Anesthetics Flashcards

(55 cards)

1
Q

Chloroprocaine

trade name

A

Nesacaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Chloroprocaine

onset

A

6-12 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Chloroprocaine

duration of action

A

0.5-1 hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Chloroprocaine

max dose w/o Epi

A

800mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Chloroprocaine

max dose w/ Epi

A

100mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Procaine

Trade name

A

Novocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Procaine

onset

A

2-5 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Procaine

duration of action

A

1 hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Procaine

max dose w/o Epi

A

750 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Procaine

max dose w/ Epi

A

1000 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Lidocaine

trade name

A

Xylocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Lidocaine

onset

A

3-5 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Lidocaine

duration of action

A

1.5-2 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Lidocaine

Max dose w/o Epi

A

300 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Lidocaine

max dose w/ Epi

A

500 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mepivacaine

trade name

A

Carbocaine, polocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Mepivacaine

onset

A

3-5 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Mepivacaine

duration of action

A

0.75-1.5 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Mepivacaine

max dose w/o Epi

A

300 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Mepivacaine

max dose w/ Epi

A

not available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Bupivacaine

trade name

A

Marcaine, sensorcaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Bupivacaine

onset

A

5 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Bupivacaine

duration of action

24
Q

Bupivacaine

max dose w/o Epi

25
Bupivacaine | max dose w/ Epi
225 mg
26
Examples of esters (2) | metabolization?
Chloroprocaine, procaine | metabolized in blood by pseudocholinesterase
27
Examples of amides (3) | metabolization?
lidocaine, mepivacaine, bupivacaine | metabolized by liver
28
MOA of local anesthetics
anesthetic interferes with sodium and potassium currents in the nerve to inhibit depolarization and prevent signal transmission
29
order of how nerve function is affected
pain > temp > touch > proprioception
30
Why is epinephrine added to anesthetics?
causes vasoconstriction which decreases bleeding, shortens the onset of anesthesia, and prolongs effect by slowing the absorption
31
conversion of concentration from % to mg
(% x 10) (# of mL used) | ex: 5 cc of 0.5% lidocaine = (0.5 x 10)(5)= 25mg of lidocaine
32
examples of how a person can get systemic toxicity with local anesthetics (3)
inadvertent intra-arterial or IV injection administration of excessive doses rapid absorption from a highly vascular area
33
symptoms of systemic toxicity of a local anesthetic
sensory disturbance, tongue numbness, twitching, vertigo, slurred speech, convulsions, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, cardiac collapse
34
pts might have an allergic reaction to ____ in ___ local anesthetics
PABA | ester
35
Hallux/digital blocks
- used for procedures involving the hallux or other digits - types: Mercado (2 point), 'V', 'H', ring, triangle block - blocks adjacent proper plantar digital nerves and adjacent proper dorsal digital nerves
36
- used for procedures involving the hallux or other digits - types: Mercado (2 point), 'V', 'H', ring, triangle block - blocks adjacent proper plantar digital nerves and adjacent proper dorsal digital nerves
Hallux/digital blocks
37
Mayo (ring) block
- frequently used for bunion surgery - provides anesthesia proximal to the surgical site to preserve surgical tissue planes - targets: saphenous, deep peroneal, medial plantar, medial dorsal cutaneous nerves - may need to administer more local anesthetic at the distal interspace
38
- frequently used for bunion surgery - provides anesthesia proximal to the surgical site to preserve surgical tissue planes - targets: saphenous, deep peroneal, medial plantar, medial dorsal cutaneous nerves - may need to administer more local anesthetic at the distal interspace
Mayo (ring) block
39
Ankle block
- used for procedures distal to ankle - targets: tibial, saphenous, deep peroneal, superficial peroneal & sural - also in ring form (instead of targeting specific nerve sites)
40
- used for procedures distal to ankle - targets: tibial, saphenous, deep peroneal, superficial peroneal & sural - also in ring form (instead of targeting specific nerve sites)
Ankle block
41
Tibial nerve (popliteal) block
- used for TAL, gastroc recession, repain of Achilles tendon rupture, extensive clubfoot release - targets tibial nerve right after it branches from the sciatic nerve
42
- used for TAL, gastroc recession, repain of Achilles tendon rupture, extensive clubfoot release - targets tibial nerve right after it branches from the sciatic nerve
Tibial nerve (popliteal) block
43
How is a tibial nerve block administered? | adult vs pediatric
- adult pts should be prone with knee flexed 30 degrees, wheal administered 7 cm proximal to the popliteal crease and 1 cm lateral to the midline, between the tendons of semitendinosus and biceps femoris - pediatric pts may be supine if assistance is available to lift leg
44
infiltration block
- injection of anesthetic directly at the procedure site | - most frequently used in biopsy or excision of a lesion
45
- injection of anesthetic directly at the procedure site | - most frequently used in biopsy or excision of a lesion
infiltration block
46
American society of Anesthetists Physical status classification (level 1-6)
1 - normal health pt 2 - pt with mild systemic disease 3 - pt with severe systemic disease 4 - pt with severe systemic ds that is a constant threat to life 5 - moribund pt who is not expected to survive w/o the operation 6 - declared brain-dead pt whose organs are being removed for donation
47
``` conscious sedation (commonly used med and dose) ```
drug-induced depression or consciousness, during which pts continue to respond to physical and verbal stimuli
48
goal of conscious sedation
relieve anxiety and relax pt w/o depressing consciousness to the point that the airway is compromised
49
MAC
(monitored anesthesia care) similar to conscious sedation, but pts are more deeply sedated - they are not easily aroused, but still respond purposefully to repeated or painful stimulation - able to administer local anesthetic at operative site w/o pt discomfort - pt is comfortable, airway is maintained, vitals are continuously monitored - short recovery time and reduced incidence of nausea
50
conscious sedation | commonly used med and dose
- IV sedation and an analegesic/amestic | 2 mg IV midazolam and 2 mg IV morphine
51
MAC | commonly used med and dose
- 1-2 mg of IV midazolam, repeated as needed for sedation - 30-80mg bolus of IV propofol for induction, then 25-100ug/kg/min for maintenance - 25-100ug of IV fentanyl by titration for analgesia
52
general anesthetics
pt loses consciousness and ability to purposefully respond
53
5 components of general anesthetics
``` loss of consciousness analgesia amnesia muscle relaxation blunting of autonomic reflexes ```
54
phases of general anesthetics
induction - pt goes from awake to unconscious, need adequate airway and ventilation maintenance - unconscious state is continued for duration of surgery emergence - awakening of pt
55
general anesthetics | commonly used med and doses
- combination of IV and inhalational agents induced with IV push of 2mg/kg propofol (150-200mg in most adults) maintained with isoflurane or sevoflurane, administered by vaporizer