Animal Nursing 2 Flashcards
(236 cards)
1
Q
The dominant hand scrubs or gets the sponge from the bowl?
A
scrubs, other gets sponge
2
Q
Use the scrubbing agent then the rinising agent ___ times for a total of ___ mins of contact time
A
3x, 5mins
3
Q
This is healing by which intention: Without infection or excessive granulation tissue
A
1st Intention (Avoid wiping edges, Scar strong enough by 10 days, full strength takes another 2-4 weeks)
4
Q
This is healing by which intention: Two granulating surfaces and some degree of suppuration
A
2nd intention (Most common reasons-Infection, No hair follicles on resulting new skin)
5
Q
How can you assist in maintaining hemostasis (a process which causes bleeding to stop, meaning to keep blood within a damaged blood vessel) during surgery?
A
- Clamp and ligate (tie up)
- Electrocautery
- Ground
- Alcohol
6
Q
How are suture materials classified?
A
- Absorption characteristics
- Number of strands
- Capillary characteristics
- Fiber origin
7
Q
Suture selection depends on what?
A
- Should be as strong as the tissue it holds
- Selection is based on the tensile strength of the tissue as well as the organ (Stomach & SI stronger than bladder & colon, Organ strength can vary within the same organ)
- Also depends on age and size of animal
8
Q
What are some reasons for an OVH and disadvantages?
A
Indications: -Sterilization -Removal of estrous cycle -Infection of tract (pyometra) -Congenital abnormalities -Neoplasms Disadvantages: -No more puppies -No estrogens may cause skin disorder -Urinary incontinence
9
Q
Definition of C-section?
A
removal of fetuses through an uterine incision
10
Q
What are some indications that a C-section is needed?
A
- Dystocias
- Brachycephalics
- Pelvic injuries
- Uterine inertia (absence of effective uterine contractions during labor)
- Obstructive
11
Q
What are Post-op complications of a C-section?
A
- Hypovolemia and hypotension of the dam
- Uterine hemorrhage
- Peritonitis (rare)
- Agalactia (is absence of or faulty secretion of breast milk following childbirth)
12
Q
What are some clinical signs of FLUTD (Feline lower urinary tract disease)
A
dysuria, stranguria (strainging), pollakiuria (frequent attempts), hematuria, periuria
13
Q
Feline idiopathic cystitis is similar to what in humans
A
interstitial cystitis
14
Q
____ is the #1 cause for FLUTD
A
FIC (Feline idiopathic cystitis )
15
Q
FIC usually lasts how long?
A
3-7 days
16
Q
What test is best to detect FIC?
A
there is no test, must rule out other causes to diagnose
17
Q
FLUTD what test is the best to use?
A
urinalysis
18
Q
T/F Crystals may not be present with uroliths
A
true
19
Q
What type of crystals cannot be seen on a radiograph?
A
urate and cystine
20
Q
T/F C/D multicare decreases the number of reoccurrences and is an anti-inflammatory with omega 3 fatty acids
A
true
21
Q
What FIC management option has the highest level of evidence?
A
grade 1 (c/d multicare)
22
Q
Stones can develop within ____ weeks
A
2 weeks
23
Q
Dissolve nutrition usually takes ___ days to up to ___ days
A
7 to 28
24
Q
S/D is used for? How long?
A
struvite dissolution (13 days short term)
25
What is the most likely urolith type?
struvite
26
Name 3 Vet Tech responsibilities prior to surgery
1) Verify ID
2) Verify procedure
3) Verify site
4) Clip hair
27
The prep area is a designated site where what duties are performed on the patient prior to surgery?
1) scrubbing the patient
2) clipping the patient
3) pre-anesthetics/anesthetizing the patient
28
Name 5 duties of the vet tech while assisting in surgery.
- Assist in the sterile draping of the patient
- Maintain orderly sx field and prevent contamination
- Organize the instrument table
- Count sponges and instruments at the beginning and prior to closing
- Pass instruments and other supplies
- Assist in proper tissue handling/retraction/etc.
29
What do we mean by a wound healing by 2nd intention?
healing will occur on its own without suturing
30
What are 5 of the general post-op rules for the vet tech?
- Carefully monitor for swallowing
- Maintain warmth of patient
- Keep patient clean and dry
- Monitor BT, pulse, RR
- Record in record, address changes in pattern with DVM
31
Name 5 reasons to spay a dog.
- Sterilization
- Removal of estrous cycle
- Infection of tract
- Congenital abnormalities
- Neoplasms
32
What 5 parts of the sterile gown are considered non-sterile?
1) the back of the gown
2) just the top of the cuff
3) anything below the waist
4) the shoulders of the gown
5) the collar/neckline of the gown
33
What is the name of the new additive in CD food that helps manage inflammation?
OMEGA-3 fish oil
34
What is the term for castration?
orchiectomy
35
When preparing for a castration what first must you verify?
Verify male and not cryptorchid
36
What is the term for a declaw?
onychectomy
37
What is being amputated for a declaw?
Amputation of nail and 3rd phalanx
38
When are sutures removed?
10-14 days post op
39
Name an NSAID.
Rimadyl, Zubrin, Meloxicam
40
____ must be used with caution in cats because they stay in their system for long periods of time without being broken down.
NSAIDs
41
T/F Never use Acetaminophen in cats and be careful in dogs because of Heinz body anemias
true
42
T/F Most dosages of NSAIDs are on an every 2-3 day basis.They must be monitored VERY carefully. Use of NSAIDs in cats is extra-label.
true
43
What are some opioids?
morphine, butorphanol, buprenorphine, oxymorphone
44
_____ effect is 10 times more potent than morphine
oxymorphone
45
____ analgesia is 100 times more potent than morphine
fentanyl
46
T/F Corticosteroids have some analgesic properties
true
47
T/F Corticosteroids can be used in conjunction with NSAIDS.
false
48
Remodeling of bone refers to _______ whereas, resorption refers to ______
reforming calcium, the bone is being broken down
49
Non-union refers to an orthopedic complication in which ____
that healing is not occurring or cannot occur because of poor decision making or technical failure
50
T/F Antibiotic therapy is usually given to all patients with closed fractures
false
51
Which the is the best physical therapy for orthopedic patients after suture removal?
swimming
52
T/F Pain management should be initiated while the animal is undergoing the orthopedic procedure and is still under the effects of anesthesia
true
53
T/F During a traumatic injury, stabilization of the patient is more important than addressing a fractured limb.
true
54
T/F The Robert-Jones bandage is only useful when applied to injuries below stifle or elbow
true
55
Bandages are usually removed or replaced every?
24-48 hours
56
What are some Post Operative Care of Coaptation Devices?
- Observe toes twice daily for swelling
- Device must be kept clean and dry
- Observe limb for signs of irritation or discharge
- Device should be removed on regular schedule to make observations
57
Patient must always be ____ before further consideration of fracture
stabilized
58
Bone location:
- Open (bone through skin):
1) small puncture hole around fx
2) larger puncture or tear
3) large tears & perhaps loss of tissue in area of impact
- Closed
1) Grade I
2) Grade II
3) Grade III
59
What are the 5 types of fractures?
1. Transverse-split in middle
2. Oblique-split diagonally
3. Spiral
4. Comminuted reducible-spiral and diagonally
5. Comminuted nonreducible-everywhere
60
_____ fractures are frequently seen in young growing animals
articular
61
Limits bony contact between the femoral head and the acetabulum, allow formation of fibrous false joint
femoral head ostectomy
62
Healed fractures where anatomic alignment was not achieved or maintained
Malunion
63
What test is this and what is this used to determine which orthopedic procedure: Excessive craniocaudal movement of the tibia relative to the femur as a result of ligament injury
cranial drawer signs, cranial cruciate rupture
64
6 Basic Steps of Wound Management
1. Prevention of further contamination
2. Debridement of dead and dying tissue
3. Removal of foreign material and contaminants
4. Provision of adequate wound drainage
5. Promotion of a viable vascular bed
6. Selection of appropriate method of closure
65
Name and describe the 3 layers of bandaging.
1) Primary= rests on wound and may or may not be adherent
2) Secondary= provides absorbency & padding
3) Tertiary= outermost layer that holds the rest together
66
When clipping an area of traumatic injury, the use of K-Y jelly is to?
to control hair around wound
67
What is the purpose of the Ehmer Sling?
Figure eight for non-weight-bearing of pelvic limb
68
Healing of a properly sutured surgical wound is most appropriately termed:
a) first-intention healing
b) granulation
c) secondary union
d) second-intention healing
a) first-intention healing
69
Proper splint and bandage care include all of the following except:
a) washing the splint or bandage daily
b) preventing the bandage or split from becoming wet
c) inspect the bandage or splint daily for any change such as swelling above or below the splint or bandage
d) inspect the bandage or splint for any shifting or change in position on the limb
a) washing the splint or bandage daily
70
What is the purpose of stirrups when apply a bandage?
stirrups decrease bandage slippage and "lock" bandage in place
71
A woman brings to a veterinary clinic a mixed-breed Terrier dog that she found lying by the side of the road. The animal is bloody, Palpation of the right forelimb elicits significant pain. After physical examination, which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic study:
a) ultrasonography
b) complete blood count
c) magnetic resonance imaging
d) radiography
e) computed tomography
d) radiography
72
Which antiseptic is more effective against Staphylococcus gureus in dogs?
Chlorhexidine
73
A new veterinary technician is asked to take a thorough patient history on a dog that has been diagnosed with a scapular fracture that may have to be surgically repaired. Which of the following best explains why the history is so important in this case?
a) to determine which type of fixation is best
b) to determine if the dog is a good surgical candidate
c) to determine the dog's temperament for effective healing processes
d) to determine if any preexisting conditions will increase anesthetic risk
e) all of the above
e) all of the above
74
A woman brings to a veterinary clinic a mixed-breed Terrier dog that she found lying by the side of the road. Physical examination shows a fracture of the right radius with a small puncture hole in the skin around the fracture site. The bone is not exposed, which of the following types of fracture is this?
a) closed
b) grade I open
c) grade II open
d) grade III open
b) grade I open
75
Before transporting a patient with a wound, what should you do to the wound?
cover the wound
76
____ more effective on anaerobes and spores
Hydrogen Peroxide
77
What is an example of a passive drain? What is an example of a active drain?
penrose, closed suction
78
What is the main goal of the Primary layer?
to minimize tissue injury upon removal
79
The most misunderstood and misused bandage, immobilizes and provides traction
Schroeder-Thomas Splint
80
Bandage that Immobilizes the shoulder joint
Velpeau Sling
81
Transmitted by inhalation, ingestion or skin exposure, “coal-like” lesions
Anthrax
82
A 3-year old female Border Collie dog is recovering from surgery to repair the cranial cruciate ligament. Which of the following is the most important advice to give the client regarding physical activity of this dog?
a) short leash walks for at least 6 weeks after surgery
b) no physical activity for at least 8 weeks after surgery
c) abundant physical activity for the first week after surgery
d) long leash walks twice weekly for at least 4 weeks after surgery
e) allow the dog to run freely in the backyard until the animal is brought for recheck in 10 weeks
a) short leash walks for at least 6 weeks after surgery
83
Bandage that Immobilizes the shoulder joint
Velpeau Sling
84
A 6-year old Irish setter dog is brought to the emergency clinic after being struck by a vehicle. Radiographs show a fractured left tibia. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step in treatment.
a) splint fixation
b) external coaptation
c) administration of opioids
d) administration of analgesics
e) fiberglass cast fixation
f) application of modified robert jones bandage
d) administration of analgesics
85
Causative agent for cat-scratch disease (CSD) (BITE)
Bartonella henselae
86
What is the TLC approach to cancer?
- Tissue diagnosis
- Location of the tumor
- Condition of the patient
87
What are the 3 commandments of cancer care?
1) Do not let them hurt
2) Do not let them vomit
3) Do not let them starve
88
What are some early cancer warning signs?
- Abnormal swelling that persists and grows
- Sores that don’t heal
- Weight loss
- Loss of appetite/difficulty eating or swallowing
- Bleeding/discharge from body opening(s)
- Offensive odor
- Persistent lameness/stiffness
- Hesitation to exercise/loss of stamina
- Difficulty urinating, breathing, defecating
89
Chemotherapeutic drugs are _____ to rapidly proliferating cells, which results in clinical side effects of chemotherapy. Most treatment protocols will combine two or more chemotherapeutic drugs for maximum efficacy.
cytotoxic
90
Antineoplastic agents are often administered in various protocols known as
combination therapy
91
Give 4 comparisons between a wolf vs dog's social behavior.
1) wolves have a closed wolf pack, dogs have an open wolf pack
2) wolves come into estrous once a year, dogs come into estrous twice a year
3) wolves all take care of their babies, dogs usually only the dam does
4) wolves don't accept outsiders into their pack (usually all related), dogs accept any dog
92
Explain 4 feline social behavior and hierarchies.
1) develop a kitten0mother relationship with human
2) aggression is usually fear based
3) they don't have a dominance trait
4) they don't have a submissive trait
93
Define socialization and when at what age it begins in dogs, cats, and horses.
- Socialization is when the animal interacts with people or the same species
- dogs: 4-12 weeks
- cats: 3-7
weeks
-horses: at birth
94
What are the 4 common reasons for relinquishment of a dog?
1) eliminating in the wrong place
2) aggression
3) not listening to owner
4) animal attacking family member or small child
95
What is agnostic behavior and give 3 ways of how a og could react?
- how an animal reacts to a certain situation in which it feels threatened or challenged
- aggression
- territorial
- fear
96
T/F the more fearful a cat is, the wider its pupils contract.
false-dilate
97
T/F Cats have scent glands on the chin, lips (in the corners), temples and at the base of the tail.
true
98
Weaning complete at approximately ___ days, by week 12 the milk quality __ ______
has changed
99
Kittens of older/younger mothers appear to open eyes sooner than those of older/younger mothers. Females/males slightly mature faster than males/females.
younger/older, females/males
100
What are the 3 of the main modes of communication of cats?
1) olfaction
2) visual
3) vocal
101
What is bunting?
when a cat rubs against people
102
Urine spraying may be more oily than that eliminated due to addition of ____
anal glands
103
Give 3 reasons of feline aggression directed towards people
1) toxoplasmosis
2) brain cancer
3) ischemia
104
Name 3 examples of OCD in cats.
1) licking
2) kneading
3) scratching
105
Name medications used for treatment of OCD
1) Chlomipramine (Clomicalm)
| 2) Setraline (Zoloft)
106
T/F In felines miotic (near sighted) is associated with parasympathetic signals in caged animals and mydriatic (far sighted) with sympathetic free roaming cats.
true
107
T/F Ignoring your dog as you first enter your home might help break his jumping on people habit.
true
108
Positive contrast is seen as ____ (color) while negative contrast is seen in ____ (color)
white, black
109
Positive contrast can be either ____ or ___, while negative contrast is always a ___
barium, iodine, gas
110
You would use ____ contrast if suspect perforation of gastro intestinal tract.
negative
111
Three side effects of iodized media are
1) anaphylaxis
2) hypovolemia
3) cardiac arrest
112
How do you prepare a patient before a contrast study? What must you not do?
1) fast 12-24 hours
2) enema 2-4 hours
3) do not give enema an hour before
113
Can you mix barium with food?
yes
114
How often o you take x-rays on a UGI positive contrast study?
5, 15, 30, 60, 90 mins
115
When is barium contraindicated?
1) using the urinary system
| 2) when there is a suspected perforation
116
When is positive contrast indicated in a patient?
1) Esophagography
2) Upper git study (UGI)
3) Gastrography
4) Lower GIT study (LGI)
117
Congestive heart failure is the clinical term used to describe:
a heart unable to maintain adequate cardiac output
118
Ionizing radiation:
causes cell death by disrupting the cell's DNA or by destroying important molecules required for normal cell function
119
Highly irritating drugs can severely damage blood vessels and surrounding tissue if
injected outside the vein
120
T/F Any reports of fatigue, exercise intolerance, collapse, or cough should be investigated further because these may all be secondary to digestive disturbances.
false-cardiac not digestive
121
T/F A degloving injury is one in which a small section of skin is torn off the underlying tissue in a glovelike fashion
false
122
T/F An Ehmer sling is primarily used after a hip joint injury like closed reduction of craniodorsal hip luxation or surgery associated with the coxofemoral joint. The Ehmer sling should be applied in such a way that it rotates internally and abducts the femoral head, forcing it into the actebaulum and maintaining reduction.
false
123
T/F It is generally recommended that the surgical site be scrubbed and rinsed at least two times
false-3
124
Substance that is either radiolucent or radiopaque and can be administered to the animal to increase radiographic contrast within the organ or system
contrast medium
125
Since most contrast studies require multiple images, you record the ____, ____, and ___
amount, type and route of administration of contrast agent
126
____ is water-soluble, the largest group of compounds, low in viscosity for rapid infusions, low in toxicity
iodine
127
___ is the medium of choice for GIT studies, completely insoluble, Not diluted by secretions, and not absorbed by GIT
barium
128
What makes up the negative contrast studies?
Air, O2, N2O, CO2 (gases)
129
Double contrast not recommended for patients with history of?
gastric distention or volvulus
130
Enemas should not contain soap due to?
to the irritating effect on the mucosa
131
Urography you inject ___ and cystography you inject ___
IV, directly into the bladder
132
Injection of positive contrast agent into salivary ducts and glands
Sialography
133
Provides information about organ structure independent of function. Based on the pulse/echo principle. Pulse travels through the tissue until it reaches an reflective surface and reflects echo back to probe.
ultrasound/sonography
134
Images transmitted in time-oriented graph. Most often used in cardiology. Display quantitative image of heart valve size, chambers, walls and great vessels.
M-mode
135
T/F Bone allows no penetration by sound.
true
136
Anechoic tissues reflect few if any waves
Full urinary bladder
137
Hypoechoic tissues reflect few waves
Medullary papilla of kidney
138
Hyperechoic tissues appear white
Bladder stone
139
T/F The higher the resonant frequency the greater the resolution but the lower the penetration of the sound beam
true
140
Deeper penetration requires lower _____
frequency
141
M-mode ___ & 2-D B-mode ____ are used for echocardiography.
motion, brightness
142
Assesses turbulence and velocity of rbc’s w/i vessel. Color now added to enhance subtle abnormalities.
Doppler
143
How do you prepare a patient for a U/S
- Fast for 12 hours to reduce gas
| - Full bladder for scanning bladder or prostate
144
Characteristics evaluated on a U/S
- Size
- Shape
- Echo intensity
- Position
- Architecture
145
Reverberation-sound waves bounce back and forth between transducer and reflective surface
Artifacts
146
What are the primary indications for a CT?
1) CNS and PNS diseases
| 2) Obscured masses in mediastinum, axillary region and retroperitoneal region
147
Noninvasive imaging technique using small amount of radioactive material administered IV, transdermally or by aerosol
Nuclear Scintigraphy
148
Images do not produce anatomic detail. Images provide physiologic information about function of specific organs.
Nuclear Scintigraphy
149
Nuclear Scintigraphy can be used for?
1) Thyroid-cats (Confirm hyperactivity)
| 2) Bone-Lameness not identified by PE, survey rads, or U/S scan
150
A 2D U/S that reveals cardiac and mediastinal anatomy
Long axis
151
A 2D U/S that includes structures from the base to the apex of the heart
Short axis
152
Canine developmental stages:
1) Neonatal:
2) Transitional stage:
3) Socialization period:
4) Juvenile period:
5) Adult :
1) birth to 13 days
2) 13-19d
3) 19d-12 weeks
4) 12 weeks to sexual maturity
5) from sexual maturity
153
Defined as behaviors that are usually bought on by conflict but that are subsequently shown outside of the original context
Compulsive disorders
154
T/F Cats are primarily solitary and are supposed to be territorial animals with little interaction
true
155
Define OCD
traditionally defined as behaviors that are repetitive, constant and appear to serve no obvious purpose
156
Rolling skin disease, neuritis, twitchy cat disease, atypical neurodermatitis
hyperesthesia
157
Congestive heart failure is the clinical term used to describe:
heart unable to maintain adequate cardiac output
158
Hypertropic, dilated, and restrictive are all forms of?
canine heart disease
159
Nacho, a dog, is exhibiting dypsnea. The mm show signs of pallor. The veterinarian diagnoses this as ___, or deficient oxygenation of the tissues.
hypoxia
160
Chemotherapeutic drug:
cannot differentiate between cancer cells and normal cells that have high proliferation rates, such as cells of bone marrow, the gi tract, or air follicles
161
A __ drain is the most commonly used passive drain in small animal practice and is generally placed into smaller wounds and dead space
Penrose
162
In small animals, loud, persistent, vocalizing after an operation is generally considered a?
sign of significant pain and/or anxiety that needs attention
163
The veterinarian uses a ___ to stabilize a fracture, placing pins through the skin and bones
external fixator
164
The veterinary technician's role in surgery can include all of the following except:
a) manipulating the instrumentation and tissues into position as a sterile assistant
b) performing minor surgical procedures under direct veterinary supervision
c) monitoring anesthesia
d) administering medication per the veterinarian's request
b) performing minor surgical procedures under direct veterinary supervision
165
Surgically prepared skin is considered ___, not ___.
aseptic, sterile
166
Highly irritating drugs can severely damage blood vessels and surrounding tissue if
injected outside the vein
167
What organ is the primary site for drug metabolism?
liver
168
Cryotherapy is used to:
decrease enzyme activity
169
Yogurt supplements a diet with ____ to help balance the GI system.
probiotics
170
Which of the following is the most common fixative used in histopathological examination:
a) 37% Formaldehyde
b) 70% ethyl alcohol
c) bouin fixative
d) 10% buffered formalin
d) 10% buffered formalin
171
T/F Cryotherapy, or cold therapy, when applied to the body, removes heat. Some of the actions are vasoconstriction, which reduces, postsurgical bleeding and busing, slowed nerve pnduction, and decreased enzyme activity (decreasing inflammation)
true
172
T/F When an infected deer tick bites a host (an animal or person) to feed, the bacteria Borrelia burgdorferi is transferred to the host. Lyme disease in humans is characterized by aches in the joints, fever, and a host of other flulike symptoms
true
173
T/F When assessing patients for pain, veterinary technicians should be able to recognize signs of discomfort that may include tachycardia, tachyon, elevated temperature, unwillingness to use a limb or to posture for normal eliminations
true
174
T/F Hypoxia can result form reduced blood flow, decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, hypoventilation, or ventilation/perfusion mismatch
true
175
T/F Wound healing is a continuous process that starts at the moment of injury and lasts up to months thereafter
true
176
A bitch that keeps aborting her puppies should be checked for ___
Brucellosis
177
Shutting a particular door is a way to minimize inappropriate behavior by?
managing the pet's environment
178
Delivering punishment within a few seconds after a behavior event refers to ___ of punishment
immediacy
179
To prevent or minimize inappropriate behavior by a pet, the owners must?
use crate training with the puppy
180
Which of the following is true about a dog's normal social behavior:
a) dog behavior problems are caused by dominance
b) scruff shakes and alpha rolls are two effective, recommended methods of taming a dominant-behaving dog
c) dog social groups, when free range, behave just like wolf packs
d) dogs' roles as dominant or subordinate may change between individuals depending on what is happening
d) dogs' roles as dominant or subordinate may change between individuals depending on what is happening
181
The process by which an animal develops appropriate social behaviors toward members of its own and other species is called?
socialization
182
Components of a behavior wellness program include:
a) discouraging socialization of young animals
b) allowing owners to select a pet without providing information for them
c) sharing behavior knowledge with a client only when a problem arises
d) providing timely referrals when needed
d) providing timely referrals when needed
183
The most important socialization period in pups is:
4 to 12 weeks
184
The most important socialization period in kittens is:
3 to 7 weeks
185
Eight-week-old puppies can usually be kept in a crate for approximately ___ hours without soiling their crates
4 to 6 hours
186
It is reasonable to confine a puppy in a crate as part of a house training program for:
only for as long as the puppy can be expected to control its bladder and bowels based n its age
187
An immediate pleasant occurrence that follows a behavior is referred to as:
positive reinforcement
188
Behaviors that animals show in situations involving social conflict are
agnostic
189
Exposing a pet that is afraid of thunder to noise by playing recordings of thunderstorms during increased period of time is an example of:
habituation
190
Stress reaction can manifest itself in the following steps:
a) alarm- interaction of the nervous impulses and hormone release leads to optimum efficiency
b) resistance- attempt to cope lowers resistance to to other stressors
c) exhaustion- no longer able to cope despite the original adaption
d) all of the above
d) all of the above
191
T/F Cats can be taught inhibition to reduce bites and scratches but will not become submissive.
true
192
T/F Kittens f younger mothers appear to open eyes sooner than those of older mothers.
true
193
T/F Ear pulled all the way down and to the rear with outer pinna flattened and inner pinna not visible is an indication of an extremely relaxed cat.
false
194
T/F Certain drugs ( slow release corticoids or progestins) can trigger sudden mood changes in cats.
true
195
T/F Rolling skin disorder, decreased face rubbing, alterations of self grooming, can be signs of anxiety in cats.
true
196
T/F Neutering always solves elimination problems in both dogs and cats.
false
197
T/F In cats early weaning develops stronger predatory behaviors and may affect play behaviors
true
198
T/F In felines Miotic is associated with parasympathetic signals in caged animals and Mydriatic sympathetic ( far sighted) with free roaming cats.
true
199
T/F In nuclear scintigraphy, images produce great anatomic detail as well as providing us with physiological information about function of specific organs
false
200
CT scan or MRI
1) typically runs for about 30 mins
2) suited for examining soft tissue in ligament and tendon injuries, spinal cord injuries, brain tumors
3) usually completed within 5 mins
4) best suited for viewing bone injuries, diagnosing lung and chest problems, and detecting cancers
5) does not use radiation
6) uses radiation
7) provides high-resolution cross-sectional anatomical images
8) very detailed imaging, especially for imaging soft tissues
1) MRI
2) MRI
3) CT
4) CT
5) CT
6) MRI
7) CT
8) MRI
201
If passes through perforation into body cavity, is not resorbed and may cause a granulomatous reaction
barium contrast
202
Possible toxicity a concern local irritant if perivascular
iodine contrast medium
203
Used to supplement or confirm information from plain films
special radiographic techniques
204
Substance that is either radiolucent or radiopaque can can be administered to the animal to increase radiographic contrast within the organ or system
contrast medium
205
Gases with low specific gravity
negative contrast
206
Barium or iodine
positive contrast
207
Uses both positive and negative contrast for optimal mucosal detail
double contrast study
208
Explain the applications of an M-mode ultrasound
Its used to measure the organs in motion
209
Why must you place a towel beneath a small animal's thorax when performing a cardiac ultrasound?
In order to position the heart and ribs so the heart is easier to get to
210
Explain when you would use a 7.5 MHz ultrasound probe on a patient
when the animal is small in size
211
What are the 3 roles with the staff for rehab and what do they do?
1) The veterinarian: maintains responsibility for the case
2) The physical therapist: trained in Animal Rehabilitation; consults and develops the therapeutic program and performs the treatment techniques and modalities
3) The veterinary technician: trained in Animal Rehabilitation, assist the hands-on care freeing the vet and the PT to see the next case
212
T/F Kennel confinement until rads show proof of healing of fracture.
true
213
Limb is retracted or folded, digit is bent, back or neck is arched
flexion
214
Limb reaches out, digit is extended and the back or neck is less arched dorsally or arched ventrally
extension
215
Moves in transverse plane so the distal part moves away from the midline of the body
abduction
216
Distal part moves towards the midline
adduction
217
Movement at a joint during which a bone or body segment outlines the surface of a cone or circle. Does not require rotation at the joint.
circumduction
218
External rotation of limb so that paw faces medially
Supination
219
Internal rotation of the limb so that paw faces laterally
pronation
220
____ defined as entire range of physiological movement
range of motion (ROM)
221
T/F Neutral is low stiffness, and allows motion to occur freely within certain range.
Elastic is measured from end of neutral to physiological limit and is a zone of higher stiffness.
true
222
Tissues most affected by immobilization are:
Cartilage, muscle, ligaments, tendon, bones
223
The veterinarian asses the patient every?
Baseline assessment prior to therapy-Fully assess q 2 weeks
224
What are some therapeutic exercises?
- Standing
- Slow walks
- Stair climbing
- Treadmill
- Aquatic therapy
225
If they are not toe touching day 1 post op then ____
adjust pain meds
226
How can you encourage weight shifting?
Weight shifting exercises can be started (bumping the opposite side to force weight on the surgical limb).
227
T/F One of the important long term goals of a TPLO is to build muscle strength in the quads and especially hamstring to help dampen tibial thrust.
true
228
What are some Chondroprotectants and Nutraceuticals?
- Glucosamine
| - Chondroitin sulfate
229
Treatment of the body and spirit of the animal as a unit rather than symptomatic treatment
Holistic Medicine
230
Treatment with alternative therapies in association with traditional Western modalities
Complementary Medicine
231
Any non-traditional modality
Alternative Medicine
232
1) Effleurage
2) Tapotement
3) Petrissage
4) Shiatsu
1) brushing
2) tapping
3) rolling and kneading
4) deep pressure along meridian lines
233
____ Causes complex cascade of body responses & release of various neurochemicals & hormones in CSF & bloodstream
acupuncture
234
Descartes’ divided the body into systems. Each one further divided and functions explained.
Western (allopathic)
235
Health and dz as interrelated dynamic processes. Dz is due to disharmony in body’s rhythms. Dx developed by patient observation, hx, full evaluation by all the senses.
Eastern
236
Yin-Yang Theory= all things being part of continuous cycle. Yin is ___, yang is ___.
cold, heat
