anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

drugs for induction

A

thiopental, propofol, and etomidate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

etomidate adverse effects

A

accumulation, decreased CBF, brain metab. rate, ICP, and pulmonary function; decreases adrenal medulla steroid synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

thiopental adverse effects

A

increased HR, decreased CBF, brain metab. rate, ICP and plum function;
porphyria
cyp inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

propofol adverse effects

A

decreased CBF, brain metab. rate, ICP, and pulm. function; increased HR,
propofol infusion syndrome - cardiac arrest, multi organ system failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ketamine adverse effects

A

causes dissociative states, increased CBF, ICP, BP, HR, and CO (good thing); bronchodilation (good), hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

IV analgesic that increases cardiac output

A

ketamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

short acting benzos

A

lorazepam and midazolam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

long acting benzo

A

diazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

benzodiazepam antagonist

A

flumazenil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

remifentanil

A

ultra rapid acting IV opiate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

neurolept analgesia (for awake surgery)

A

droperidol, fentanyl, N2O, and atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

causes malignant hyperthermia

A

succinylcholine, volatile anesthetic agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

malignant hyperthermia treatment

A

dantrolene, hyperventilate with O2, correct hyperkalemia and acidosis, cool core temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

local anesthetics pharmacology

A

lipophilicity allows them to dissolve through the membrane to get to the inside of the Na channel, hydrophilicity allows them to stay in the membrane so it can bind to the channel without passing all the way through the membrane;
have to cross the membrane in the unionized state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

local anesthetic MOA

A

blockade of voltage gated Na channels by binding to the inside of the channel in the activated and inactive states (not closed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

require the most anesthetic

A

large, myelinated fibers and fibers in the center of the nerve (distal fibers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

order of anesthesia of fiber types with local anesthetic

A

Beta, Adelta, C, motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

amide local anesthetics

A

lidocaine, mepivicaine, prilocaine, bupivacaine, ropicacaine, articaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

slow onset amides

A

mepivicaine, bupivicaine and ropivacaine

20
Q

esters

A

procaine, tetracaine, chlorprocaine, cocaine

21
Q

topical anesthetics

A

benzocaine, dibucaine, dyclonine, pramoxine

22
Q

topical anesthetics not for use on mucus membranes

A

dibucaine and pramoxine

23
Q

cause methemoglobinemia

A

benzocaine and prilocaine

24
Q

EMLA

A

lidocaine and prilocaine cream

25
LET
lidocaine, epinephrine, and tetracaine liquid; used for peds before stitches
26
lidocaine + ozymetazoline
used by ENT to decrease nasal engorgement
27
rapid intubation
lidocaine, vecuronium, fentanyl, atropine
28
local anesthetic with most cardiotoxic effects
bupivacaine
29
local anesthetic with fast onset
prilocaine and chlorprocaine
30
vasoconstrictors to use with local anesthetic
epinephrine, phenylephrine, and oxymetazoline (alpha agonists)
31
fast onset inhalation anesthetics
sevoflurane and desflurane
32
inhaled anesthetic that causes seizures
enflurane
33
inhaled anesthetic that causes arrhythmia
halothane
34
inhaled anesthetic that causes muscle relaxation
isoflurane
35
N2O adverse effects
teratogen, inhibition of B12 synthesis, can cause an increase in pressure resulting in pneumothorax and perforation second gas effect - accumulation of other drugs exits system fast and can lead to diffusional hypoxia
36
opoids for anesthesia
morphine, fentanyl and remifentanil
37
IV induction drug that does not effect CV function
etomidate
38
systemic effects of local anesthetics
ringing in ears, numbing of lips and tongue, metallic taste, seizures
39
conversion between grams, mLs, and percents
100% = 1g/1mL
40
to reverse anesthesia from local anesthetics
phentolamine (alpha-1 blocker)
41
benzodiazepines to use the night before surgery
lorazepam and diazepam
42
1st gen antihistamines for use in sedation prior to surgery (drugs and effects)
hydroxyzine, diphenhydramine, promethazine; useful for sedation, anxiolysis, bronchodilation, antiemesis, and analgesia; dry secretions
43
to prevent aspiration pneumonitis
cimetidine and ranitidine - H2 blockers bicitra and polycitra - increase pH of current contents metoclopramide - D2 blocker to increase rate of gastric emptying water - increases stretch reflex
44
ancillary anesthesia anticholinergics
atropine, glycopyrrolate and scopolamine | dry secretions, prevents reflux and bradycardia
45
rapid intubation
oxygenate, lidocaine, vecuronium, fentanyl,and atropine
46
Tx for post-anesthesia HTN
nitroprusside or trimethaphan
47
Tx for post-anesthesia hypotension
dopamine, phenylephrine, or ephedrine