Anesthesia Lab Flashcards
(145 cards)
1
Q
Delivering anesthetic gas (21% O2) in air would lead to _____ due to hypoventilation and V/Q mismatch.
A
Hypoxemia
2
Q
What is the minimum requirement of O2 acceptable for people and small animals?
A
30-35% O2 (FiO2 = 0.30-0.35)
3
Q
What is the metabolic requirement for oxygen?
A
5-10 mL/kg/min
4
Q
Which of the following cyclinder colors is matched incorrectly?
a. Green: oxygen
b. Blue: nitrous oxide
c. Yellow: Medical air
d. None of the above are matched incorrectly
A
d. None of the above are matched incorrectly
5
Q
Cylinder pressure is ususally measure in ____ and breathing system pressures are measured in ____
A
psi = cylinder pressure cmH2O = breathing system pressure
6
Q
Gas cylinders, yokes, pressure gauges, and regulators are considered high, intermediate or low pressure systems?
A
High pressure systems (100-2200+ psi)
7
Q
Which are the low pressure systems?
A
Breathing system = pressure in patietns’ lungs <15 psi
8
Q
Which are the intermediate (50psi) pressure systems?
A
Central O2 supply Post-regulator Flush valve Input to flowmeter Driving gas for ventrilator
9
Q
What is the volume capacity of a ____ cylinder is 660L and the volume capacity found in the ____ cylinder is 6600L.
A
E cylinder: 660L H cylinder: 6600L
10
Q
Both the H and E cylinder are filled to a pressure of ____ psi.
A
2200Psi
11
Q
True/False: Pressure is inporportional to volume
A
False **proportional
12
Q
What is the calculation to determine the remianing O2 in a tank?
A
2200psi/660L = psi left on E tank / x liters
13
Q
How do you figure out how many minutes of O2 are left?
A
minutes remianing = x liters/ flow (liters/min)
14
Q
True/False: It is not possible to calculate the amount of N2O gas remaining in the cylinder based upon the pressure of liquid that remains.
A
True
15
Q
What decreases tank pressure ot a safe working pressure (approximately 50 psi) which is then supplied to the flowmeter?
A
Regulator
16
Q
True/False: Gas enters at the bottom of the flowmeter at 50 psi and exits at the top of the flowmeter at 15 psi.
A
True
17
Q
What system delivers O2 from the intermediate pressure area of the machine (50psi)?
A
Quick flush
18
Q
What are examples of vapor inhalants
A
Halothane Isoflurane Sevoflurane Desflurane
19
Q
What controls the rate of gas flow through the vaporizer?
A
Flowmeter
20
Q
What is the first thing that you should do before the O2 flush valve is used?
A
Disconnect the patient from the curcuit temporarily
21
Q
Where do we read the flow?
A
Middle of the ball and top of the bobbin
22
Q
Between what rate does the quick flush deliver gas directly to the patient circuit?
A
35-75 L/min
23
Q
Where is the O2 flowmeter located?
A
Right of the N2O flowmeter
24
Q
What would be the % O2 delivered to a patient if there was 1L of O2 and 6 L N2O?
A
14% 1 L O2 + 6 L N2O = 7 O2 = 1 / 7 = 14%
25
When do you want to use the quick flush?
In an emergency or recovery to quickly decrease anesthtic gas % in the circuit
26
What are examples of gas inhalants?
N2O Xenon
27
Which of the following is false regarding vapor pressure?
a. Pressure exerted by vapor molecules when liquid and vapor phases are in equilibrium
b. Depends on pressure
c. Inversely realted to boiling point
d. All the above are true
b. Depends on pressure
\*\*Depends on temperature --\> increases with increasing temperature
28
What is a possible complication of using the quick flush?
Pneumothorax
29
A specific concentration of anesthetic vaporizers is created by ____ system, where fresh gas flows over a reservoir of liquid anesthetic and mixes with carrer gas.
Varibale bypass
30
Which of the following requires electrical heated vaporizers?
a. Halothane
b. Desflurane
c. Isoflurane
d. Sevoflurane
b. Desflurane
31
Histamine release may occur with IV administration of this opioid
Morphine
32
This induction agent is contraindicated in cats with cardiac or renal disease.
Ketamine
33
The primary side effect of this sedative is vasodilation and hypotension.
Acepromazine
34
This class of sedative produce vasoconstriction, reflex bradycardia and decrased CO.
Alpha 2 agonists
35
The PaO2 corresponding to a SpO2 of 90%
60 mmHg
36
The species that is especially prone to tracheal tears due to improper cuff inflation or breathing tube traction
Cat
37
"Triple drip" is an injectable anesthetic mixture used commonly in this species.
Horses
38
This group of animals should be extubated with the ETT cuff inflated
Ruminants
39
Bradycardia is the primary indicatoin for administering which class of drug?
Anticholinergics
40
You should check a coagulation profile before surgery patients with dysfunction of this organ
Liver
41
This operator error will result in excessive breahting system pressure and patient death
Closure of the APL or "pop off" valve
42
The primary indication for this alpha and beta agonist is CPR
Epinephrine
43
This species is most likely to develop malignant hyperthermia
Pig
44
This drug is a class 1B anti-arrhythmic agent used commonly to treat ventricular arrhythmias
Lidocaine
45
This class of animal has complete tracheal rings
Birds
46
Serum sodium levels are a special concern when anesthetizing patients with this disease
Diabetes insipidus
47
These 2 ECG rhythms are treated with defibrillation (“shockable” rhythms)
Ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia
48
This class of sedatives may cause hyperglycemia and should be avoided in DM patients
Alpha 2 agonists
49
Inhalants administered at \>1 MAC should be avoided in these patients
Patients with increased ICP
50
This ECG diagnosis indicates a complete absence of electrical activity
Asystole
51
The concentration of an anesthetic preventing movement in 50% of patients exposed to a noxious stimulus
Minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)
52
This common induction agent should be used in very low doses or not at all in shocky patients
Propofol
53
The treatment for the following arterial blood gas:
pH = 7.238
pCO2 = 68
pO2 = 438
HCO3 = 29
BE = 2
IPPV
54
What receptors does Butorphanol act on?
mu antagonist and kappa agonist
55
Buprenorphine works on what receptors?
partial mu agonist
56
What can you combine ketamine with to avoid a catatonic state?
Alpha 2 agonist or Benzodiazepine
57
Which is the most common drug for induction of anesthesia in horses?
Ketamine
58
Which drug is contraindicated in sheep becuase of the hypoxemic effects it can casue?
Xylazine
59
Which is the strongest available sedative in all animals except for pigs?
Alpha 2 agonists
60
Which drugs can be used in hemodynamically unstable/ at risk patients?
Opioids
Etomidate
Alfaxalone
Benzodiazepine
61
Which stage of anesthesia can we not intubate the patient because of a strong jaw tone?
Stage 2
62
Which stage of anesthesia do we have central eyes, dilated pupils and no corneal or palpebral reflexes?
Stage 3, Plane 3
63
Which stage of anesthesia do we perform surgeries?
Stage 3
64
Which stage can we perform simple procedures/ exams and we have nystagmus, constricted pupils, and weak palpebral and corneal reflexes?
Stage 3, Plane 1
65
Which plane of anesthesia do we have the most adequate muscle relaxation for most surgical procedures?
Stage 3, Plane 2
66
What are the common signs that we see with the eyes of a patient when we use ketamine?
nystagmus, blinking, central eyes, and dilated pupils
67
Which drug has a direct negative inotropy effect and indirect catecholamine release increasing HR and contractility?
Ketamine
68
What kind of drugs are our dissociative anesthetics?
NMDA antagonists
69
All of the following have no analgesia effects except:
## Footnote
a. Propofol
b. Etomidate
c. Xylazine
d. Diazepam
c. Xylazine
70
Which is the most common injectable anesthetic in small animals and can also be used as a TIVA drug because it doesn't accumulate?
Propofol
71
Which of the following is the number one choice for induction in hemodynamically unastable patients?
## Footnote
a. Etomidate
b. Alfaxalone
c. Diazepam
d. Fetanyl
a. Etomidate
72
Wich of the following has minimal CV effecsts and can be useful for C-sections?
## Footnote
a. Etomidate
b. Alfaxalone
c. Thiopental
d. None of the above
b. Alfaxalone
73
Which drug can't be used as a CRI becuase of its adrenal suppression and propylene glycol accumulation?
Etomidate
74
Which drug is used in large animal anesthesia that is centrally acting and casues skeletal muscle relaxation with little effect on respiratory muscles?
Guaifenesin
75
What NMBD drug is used to treat malignant hyperthermia and is peripherally acting on the muscle cells?
Dantrolene
76
Which drug is not used in cats that is used in dogs for the MLK infusion?
Lidocaine
77
Which drugs are part of the triple drip anesthetic mixture for horses?
Guaifenesin, Xylazine (or other alpha 2) and Ketamine
78
True/False: Fetanyl is prefered over morphine as a CRI because of its slow onset and long duration of action.
False
\*\*other way around, morphine is preferred over fetanyl
79
Which CRI can be used to relieve abdominal pain in colic horses and abdominal and neuropathic pain in dogs?
Lidocaine CRI
80
Which CRI is contraindicated in cats due to its cardiotoxic effects?
Lidocaine
81
Which drugs make up the anesthetic component of my TIVA?
Propofol
Alfaxalone
Ketamine
82
Which of the following is matched incorrectly regarding the physical status classification of a patient?
## Footnote
a. ASA II: fever, pregnancy, mild anemia
b. ASA III: moderate/ severe systemic disease, morbidly obese, CHF
c. ASA IV: GVD, shock, sepsis, hemorrhagic spleen
d. ASA V: won't survive for 25 hours with or without surgery
b. ASA III: moderate/ severe systemic disease, morbidly obese, CHF
\*\*\*moderate heart disease
83
Which drugs are my GABA agonists?
Alfaxalone
Etomidate
Propofol
Isoflurane
Benzodiazepiens
Thiopental
Sevoflurane
"After Eating Pizza Its Best To Sleep"
84
What is the MAC of sevo and iso in dogs?
Iso: 1.3
Sevo: 2.3
85
Which of the following is false regarding increasing the alveolar delivery?
## Footnote
a. To increase the anesthetic concentration incrase the vaporizer, fresh gas and circuit volume
b. To increase the alveolar ventilation increase minute ventilation
c. To increase alveolar ventilation decrease dead space
d. All the above are true
a. To increase the anesthetic concentration incrase the vaporizer, fresh gas and circuit volume
\*\*decrease the circuit volume
86
True/False: Equilibrium of anesthetic vapors is reached when partial pressures are equal but the number of molecules are not equal.
True
87
Which of the following does not pertain to a decreased MAC?
## Footnote
a. Pregnancy
b. Hyperthermia
c. Hypothermia
d. Decreased MAP \<50 mmHg
b. Hyperthermia
\*\*\*increased MAC
88
What is the main result from an exhausted soda lime that no longer removed CO2 from the expired gases?
Hypercapnia
89
What is this a picture of?
CO2 rebreathing waveform
90
What are the three possibilities of CO2 rebreathing?
1. Stuck inspired/ expired valves
2. Exhausted soda lime
3. Inadequate O2 flow in a non-rebreathing system
91
What is the main indication of this waveform?
Hypoventilation
92
Which breed of dogs has a long recovery with thiobarbiturates, propofol, and alfaloxone?
Sight Hounds
93
Which breeds are more prone to tracheal collapse so we want to make sure to use a longer ETT?
Small breeds
94
Which drug can cause Heinz body anemia in cats?
Propofol
95
Which breed of cats is prone to CHF with ketamine or telazol?
Mainecoon
96
Which drugs make up "kitty magic"?
Ketamine, alpha 2 and opioid
97
Which species can get post-op hyperthermia with the use of opioids?
Cats
98
Which non-anesthetic drug can decrease opioid vomiting in cats?
Cerenia
99
Which opioids inhibit vomiting in dogs?
Fetanyl and Methadone
100
What is the DOC to treat hypotension in cats?
Dopamine
101
Which NSAID is safe to use in cats with renal disease but its not FDA approved?
Meloxicam
102
Which drug acts on the beta 1 receptor and is used in my equine anesthesia?
Dobutamine
103
Which of the following is the most commonly used opioid in cattle?
## Footnote
a. Bupernorphine
b. Butorphanol
c. Morphine
d. Hydromorphone
b. Butorphanol
104
What is the induction drug used in young cattle?
Propofol
105
Which two drugs can be used as a "double drip" in cattle?
Ketamine and GGE
106
What is the SAP and MAP we want in large animals?
MAP: \>70
SAP: \>90
107
What is the MAP and SAP that we want in small animals?
MAP: \>60
SAP: \>80
108
True/False. A rebreathing machine can be used in kids and lambs.
False
\*\*Non-rebreathing with their heads lower than the rest of their body
109
Alpha two agonists can cause hypoxemia with pulmonary parenchymal damage in which animals?
Sheep and goats
110
Where do you place the ECG in large animlas?
White --\> right jugular furrow, Black --\> apex of the heart, and Red --\> caudal to the black
111
Which of the following is true regarding ECG in small animals?
## Footnote
a. Lead II is commonly used
b. There is a prominant negative S wave
c. They have a type B heart
d. All the above are true
a. Lead II is commonly used
112
How do you administer porpofol to effect for sheep anesthesia?
About 3 mg/kg IV over 10-15 minutes
113
Where do you want to place the doppler in your sheep patients?
Median artery
114
What are the landmarks for your IM/SQ premed injection in sheep?
Between the transverse process of the cervical vertebrae, nuchal ligament and the cranial aspect of the scapula
115
What is the srugical maintenance rate for your sheep anesthesia?
10 mL/kg/hr
116
Which of the following is false regarding the breathing systems of a patient that is 1 kg?
## Footnote
a. Bain system can be used
b. Mapleson F system can be used
c. Purple soda lime color indicates that the CO2 absorber is exhausted
d. None of the above are false
c. Purple soda lime color indicates that the CO2 absorber is exhausted
\*\*\*there is no soda lime or unidirectional valve present in your non-rebreathing system which is what's used for patients \<3kg
117
What is the induction/ recovery and maintenance O2 flow rate for small animals?
Induction/recovery: 50-100 mL/kg/min
Maintenance: 20-50 mL/kg/min
118
What is the induction/recovery and maintenance O2 flow rate in your large animals \> 50kg?
Induction/recovery: 20-50 mL/kg/min
Maintenance: 10-20 mL/kg/min
119
How do you calculate the reservoir bag size in small animals?
(~15mL/kg) x 6 --\> round up
120
A closed ____ will increase pressure and there will be no exhaust which can lead to CVS arrest
APL valve
121
Which of the following is matched incorrectly?
a. Rebreathing: circle and universal F
b. Non-rebreathing: Mapleson A-F
c. Rebreathing: minimal dead space and unidirectional flow
d. Non-rebreathing: no soda lime or unidirectional valves
c. Rebreathing: minimal dead space and unidirectional flow
\*\*no dead space
122
What are your three types of ETT?
Murphy
Cole
Wire- reinforced (armored)
123
What endobronchial complications can occur if the ETT goes past the thoracic inlet?
Hypoxemia, +/- hypercapnia
124
Which scaneging system doesn't absorb N2O and should be discarded when \>50g?
F air canister
125
Which ETT is used in your avian species?
Cole
126
Which ETT can be used during eye procedures because it prevents tube collapse when in extreme flexsion?
Wire-reinforced (armored)
127
128
Ventilation refers to a PaCO2 of _____ (range) and we can use the arterial blood gas or ___ to measure this.
35-45, capnograph
129
Oxygenation refers to a PaO2 or SpO2 of _____ at 100% O2 and we can use the arterial blood gas or ___ to measure this.
\>500 mmHg, pulse ox
130
True/False: we can't improve O2 while on 100% O2 with more ventilation
True
131
What are the five causes of hypoxemia?
1. Decreased FiO2/ PiO2
2. Hypoventilation
3. Diffusion impairment
4. V/Q mismatch
5. Right to left shunt
132
True/False: Atelectasis is the most common cause of V/Q mismatch.
True
133
What do anticholinergics work on?
Muscarinic antagonists on acetylcholine receptors
134
Which breed of dog is sick sinus syndrome most commonly seen with?
Miniature Schnauzers
135
What is the main side effect of mechanical ventilation?
Hypotension
136
What is the parameter used to measure blood gas ventilation?
PaCO2
137
What is the arrow pointing to on this capnograph?
Where ET CO2 is measured
138
Which phase indicates the beginning of inspiration on the capnograph?
Phase IV
139
Which of the following induces vomiting?
## Footnote
a. Fetanyl
b. Hydromorphone
c. Methadone
d. Butorphanol
b. Hydromorphone
140
True/False: A loading dose followed by a CRI will make the onset of TIVA drugs fast.
True
141
Which of the following have minimal cardiovascular and respiratory effects?
## Footnote
a. Alpha 2 agonists
b. Anticholinergics
c. Benzodiazepines
d. Opioids
c. Benzodiazepines
142
True/False: a low blood gas partition coefficient has a fast induction and recovery rate.
True
143
Which of the following is not a GABA agonist?
## Footnote
a. Propofol
b. Etomidate
c. Alfaxalone
d. Ketamine
d. Ketamine
"After Eating Pizza Its Best To Sleep"
144
Which of the following is matched incorrectly regarding the heart rate of these species?
## Footnote
a. Dog: 50-160
b. Cat: 100-200
c. Cow: 48-90
d. Sheep/goat: 28-50
d. Sheep/goat: 28-50
\*\*60-150 for sheep and goats and 28-50 for horses
145
True/False: This waveform is indicating hypoventilation.
False
\*\*\*Hyperventilation
