Animal Behaviour Flashcards
(355 cards)
1
Q
what is a heterotroph?
A
obtain energy and nutrients from other organisms
2
Q
what are the two major systems that control responses to stimuli and coordinate body activities?
A
endocrine and nervous system
3
Q
what is homeostasis?
A
the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment
4
Q
homeostasis relies on _____ ______
A
negative feedback
5
Q
where do animals get energy?
A
Animals obtain chemical energy and molecular building blocks from food
6
Q
what is a trade off?
A
sacrificing in exchange for something else
7
Q
natural selection leads to trade offs, true or false?
A
true
8
Q
Haploid _____ join to form a diploid _____
A
gametes, zygote
9
Q
what is an acrosome?
A
vesicle that contains hydrolytic enzymes
10
Q
what is the purpose of the jelly coat around an egg?
A
protects egg, secretes signal molecules that attract sperm
11
Q
what is the order of the 3 layers in an egg?
A
Plasma membrane, vitelline layer, jelly coat
12
Q
what triggers the acrosomal reaction?
A
Contact with the (peanut butter) jelly coat
13
Q
_____ _____ on acrosomal process bind to receptors on egg cell membrane
A
surface proteins
14
Q
what is polyspermy?
A
when more than one spermie gets to the egg
15
Q
what triggers fast block to polyspermy?
A
when Plasma membranes fuse
16
Q
what causes slow block to polyspermy?
A
when Sperm nucleus enters/cortical reaction
17
Q
which layer of the egg hardens in the fertilization envelope after the sperm nucleus enters?
A
vitelline layer
18
Q
Influx of calcium also _____ the egg
A
activates
19
Q
what results from Initiation of metabolic reactions that trigger the onset of development?
A
Increased cellular respiration and Increased protein synthesis
20
Q
what do sperm and egg nuclei fuse to form?
A
the diploid nucleus of the zygote
21
Q
what happens to the zygote during cleavage?
A
it becomes multicellular
22
Q
what is a blastula?
A
a hollow ball of cells
23
Q
what is the fluid filled cavity within the blastula called?
A
blastocoel
24
Q
cleavage results in many smaller cells called _____
A
blastomeres
25
In frogs, the zygote becomes a ____
blastula
26
the top pole is the ____ pole, and the bottom pole is the ____ pole
animal,vegetal
27
which pole contains smaller cells, with blastocoel?
animal
28
what is differential gene expression?
cells that possess the same genome can look and behave differently
29
Cells express different genes depending on.........?
their location and the stage of development
30
All animals are capable of movement, true or false?
true
31
blood is a connective tissue, true or false?
true
32
why has the similar fusiform body shape of diverse animals, such as sharks, penguins, and aquatic mammals evolved?
this is the body shape that makes it possible for aquatic animals to swim rapidly.
33
______ is a protein with a specific shape that allows it to bind oxygen for transport in the
blood.
hemoglobin
34
how does positive feedback differ from negative feedback?
the positive feedback’s responses are in the same direction as the initiating stimulus rather than
opposite to it.
35
Expressing different genes leads to the production of the same proteins, true or false?
false, Expressing different genes leads to the production of different proteins
36
what ensures that cells know what genes to express at which time?
cytoplasmic determinants
37
what are cytoplasmic determinants?
Molecules within the cytoplasm that regulate gene expression
38
the signal molecules that a cell is exposed to depends on its location within the embryo, and the stage of development, is an example of what?
inductive signalling
39
what is morphogenesis?
the rearrangement of cells or sheets of cells in the embryo
40
______ establishes the three germ layers and sets up the basic body plan
gastrulation
41
what is organogenisis?
the formation of the organs
42
what is the new cavity formed when the blastocoel collapses?
archenteron
43
Gastrulation results in a _____ layered gastrula
three
44
describe how the cells in the animal and vegetal pole behave during frog gastrulation
cells in the vegetal pole push inward, animal pole spread over the outer surface
45
during frog neurulation, the cells in the dorsal mesoderm form the _____
notochord
46
in frog neurulation, the ectoderm above the notochord becomes....
the neural plate
47
in frog neurulation, the neural ____ rolls into the neural _____
plate, tube
48
what does the neural tube become during frog neurulation?
the brain and spinal cord
49
where do the neural crest cells develop during frog neurulation?
where neural tube separates from ectoderm
50
how is morphogenesis achieved?
through changes in cell position, shape, and survival
51
what kind of cells change shape during neural tube formation in frogs?
ectodermal cells
52
what is the result of convergent extension?
cells producing a longer, narrower structure
53
programmed cell death (apoptosis) shapes embryos, true or false?
true
54
A cell that would normally develop into a muscle cell is moved to a different location within the embryo
where cells normally develop into bone cells. The relocated cell still develops into a muscle cell. What
mechanism is responsible for determining this cell’s fate?
cytoplasmic determinants
55
If a mutation occurred in sea urchin sperm that prevented the acrosomal reaction from occurring, which
of the following would be the result?
Sperm would be unable to penetrate the jelly coat of an egg.
56
In a newly fertilized egg, the vitelline layer......
hardens to form a protective cover.
57
During cleavage, the size of the embryo increases with each doubling of the number of cells, true or false?
false
58
The outer-to-inner sequence of tissue layers in a post-gastrulation vertebrate embryo is....
ectoderm → mesoderm → endoderm.
59
The formation of the fertilization envelope and the slow block to polyspermy are dependent on the _____ of _____ ions from/into the egg
entrance, calcium
60
The cavity inside the blastula is called the ______
blastocoel
61
what is fertilization?
The joining of haploid gametes to form a diploid zygote.
62
what is used as a signal for endocrine signalling?
hormone
63
what is used as a signal in the nervous system?
electrical impulse
64
what are glia and what system are they located in?
housekeeping cells, nervous system
65
the ____ system is specialized for direction immediate and rapid responses to the environment
nervous
66
the ____ system is specialized for coordinating gradual changes that affect the entire body
endocrine
67
where is the neurotransmitter initially before a signal is sent?
the synapse
68
the signal travelling from the axon hillock to the synaptic terminal triggers....
the release of neurotransmitters
69
what does the central nervous system (CNS) consist of?
brain, spinal cord
70
what does the peripheral nervous system (PNS) consist of?
cranial nerves, ganglia outside of CNS, spinal nerves
71
what are the three stages that information processing in the nervous system is composed of?
sensory input, integration, motor output
72
Endocrine cells secrete _____ into the bloodstream, affecting target cells to regulate physiology and behaviour
hormones
73
Posterior pituitary is composed of ______ cells of the hypothalamus
neurosecretory
74
what is known as the “master regulator” of the endocrine system?
the hypothalamus
75
the short term stress response is also known as....
the fight or flight response
76
The point of connection between two communicating neurons is called the ____
synapse
77
A simple nervous system includes these 3 things
sensory information, an integrating centre, and effectors.
78
A cell with membrane-bound proteins that selectively bind a specific hormone is called that hormone’s ____ cell
target
79
what part of the nervous system is activated during the fight or flight response? (parasympathetic or sympathetic)
sympathetic nervous system
80
All hormones elicit the same biological response from all of their target cells, true or false?
false
81
Analysis of a blood sample from a fasting individual who had not eaten for 24 hours would be expected
to reveal high levels of _____
glucagon
82
All hormones are carried to target cells in the blood, true or false?
true
83
what are some effects of epinephrine and noepinephrine?
increased blood glucose, increased breathing rate and metabolic rate, increased alertness, and decreased digestive, excretory, and reproductive system activity
84
what two hormones are involved in the stress response?
epinephrine and noepinephrine
85
where is the receptor located for a lipid soluble hormone?
inside the nucleus or cytosol
86
where is the receptor located for a water soluble hormone?
on the membrane
87
lipid soluble hormones are responsible for gene regulation, true or false?
false, water soluble are
88
____ soluble hormones regulate gene expression
lipid
89
the ______ secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine
adrenal medulla
90
The response of a target cell to a hormone depends on which two things?
* The type of receptor on the target cell
| * The signaling pathways within the target cell
91
what are antagonistic hormones?
Pairs of hormones whose actions oppose each other
92
what do antagonistic hormones do?
Maintain a physiological parameter within an acceptable range
93
As body mass increases, absolute body metabolic rate _____
increases
94
Elephants have a lower or higher BMR per unit body mass?
lower
95
An animals diet must supply......
energy, organic molecules, and essential nutrients
96
Chemical energy in food is used in cellular respiration to produce _____
ATP
97
what are the 4 types of organic molecules needed for biosynthesis?
Nucleic acids, carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids
98
What are the 4 functions carried out by digestive systems?
ingestion, digestion, absorption, elimination
99
Structures associated with digestion are the most diverse part of the digestive system , true or false?
false, ingestion is
100
what are suspension feeders/filter feeders?
feed by straining suspended matter and food particles from water
101
what is substrate feeder?
feeder that lives in or on surface
102
what is an example of a fluid feeder?
a mosquito drinking blood from human
103
what is a bulk feeder?
a feeder that consumes large pieces of food
104
what 2 things does the esophagus connect?
the pharynx and the stomach
105
what are the 4 things that saliva contains?
Mucus , Buffers, Antimicrobial agents, Salivary amylase
106
what is the function of buffers in saliva?
neutralize acidity and prevent tooth decay
107
what is the function of antimicrobial agents in saliva?
attack bacteria and viruses
108
what prevents food from coming back up from the stomach ?
Sphincter
109
the sphincter is usually kept open, true or false?
false, closed
110
____ travels via peristalsis
food
111
Mechanical and chemical digestion ______ in the stomach
continues
112
what is the interior space of the stomach called?
the lumen
113
what is pepsin responsible for?
digesting proteins
114
food is mixed by hydrochloric acid to become ____
chime
115
in the stomach, the epithelium secretes _____ ___
gastric juices
116
how do we not digest ourselves?
HCl and digestive enzymes maintained in inactive forms until released in lumen
117
____ provides protection for cells lining alimentary canal
mucus
118
in the oral cavity, polysaccharides are broken down by ____ into _____
Salivary amylase, smaller polysaccharides and maltose
119
what produces bile?
the liver
120
in the stomach, proteins are broken down by ____ into _____
pepsin, small polypeptides
121
what stores bile?
the gallbladder
122
bile is released into ______ to emulsify fats
duodenum
123
what do villi and microvilli do in the small intestine?
increases surface area
124
in the large intestine, the ____ contains bacteria that ferments plant material
cecum
125
a carnivore will have a longer cecum with larger surface area, compared to a herbivore. true or false?
false, the opposite is true
126
the majority of water is reabsorbed in the ____ ______
small intestine
127
The colon functions in .........?
water reabsorption and formation and elimination of the feces
128
what does feces consist of?
undigested material and bacteria
129
what triggers the secretion of digestive hormones?
the presence of food
130
hormones regulate _____, _____ ____, and ______
digestion, energy storage, and appetite
131
Hormones _____ and ______ regulate energy storage
insulin, glucagon
132
Excess energy is stored as ______ in liver and muscle, then as ____ in adipose cells
glycogen, fat
133
what generates the nerve impulses that make us feel hungry or full?
A satiety center in the brain
134
_____ is produced by adipose tissue (body fat) and regulates long-term appetite
Leptin
135
a fat animal will have higher concentration of leptin circulating in blood, true or false?
true
136
Insulin, PYY, and ghrelin are secreted in response to _______
lack of a meal, promotes hunger
137
Chemical digestion in the mouth is limited to _______
carbohydrates
138
in the stomach, pepsinogen is converted into ____
pepsin
139
Compared to that of herbivores, carnivores’ intestines are generally ___ convoluted
less
140
Mechanical digestion occurs in the mouth, stomach, and the small intestine. true or false?
false, not the small intestine
141
the gall bladder is responsible for the production of bile, true or false?
false, it only stores bile
142
Between a human, an elephant, a penguin, a lizard, and a mouse, which animal would have the greatest
basal metabolic rate (L O2/hr)?
elephant
143
An organ responsible for absorbing food molecules should......
have a large internal surface area, & be well connected with the blood supply.
144
Diffusion is only rapid over long distances, true or false?
false, short distances only
145
Random movement causes a net flow from an area of ___ concentration to an area of ___ concentration
high, low
146
Animals with many layers require a circulatory system to _____ _____
transport materials
147
what are the 3 basic components in any animal's circulatory system?
A circulatory fluid, Set of interconnecting vessels, A muscular pump
148
circulatory systems are always closed, true or false?
false, they are either open or closed
149
what does the Interstitial fluid do within the circulatory system?
exchanges materials with cells of the body
150
what two types of animals have closed double circulation ?
Mammals and birds
151
the heart consists of.....
4 chambers, 2 atria, 2 ventricles (left and right)
152
Blood flows in from ____, enters towards heart at ____
veins, atria
153
Ventricles pump blood out of the heart (away) by _____
arteries
154
how is backflow prevented in the circulatory system?
AV valve and semilunar valve
155
the wall of the heart is composed of...
cardiac muscle
156
Atria have much thinner walls than ventricles, true or false?
true
157
why is the Left ventricle wall is somewhat thicker than right ventricle wall?
because of the distance that the blood needs to be pumped
158
____ _____ structure reflects function, needs to be stretchy
blood vessel
159
what are the 3 layers of artery walls?
connective tissue, Smooth muscle layer, endothelium
160
why are the walls thicker in arteries compared to veins?
because under greater pressure
161
blood velocity is highest in the ____
aorta
162
why are valves important in the veins in legs?
to help prevent backflow, particular veins in legs moving against gravity in low pressure system
163
what two things allow for exchange of materials between blood and interstitial fluid?
thin capillary walls and slow blood velocity
164
exchange occurs via 3 things:
endocytosis and exocytosis, diffusion, bulk flow
165
blood is a tissue consisting of cells suspended in ____
plasma
166
blood is __% plasma, __% cellular elements
55, 45
167
what are erythrocytes and leukocytes also known as?
red blood cells, white blood cells
168
what are platelets responsible for assisting in in the circulatory system?
blood clotting
169
gills, trachea, and lungs all have:
large surface areas (greater than rest of body exterior) & very thin exchange surfaces (a single epithelial layer)
170
air has a high concentration of o2, ___ has a low concentration
water
171
animals that obtain o2 from water need to be much more efficient than animals that obtain o2 from air, true or false?
true
172
gills are efficient at extracting o2 but are unsuitable in _____ environments
terrestrial
173
Respiratory surfaces of terrestrial animals are enclosed within the body to......
prevent excess water loss
174
Respiratory surfaces must be dry, true or false?
false, must be moist *cringe*
175
Air sacs called ____ are covered with capillaries at end of each terminal bronchiole
alveoli
176
___ binds to hemoglobin for transport in red blood cells
oxygen
177
how many oxygen binding sites does hemoglobin have?
4
178
what is the function of the rings of trachea?
rings of cartilage to prevent lungs from collapsing
179
When one site binds, the other three bind more easily.. this is an example of ________
increased affinity
180
When one site unloads, the other three unload more easily.. this is an example of ________
decreased affinity
181
what 2 things may affect affinity?
temperature and pH
182
the majority of Co2 produced in body cells travels:
in blood plasma as bicarbonate (hco3-) (70%)
183
___ reacts with ___ to form carbonic acid, which dissociates into HCO3- and H+ within red blood cells
co2, water
184
H+ binds to hemoglobin to prevent decrease in ______
blood pH
185
why are circulatory systems necessary?
because diffusion is only rapid over very short distance
186
The innermost tissue layer of arteries is composed of ______
Endothelium
187
Unidirectional valves that prevent the blood from flowing backward are found in the ____
veins
188
All gas exchange between air and blood in mammals occurs across the walls of the ____
Alveoli
189
the ______ vein contains oxygenated blood in an adult human
pulmonary
190
Hormones are transported in the blood, true or false?
true
191
how do regulators control internal changes?
by using homeostatic mechanisms
192
Conformers allow their internal condition to change in response to _____ _____
external changes
193
what are the 3 types of physiological parameters that are
| regulated?
Thermoregulation, Osmoregulation, Excretion
194
what is thermoregulation?
the maintenance of an internal temperature within a tolerable range
195
enzyme reaction rates and membrane fluidity vary with _______
temperature
196
Endotherms rely on ______ as their major heat source
metabolism
197
Ectotherm body temperature depends on _____ ______
external conditions
198
____________ requires maintaining equal rates of heat gain and heat loss
Thermoregulation
199
what happens during Evaporative heat loss ?
Water lost from moist surfaces carries away heat
200
WHAT ARE EXAMPLES OF BEHAVIOURAL responses?
Shade seeking/Sun basking, migration, hibernation
201
______ relaxes smooth muscle walls of surface blood vessels
Vasodiliation
202
_______ tenses smooth muscle walls of surface blood vessels
Vasoconstriction
203
what is the function of vasodiliation?
Allows more blood to low from core to surface for cooling
204
what is the function of vasoconstriction?
Reduces blood flow from core to surface to prevent heat loss
205
Heat is transferred between fluids flowing in opposite directions, true or false?
true
206
Heat from ____ arterial blood is transferred to ____ venous blood as it returns to the body core
warm, cooler
207
muscle contraction occurs during thermogenesis by....
shivering, activity
208
in Brown adipose tissue (some mammals), there is a high concentration of ______, and cellular respiration produces ____ instead of ATP
mitochondria, heat
209
the ________ is responsible for detecting change in body temperature and directing a response
hypothalamus
210
what is osmoregulation?
the control of solute concentrations and the balance of water gain and loss
211
what are some physiological parameters for osmoregulation?
Total solute concentration, Individual solute concentrations, Body water (volume)
212
_____ is the movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane
Osmosis
213
Animal cells are affected by the relative _____ of their surrounding fluid
osmolarity
214
_______ fluid occurs in cells that lose too much water to their surrounding fluid will shrivel and die
Hyperosmotic
215
_______ fluid occurs in cells that gain too much water from their surrounding fluid will burst
Hypoosmotic
216
_______ fluid occurs when solute concentrations are balanced, and there is no net movement of water into or out of cells
Isoosmotic
217
___________ maintain a stable internal
| osmolarity
Osmoregulators
218
where are osmoregulators found?
in marine, freshwater, and terrestrial environments
219
how are changes in internal osmolarity achieved?
by actively transporting solutes into or out of cells
220
Water flows in response to osmotic gradients, true or false?
true
221
Osmoconformers are hypoosmotic with their environment , true or false?
false, they are isoosmotic
222
__________ actively transport specific solutes to maintain homeostasis
Osmoconformers
223
all osmoconformers have stable osmolarities, true or false?
false, some have stable osmolarities while others tolerate variable osmolarities
224
does osmoregulation require energy?
yes
225
how are energy costs reduced during osmoregulation?
by minimizing osmotic differences between body fluids and the surrounding environment
226
Marine animals ‐ ___ water
Freshwater animals ‐ ____ water
Terrestrial animals ‐ ___ water
lose, gain, lose
227
marine fish gain ____ & ______ from food
water and salt ions
228
how are salt ions excreted by marine fish?
using gills, also urine
229
how do marine fish gain water and salt ions?
by drinking seawater
230
in marine fish, osmotic water loss occurs through ____ and other parts of body surface
gills
231
freshwater fish gain water and some ions from _____
food
232
freshwater fish Osmotic water gain through _____
gills and other parts of body surface
233
in freshwater fish, Excretion of salt ions and large amount of water dilute in _______
urine from kidneys
234
______ fish spend part of their lives in marine environments and part in freshwater environments
Diadromous
235
_____ is a challenge for terrestrial animals
dehydration
236
what kind of adaptations help terrestrial animals reduce water loss ?
– Body coverings
– cuticle, shells, keratinized skin
– Nocturnal
237
how to terrestrial animals maintain water balance?
by drinking and eating moist food and producing metabolic water through cellular respiration
238
Animals control the ______ concentration of an internal body fluid
solute
239
what is transport epithelia ?
One or more layers of epithelial cells specialized for moving particular solutes in controlled amounts in specific directions
240
Transport epithelia have small surface areas, true or false?
false, large
241
do all transport epithelia face the external environment directly?
no, some face the external environment directly, but many line tubular networks that connect to the outside by an opening on the body surface.
242
Seabirds, sea turtles, and marine iguanas remove excess salt taken in when drinking sea water through _____________
salt‐excreting glands
243
what is the purpose of excretion?
Excretion rids the body of nitrogenous metabolites and other metabolic wastes
244
since it is toxic, do all animals excrete ammonia?
Most freshwater animals excrete ammonia, but other animals expend energy to convert it to less toxic urea or uric acid
245
Proteins and nucleic acids contain amino
groups that form _______ when broken
down
ammonia
246
what happens during the filtration step of excretion?
Hydrostatic pressure drives the filtration of body fluid through a selectively permeable barrier
247
filtration is non-selective, true or false?
true, aside from size
248
during filtration, water and small solutes such as salts, sugars, amino acids, and nitrogenous wastes cross the filter to form the ____
filtrate
249
what happens during the reabsorption step of excretion?
useful solutes are actively transported back to the body fluid
250
what happens during the secretion stop of excretion?
Nonessential solutes and wastes can be actively transported to the filtrate
251
what are the 4 steps of excretion?
filtration, reabsorption, secretion, excretion
252
what type of transport of solutes/wastes adjusts osmotic movement of water into or out of the filtrate? (during secretion)
active transport
253
what happens during the final step of excretion?
Processed filtrate is released from the body as urine
254
Mammalian excretory system consists of ........
kidneys, blood vessels, and structures that carry urine
255
_____ are the functional units of mammalian kidneys
Nephrons
256
Kidney is divided into renal ____ and renal _____
cortex, medulla
257
in which step of excretion is water and solutes filtered out of the blood in the glomerulus, into the Bowman’s capsule?
filtration
258
nonessential solutes are selectively reabsorbed from the proximal tubule, distal tubule, loop of Henle, and collecting duct during absorption, true or false?
false, they are useful
259
Nonessential solutes and wastes are added to the filtrate in the proximal tubule, distal tubule, and loop of Henle during which step of excretion?
secretion
260
From the renal pelvis, urine travels along the ureter to the ______ where it is stored
bladder
261
during excretion, urine leaves the body via the ____
urethra
262
Animals can ______ physiological parameters or _______ environmental conditions
regulate, conform to
263
Animals have _______, _______, and _______ mechanisms for thermoregulation
anatomical, physiological, behavioural
264
Which type of feedback systems are more common in vertebrates, positive or negative?
negative
265
The tube that leads from the kidney to the bladder is called the ____
ureter
266
Why would you expect a person living in a cold climate such as Yellowknife to have a larger percentage
of brown fat than an individual living in a hot climate like Florida?
Brown fat is important for non-shivering thermogenesis.
267
Aquatic organisms that are hypoosmotic relative to the surrounding water tend to.....
gain salts from the environment
268
The countercurrent arrangement of the arterial and venous blood vessels in a goose’s leg causes.....
the temperature difference between the contents of the two sets of vessels to be minimized.
269
What is innate immunity? What kind of response?
The recognition of traits shared by broad ranges of pathogens using a small set of receptors. Gives a rapid response.
270
What are 3 barrier defenses?
skin
mucous
secretions
271
What are 4 internal defenses?
phagocytic cells
natural killer cells
antimicrobial proteins
inflammatory response
272
What is adaptive immunity? What kind of response does it give?
recognition of traits specific to particular pathogens, using a vast array of receptors. gives a slow response
273
What is a humoural response?
antibodies defend against infection in body fluids
274
What is a cell-mediated response?
cytotoxic cells defend against infection in body cells
275
What is the purpose of skin, shells and cuticle?
The thickened outer surface prevents pathogens from entering
276
What is the point of secretions like saliva, mucous and tears?
Washing action prevents microbial colonization and hostile chemical environment: lysozyme, acidic pH
277
Phagocytic cells recognize molecules as a characteristic of what?
A set of pathogens
278
What 4 phagocytic cells destroys pathogens by phagocytosis?
1. neutrophils
2. macrophages
3. dendritic cells
4. eosinophils
279
What do natural killer cells recognize?
They recognize the surface proteins of virus-infected or cancerous cells
280
What do natural killer cells release?
They release chemicals that cause cell death in infected or cancerous cells
281
What does antimicrobial proteins attack?
attack pathogens or impede their reproduction
282
What are interferons?
They are secreted by virus-infected cells and trigger surrounding cells to produce chemicals that inhibit viral reproduction
283
What are complement proteins?
Plasma proteins activated by substances on the surface of many microbes
284
T or F: Signalling molecules released by injured or infected tissue cause inflammation
true
285
T or F: Histamine is released by very few cells
False, it is released by most cells
286
What does histamine trigger?
Vasodilation and increased blood vessel permeability in affected area
287
What are cytokines and what do they do?
released by neutrophils and macrophages. they increase the blood flow to the affected area
288
T or F: A serious infection can cause a systemic inflammatory response
True
289
What two things must happen to cause an inflammatory response from an infection?
1. the release of more WBCs from bone marrow
| 2. reset body's thermostat to cause fever
290
What does adaptive immunity involve?
pathogen-specific recognition
291
How is specificity achieved?
Through interactions between antigens and antigen receptors
292
T or F: Antigens are typically large, foreign molecules found on the surface of pathways or secreted by pathogens.
True
293
T or F: Antigen receptors are proteins produced by only B cells
False, they are produced by B cells and T cells
294
T or F: B cells and T cells are lymphocytes
True
295
T or F: Antigens contain very few epitopes
False, they contain multiple
296
What is an epitope?
An epitope is a small, accessible portion of an antigen that binds to an antigen receptor
297
Lymphocytes are a type of:
a) RBC
b) T cell only
c) B cell only
d) Antigen binding site
e) WBC
e) WBC
298
Where are WBCs produced?
The bone marrow
299
Where in the body do T cells migrate for maturation?
The thymus
300
Where in the body do B cells mature?
The bone marrow
301
T or F: Each B or T cell produces a single type of antigen receptor
true
302
Each antigen receptor binds to what?
A single epitope of a single antigen
303
T or F: Variable regions of antigen receptors produce the specificity of the antigen-binding site
true
304
Where do B cell antigen receptors bind to intact antigens?
The blood or lymph
305
T cell antigen receptors can only bind to what?
Antigen fragments presented on the surface of host cells
306
When do B and T cells proliferate?
when they encounter their specific epitope
307
What are memory cells?
Long-lived cells that give rise to effector cells if the same epitope is encountered again
308
What are effector cells?
Short-lived cells that take effect immediately against the pathogen or antigen
309
T or F: Antibodies do not mark pathogens for inactivation or destruction
False, antibodies DO mark pathogens for inactivation or destruction
310
What is the purpose of neutralization?
To prevent entry into cells
311
T or F: toxins can be neutralized by antibodies
True
312
Antibody binding increases the the ability of _______ cells to recognize the pathogens
phagocytic
313
What are the 2 effector forms of T cells?
helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells
314
How do helper T cells actually help?
help by activating B cells and cytotoxic T cells
315
What is the function of cytotoxic T cells?
to secrete proteins that lead to cell death in infected cells
316
What do cytokines from helper T cells help activate?
B cells and cytotoxic T cells
317
Where do cytotoxic T cells bind? What do they secrete after they bind?
They bind to infected cells and secrete perforin and granzymes
318
What is perforin?
Perforin causes pores to form in the cell membrane of infected cells
319
What does granzymes do?
Initiate apoptosis
320
T or F: Effector cells are responsible for long-term protection provided by a prior infection or vaccination
False, memory cells are responsible for long-term protection provided by a prior infection or vaccination
321
T or F: secondary immune response is slower than first
False, secondary immune response is rapid
322
Which of the following statements about complement proteins is INCORRECT?
a) Complement proteins participate in both innate and adaptive immunity.
b) Complement proteins circulate in the blood plasma.
c) Activation of complement proteins leads to the formation of membrane attack complexes,
which create pores in the membranes of foreign cells.
d) Activation of complement proteins causes target cells to lyse.
e) Complement proteins are secreted by cytotoxic T cells.
e) Complement proteins are secreted by cytotoxic T cells.
323
In vertebrates, phagocytic cells recognize molecules that are characteristic of a group of pathogens.
Why is it important to the vertebrate that the molecules recognized are essential components of the
pathogens?
a) If it is a molecule that vertebrates possess, then the phagocytic cells would attack the host’s
own cells.
b) If the molecules are not essential, then natural selection will rid the pathogen population of
those molecules.
c) If only a small number of pathogens possess the molecule, it will not be an effective target for
the phagocytic cells.
d) If the molecules are not essential, then the phagocytic cells will not be able to recognize them.
b) If the molecules are not essential, then natural selection will rid the pathogen population of
those molecules.
324
During an inflammatory response, histamine increases local blood flow. This leads to the arrival of blood
cells that release cytokines that promote local blood flow.
a) This is an example of negative feedback.
b) This is an example of positive feedback.
b) This is an example of positive feedback.
325
Memory cells
a) produce histamine
b) are responsible for innate immunity
c) prevent an animal from encountering certain antigens
d) provide an accelerated immune response upon second exposure to a particular antigen
e) all of the above
d) provide an accelerated immune response upon second exposure to a particular antigen
326
Which type of T cell lyses cells that have been infected with viruses?
a) inducer T cells
b) helper T cells
c) cytotoxic T cells
d) suppressor T cells
e) none of the above
c) cytotoxic T cells
327
Antibodies are secreted by
a) B cells
b) Cytotoxic T cells
c) Macrophages
d) Plasma cells
e) Helper T cells
d) Plasma cells
328
What is the hydrostatic skeleton? Give example
Fluid held under pressure in a closed body compartment (no hardened structures). I.e. worms, jellyfish, sea anemone
329
What is the endoskeleton? Give example
Hardened internal skeleton. I.e. sponges, echinoderms, chordates
330
What is the exoskeleton? Give example
Hardened external skeleton. I.e. mollusc shells, arthropod cuticles
331
What is the function of an antagonistic muscle?
To generate opposite movements across a joint (420 turn tf up). When one contracts, the other must relax.
332
Vertebrate skeletal muscle is an excellent example of hierarchical organization in biological structures. Give this hierarchy beginning with skeletal muscle.
Skeletal muscle --(is composed of)--> Muscle fibers (cells) --(are composed of)--> Myofibrils --(are composed of)--> Thin (actin) and thick (myosin) filaments
333
What is a sarcomere composed of?
Multiple thick and thin filaments bounded by Z lines
334
What type of muscle is skeletal muscle?
Striated muscle
335
How does a muscle know when to contract?
Skeletal muscle contraction is initiated by motor neurons which results in an increase in free Ca2+ in myofibrils. The Ca2+ interacts with thin filament regulatory proteins to allow myosin binding
336
What is locomotion?
Active travel from place to place
337
In order for an animal to move, what must he do?
Expend energy to overcome friction and gravity
338
Why does an animal's environment determine which force (gravity or friction) it must use? Give one example of an environment for each force, also.
It depends on the environment because it is needed as the dominant force opposing locomotion.
Water: friction
Land & air: Gravity
339
What type of adaptation does natural selection favour?
Adaptations that reduce energy costs of locomotion
340
An example of a ______ animal walks by keeping one leg on the ground at a time.
bipedal
341
An example of a _____ animal keeps 3 legs on the ground when walking
multi-legged
342
When running or hopping, legs can leave the ground. What keeps the animal upright in these cases?
Momentum
343
What can adaptations reduce?
Energy expenditure
344
When tendons stretch as the animal lands, they store _____ in _____ fibers. This storage is released to aid the next jump.
energy, elastic
345
T or F: aquatic animals are reasonably buoyant and overcoming gravity requires little energy
True fam come on now
346
T or F: Water is denser and more viscous medium than air; drag (friction) is a problem
True
347
The fusiform body is an adaptation to reduce what?
Drag
348
The rate of energy use during locomotion can be determined by measuring what?
Measuring O2 consumption or CO2 production
349
The contracting units of a myofibril are called
a) Muscle cells
b) Myofibres
c) Sarcoplasms
d) Flexors
e) Sarcomeres
e) Sarcomeres
350
Calcium prevents the attachment of myosin to the binding sites on the actin molecule.
a) True
b) False
b) False
351
What is attached to M lines in a sarcomere?
a) Myosin heads
b) Actin filaments
c) Myosin tails
d) Cross-bridges
e) Neurons
c) Myosin tails
352
What changes shape during contraction of a sarcomere?
a) Actin heads
b) Actin tails
c) M lines
d) Myosin heads
e) Myosin tails
d) Myosin heads
353
Which of the following does NOT represent an adaptation to reduce the energy cost of locomotion?
a) The fusiform body shape of fish, seals, and whales/dolphins.
b) Hollow air-filled regions within bird bones.
c) The use of buoyancy to move through the water column.
d) The thick layer of fat below the skin of seals and whale/dolphins.
e) Springy tendons in the legs of jumping animals
d) The thick layer of fat below the skin of seals and whale/dolphins.
354
Which of the following require(s) alternating contraction and relaxation of a muscle or muscles?
a) Peristalsis in the digestive system
b) Pumping of a mammalian heart
c) Earthworm locomotion
d) A and B
e) A, B, and C
e) A, B, and C
355
If Ca2+ was injected into a muscle cell, which of the following would you expect to occur?
a) The Ca2+ would bind to tropomyosin causing troponin to unblock myosin binding sites, allowing
contraction of the sarcomeres.
b) The Ca2+ would bind to tropomyosin causing troponin to block myosin binding sites, preventing
contraction of the sarcomeres.
c) The Ca2+ would bind to troponin causing tropomyosin to unblock myosin binding sites, allowing
contraction of the sarcomeres.
d) The Ca2+ would bind to troponin causing tropomyosin to block myosin binding sites, allowing
contraction of the sarcomeres.
e) The Ca2+ would bind to troponin causing tropomyosin to block myosin binding sites, preventing
contraction of the sarcomeres.
c) The Ca2+ would bind to troponin causing tropomyosin to unblock myosin binding sites, allowing
contraction of the sarcomeres.
