesia ``` A) Naloxone B) Droperidol C) Ketamine D) Fentanyl E) Morphine ```
morphine
63
used for electroconvulsive treatment ``` A) Barbiturates B) Diazepam C) Fentanyl D) Ketamine E) Innovar ```
diazepam (benzodiazepine)
64
other than polysynaptic depression what are (2) other mechanisms of action of barbituates
1. Depress reticular activating system | 2. Depress transmission in the sympathetic nervous system ganglia
65
desmethyldiazepam is the component which is responsible for the long duration of action of diazepam true or false
. true
66
``` . CSF clue . A. epidural anesthesia B. spinal anesthesia C. both D. Neither ```
B. spinal anesthesia
67
profound degree of motor block
etidocaine
68
. pKa is the pH at which the anes is completely on it's ionized form. . True or False
. False
69
Synthetic narcotic only A) Droperidol B) Fentanyl C) Innovar
fentanyl
70
In neuraxial block, the follow is seen a. Motor block about 2 segments below b. Sensory block about 2 segments above the motor block c. Autonomic block about 2 segments below motor block
b. Sensory block about 2 segments above the motor block
71
in general, local anesthetics causes. What is the exception? Bradycardia Tachycardia
Bradycardia, except coaine
72
Antici-convulsant A) Methohexital B) Phenobarbital C) Thiamyal D) Thiopental
Phenobarbital
73
. Early warning sign of local anesthetic toxicity includes circumoral numbness, tongue parasthesia, and respiratory depression . True or False
. False (and dizziness, tinnitus, blurred vision)
74
With histamine release A) Methohexital B) Phenobarbital C) Thiamyal D) Thiopental
thiamyal (thiopental)
75
extrapyramidal symptoms ``` A) Naloxone B) Droperidol C) Ketamine D) Fentanyl E) Morphine ```
droperidol
76
venoirritating due to propylene glycol ``` A) Diazepam B) Midazolam C) Lorazepam D) Flumazenil E) Physotigmine F) Aminophylline ```
diazepam (lorazepam? sam)
77
Ester anesthesia is chiefly metaboized by
in the by plasma cholinesterase
78
question
answer
79
how does barbiturates cause respiratory depression
1. direct depression of the medullary and the pnotine centers 2. decreased tidal volume and slight increase in respiratory rate - decrease in minute volume
80
basic make up for barbituric acid
urea + malonic acid =
81
placebo given to
psychogenic pain
82
depolarization of nociceptor by noxious stimuli leads to electrical activities transduction transmission modulation perception
transduction
83
agonist of Mu-1 receptor ``` A) Mu-1 Receptor B) Nalbuphine C) Ketamine D) Modulted MU Receptor E) Noloxone F) Morphine ```
morphine
84
supraspinal analgesia ``` A) Mu-1 Receptor B) Nalbuphine C) Ketamine D) Modulted MU Receptor E) Noloxone ```
Mu-1 Receptor
85
how does barbiturates lead from mild sedation to coma
reduced cerebral metabolism and oxygen consumption leading to decrease in cerebral blood flow
86
nonspecific benzodiazepine antagonist ``` A) Diazepam B) Midazolam C) Lorazepam D) Flumazenil E) Physotigmine F) Aminophylline ```
physostigmine
87
water soluble, shortest duration of action ``` A) Diazepam B) Midazolam C) Lorazepam D) Flumazenil E) Physotigmine F) Aminophylline ```
midazolam
88
convulsant activity phenobarbital methohexital thiopental thiamylal
methohexital
89
. With ropivacaine and bupivacaine, loss of pain and temperature senstion precedes the loss of proprioceptive sense. . True or False
. True
90
management of pain involves
adequate pain relief multidisciplinary approach graduated somatic approach
91
. Paraaminobenzoic-derevied anesthetics like procaine can trigger activation of IgE antibodies. . True or False
. True
92
Leu-Enkephalin ``` A) Mu-1 Receptor B) Nalbuphine C) Ketamine D) Modulted MU Receptor E) Noloxone ```
Modulted MU Receptor
93
Sensitises the autonomic tissues of the heart to the catecholamines true or false
. False; some sedative reduce the HR but barbiturates do not sensitise the ANS
94
. Methemoglobinemia is observed in Etidocaine. . True or False
. False (prilocaine)
95
If the sensory block of a neuroaxial blockade is at T8, what is the level of the sympathetic blockade A. T4 B. T6 C. T8 D. T10
D. T6
96
. Differential block is seen in ropivacaine and bupivacaine. . True or False
. True
97
IV barbiturates
phenobarbital methohexital thiopental thiamylal
98
fast onset of action and short duration of action phenobarbital methohexital thiopental thiamylal
thiopental | thiamylal
99
``` . Needs a greater volume of anesthetic . A. epidural anesthesia B. spinal anesthesia C. both D. Neither ```
A. epidural anesthesia
100
``` . Done with patient assuming the fetal position . A. epidural anesthesia B. spinal anesthesia C. both D. Neither ```
C. both
101
not recommended for OB. Why?
mepivacaine: placental transfer
102
a sign that fibers of the cauda equina are hit by the advancing needle in the subarachnoid space.
paresthesia on the lower limb
103
in general, local anesthetics causes. What is the exception? Vasoconstriction vasodilation
vasodilation, except cocaine
104
how does barbiturate effect (direct/indirect) myocardial depression
direct depression of medullary vasomotor center > peripheral vasodilation > decreased venous return > decreased cardiac output > hypotension (histamine release)
105
hallucination ``` A) Naloxone B) Droperidol C) Ketamine D) Fentanyl E) Morphine ```
ketamine
106
neurolept analgesia A) Droperidol B) Fentanyl C) Innovar
innovar
107
PABA derivative - PABA metabolite
Derivative: procaine, tetracaine Metabolite: chloroprocaine
108
. Chloroprocaine, among local anesthetics, has the fastest onset. . True or False
. True
109
agonist of sigma receptor ``` A) Mu-1 Receptor B) Nalbuphine C) Ketamine D) Modulted MU Receptor E) Noloxone ```
ketamine
110
Which of the ff. is the correct sequence of modalities lost after spinal anesthesia? Motor Pain Pressure Temperature
Pain > Temperature > Pressure > Motor
111
fundamentals of pain (5)
1. response to acute painful stimuli 2. Peripheral sensitization 3. central sensitizatoin 4. disinhibition 5. structural reorganization of central connections
112
Neuroleptic only A) Droperidol B) Fentanyl C) Innovar
Droperidol
113
muscle rigidity ``` A) Barbiturates B) Diazepam C) Fentanyl D) Ketamine E) Innovar ```
fentanyl (truncal most common)
114
. Alkalization of the solution may enhance onset of lidocaine. . True or False
. True
115
IV barbituates are non-emetic true or false
. true
116
. In the awake patient, early warning signs of local anesthetic toxicity is provided by its effects on the central nervous system. . True or False
. False
117
dissociative anesthesia ``` A) Barbiturates B) Diazepam C) Fentanyl D) Ketamine E) Innovar ```
ketamine
118
autonomic block produced by regional anesthesia may lead to
arterial dilation
119
Layers SSSSILEDAS
``` skin subcutaneous tissue superficial fascia suprasprinous ligament interspinous ligament ligamentum flavum epidural space dura mater arachnoid mater subarachnoid (with free CSF) ```
120
. Allergic reactions to local anesthetic, although uncommon, is mostly seen among the ester anesthetics. . True or False
. True
121
subjective correlate of pain transduction transmission modulation perception
perception
122
describe why there is referred pain
spinal convergence of visceral and somatic afferent fibers on spinothalamic neurons