Animal Science Flashcards
To study for Industry Certification. (421 cards)
1
Q
The process of giving birth to an animal is called…
A
Parturition
2
Q
What should newborn mammals consume immediately after birth?
A
Colostrum
3
Q
A gestation period is the length of time from... A. Insemination to birth B. Insemination to fertilization C. Conception to birth D. Birth to one year of age
A
Conception to birth
4
Q
Artificial insemination is the primary breeding method used with... A. Turkeys B. Pigs C. Dairy Cows D. All of the above
A
Turkeys, pigs, and dairy cows (All of the above)
5
Q
A cow has a gestation period of approximately how many days?
A
283 days
6
Q
Bos indicus cattle are characterized by... A. Long ears B. Excess dewlap C. A humped-neck D. All of the above
A
All of the above
7
Q
A castrated bull is called a…
A
Steer
8
Q
Cattle have how many compartments in their stomachs?
A
Four
9
Q
Female cattle that have not calved are called…
A
Heifers
10
Q
Cattle from feedyards are taken to a processing plant when they reach an average weight of…
A
1,100-1,200 pounds
11
Q
Horses are used for... A. Recreational riding B. Racing C. Ranching operations D. All of the above
A
All of the above
12
Q
A castrated male horse is called a…
A
Gelding
13
Q
An uncastrated male horse, at least four years of age, is called a…
A
Stallion
14
Q
The process of a mare giving birth to a foal is called…
A
Foaling
15
Q
A female horse, at least four years of age, is called a…
A
Mare
16
Q
Mohair comes from the... A. Kashmir goat B. Boer goat C. Angora goat D. Nubian goat
A
Angora goat
17
Q
A goat known for its meat production is the…
A
Boer goat
18
Q
A sheep younger than one year of age is a…
A
Lamb
19
Q
A castrated male goat is a…
A
Wether
20
Q
Lanolin is produced from which part of the sheep?
A
The wool
21
Q
The average litter size for swine is... A. 1-3 piglets B. 2-5 piglets C. 6-8 piglets D. 9-12 piglets
A
9-12 piglets
22
Q
A female pig that has not had a litter of piglets is a…
A
Gilt
23
Q
What is the term used when a sow or gilt gives birth to a litter of piglets?
A
Farrowing
24
Q
A hog's internal organs closely resemble those of a A. Human B. Goat C. Sheet D. Both B and C
A
Human
25
```
Hogs are taken to the processing plant when they reach how many months of age?
A. 3-4 months
B. 4-6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months
```
4-6 months
26
```
Poultry refers to bird species such as
A. Chickens
B. Turkeys
C. Ducks and geese
D. All of the above
```
All of the above
27
```
A chicken between the ages of 6-8 weeks is a...
A. Pullet
B. Broiler or fryer
C. Hen
D. Chick
```
Broiler or fryer
28
```
The primary by-product from chickens is...
A. Blood
B. Bones
C. Variety Meats
D. Feathers
```
Feathers
29
```
A male chicken, at least eight months of age, is a...
A. Rooster or cock
B. Capon
C. Pullet
D. Broiler or Fryer
```
Rooster or Cock
30
How an animal gathers its food is known as...
Prehension
31
What is the difference in the mouth structure of cattle, sheep and goats compared to horses?
A. there is no difference
B. horses do not have upper incisors
C. cattle, sheep and goats have a dental pad instead of upper incisors
D. cattle, sheep and goats do not have a true tongue
C. Cattle, sheep and goats have a dental pad instead of upper incisors
32
What is the horse's organ of prehension?
lips
33
What is the chicken's organ of prehension?
beak
34
What is a human's organ of prehension?
hand
35
What is colic?
A. An enzyme that helps digest food
B. A digestive disorder
C. A medication given to ease abdominal pain
D. An additive included in most animal feed
A digestive disorder
36
```
In horses, most digestive disturbances result from...
A. underfeeding
B. overfeeding grains
C. too much water
D. overchewing hay
```
Overfeeding grains
37
What type of digestive systems do cattle, sheep and goats have?
ruminant
38
What is a part of a young ruminants stomach that allows milk to go straight from the rumen to the abomasum to be digested?
Reticular Groove
39
```
What are two important structures of a horse's digestive system?
A. stomach
B. reticulum
C. proximal colon
D. a and c
E. b and c
```
stomach and proximal colon
40
```
What is the cecum?
A. A blind sack
B. A site of microbial digestion
C. A thin-walled structure
D. All of the above
```
All of the above
41
```
Which of the following terms refers to the rear of an animal?
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Dorsal
D. Ventral
```
Posterior
42
```
What is the chicken's true stomach?
A. gizzard
B. proventriculus
C. crop
D. cloaca
```
proventriculus
43
```
Anterior refers to what part of an animal's body?
A. rear
B. belly
C. head
D. back
```
head
44
How many ceca do chickens have?
2
45
The cecum is comparable to what human organ?
appendix
46
```
Hairballs are...
A. undesirable
B. found in rumens
C. comprised mainly of hair
D. all of the above
```
all of the above
47
```
What is the function of the esophagus in ruminants?
A. carry material down
B. carry material back up
C. none of the above
D. a and b
```
to carry material down and back up (regurgitation)
48
```
Material leaving the reticulum would enter into what structure?
A. abomasum
B. omasum
C. small intestine
D. large intestine
```
omasum
49
```
What causes hairballs?
A. certain feeds
B. no one knows
C. animals are born with them
D. animals licking themselves
```
animals licking themselves
50
```
The integrated steps involved in assimilating food by the animal for use in tissue repair, growth and normal function is...
A. nutrition
B. nutrients
C. a diet
D. a ration
```
nutrition
51
A mixture of feedstuffs used to supply nutrition to an animal is...
a. a diet
b. feed
c. food
d. a ration
a diet
52
Nutrients consumed by humans in breads and vegetables are...
a. feed
b. food
c. a diet
d. a ration
food
53
Food for animal is called...
feed
54
```
Which of the following is an example of a monogastric?
A. steer
B. horse
C. lamb
D. deer
```
horse
55
```
The most important nutrient is...
A. protein
B. water
C. fat or oil
D. carbohydrates
```
water
56
For every pound of feed consumed by the animal...
A. 2-5 pounds of water will be consumed
B. 6-9 pounds of water will be consumed
C. 10-14 pound of water will be consumed
D. 15-18 pounds of water will be consumed
2-5 pounds
57
Water can be provided to animals by...
a. bowl waterers
b. automatic waterers
c. nipple waterers
d. all of the above
all of the above
58
What is fed to provide amino acids, but generally not used to provide energy?
a. protein
b. carbohydrates
c. fats
d. nutrients
protein
59
Minerals can be divided into...
a. 1 group
b. 2 groups
c. 3 groups
d. 4 groups
2 groups
60
Soybean meal and cottonseed meal are usually fed to provide...
a. fat
b. carbohydrates
c. protein
d. oil
protein
61
The most common and abundant cereal grain is...
a. wheat
b. corn
c. rye
d. barley
corn
62
The crude protein content of corn is...
a. 4-6%
b. 8-10%
c. 14-16%
d. 17-20%
8-10%
63
Triticale is a cross between...
a. rye and wheat
b. rye and corn
c. wheat and corn
d. wheat and barley
rye and wheat (It's a cover crop like rye and wheat so they crossed the two and triticale is what was a result)
64
The crude protein of grain sorghum is...
a. 4-6%
b. 8-12%
c. 13-15%
d. 16-20%
8-12%
65
Pelleting, hammermilling, rollermilling and steam flaking are examples of...
a. processing
b. extrusion
c. rations
d. diets
processing
66
The composition of the feed and the manufacturers location...
a. would not be listed anywhere
b. would be listed on the feed tag
c. would be listed on the sack
d. would be listed at the store
on the feed tag
67
Extrusion is used in the manufacturing of feed for...
a. horses
b. cattle
c. dogs and cats
d. sheep
dogs and cats
68
Processing...
a. improves nutrient availability
b. is not commonly used for livestock feed
c. saves time in preparing rations
d. decreases the nutrient availability
improves nutrient availability
69
Feed can be provided to the animal through...
a. feeders
b. lick tanks
c. range cubes
d. all of the above
all of the above
70
T/F Genetics is the science of heredity and variation.
true
71
T/F Genetics has a much greater effect on animals than their environment.
false
72
T/F When crossbred pea plants are self-pollinated, the offspring show a three short to one tall ration.
false
73
T/F Each parent contributes one gamete or sex cell to each of its offspring.
true
74
T/F All animals have the same number of chromosomes.
false
75
Which of the following is essential to cell functions and contains nuclear sap from which chromosomes arise?
a. chromatin
b. nucleus
c. gametes
d. allele
nucleus
76
Which of the following is a complex solution outside the cell nucleus contained by a cell membrane?
a. allele
b. cytoplasm
c. gametes
d. chromatin
cytoplasm
77
What is the material found in the nucleus which forms chromosomes?
a. chromatin
b. nuclear pores
c. nuclear envelope
d. nuclear lamina
chromatin
78
Which of the following is the molecule in which genes are located?
a. RNA
b. DNA
c. nucleotide
d. nucleus
DNA
79
Which of the following types of cell division results in two identical daughter nuclei?
a. meiosis
b. oogenesis
c. mitosis
d. spermatogenesis
mitosis
80
T/F Mitosis is defined as the division of a sex cell and results in four identical daughter cells.
false
81
T/F The letter "G" in G1 and G2 stands for "genetic."
false
82
Which of the following is NOT a phase of cell division?
a. G1
b. S phase
c. meiosis
d. M phase
meiosis
83
Which of the following is NOT a stage of M phase?
a. Prophase
b. Metaphase
c. Telophase
d. Interphase
Interphase
84
Which of the following structures forms attachments with the chromosomes during pro-metaphase?
a. mitotic apparatus
b. centrosome
c. gametes
d. nuclues
mitotic apparatus
85
Which of following species is most commonly identified by the use of the branding method?
a. cattle and horses
b. cattle and sheep
c. sheep and goats
d. horses and sheep
cattle and horses
86
Which of the following is most commonly used on sheep and cattle when participating in a sale or show?
a. hot branding
b. freeze branding
c. nose prints
d. neck chains
nose prints
87
In the horse industry, which of the following is applied to the upper lip?
a. hot iron brands
b. freeze brands
c. tattoos
d. electronic microchips
tattoos
88
What is an ear notch used for in the sheep industry?
a. Identifying lamp number
b. Identifying mother
c. Identifying culls
d. Identifying keeps
culls (Sheep that are going to the market)
89
Spiral bands are used in which of the following industries for identification?
a. swine
b. poultry
c. cattle
d. horse
poultry
90
Which of the following is indicated when notched in the right ear of pigs?
a. litter number
b. pig number
c. tag number
d. brand
litter number
91
Which number represents the birth year in System 1 of ID?
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
first
| System 1 is two digit birth year following by two digit offspring number of the year
92
In System 3 of animal ID, the birth year is represented by which of the following?
a. the number related to the month
b. the first number
c. the second number
d. a letter
a letter (it is assigned by the breed association for each year)
93
Which system assigns consecutive numbers for ID?
a. system 1
b. system 2
c. system 3
d. system 4
4
94
What are numbering systems used for in livestock operations?
a. to replace names of animals
b. to prove ownership
c. to identify animals
d. for buying pruposes
to identify animals
95
Which identification method is most commonly used in the swine industry?
a. toe-punching
b. ear tagging
c. ear notching
d. hot iron branding
ear notching
96
DNA analysis can be extracted from which of the following?
a. nasal swabs
b. retina scans
c. ear notching
d. freeze branding
nasal swabs
97
How many combinations are possible for toe-punching identification?
a. 20
b. 18
c. 16
d. 14
16
98
Which of the following breeds uses identification certificated for identification?
a. swine
c. cattle
c. sheep
d. horse
horse
99
Which of the following is NOT a typical identification method for livestock animals?
a. freeze branding
b. GPS tracking
c. tattooing
d. ear notching
GPS tracking
100
Which of the following is NOT a reason to use an animal identification system?
a. improves management and mating decisions
b. helps determine growth rates
c. provides easy access to record for each animal
d. provides disease control
provide disease control
101
Identification can ________ breed associations in registration.
a. aid
b. hurt
c. complicate
d. develop
aid
102
Which of the following is a voluntary identification program?
a. NAIS
b. AIN
c. PIN
d. USDA
NAIS (National Animal Identification System)
103
```
Which of the following is NOT a component required when participating in the voluntary identification program?
A. Premises registration
B. Animal Identification
C. Premises Orientation
D. ANimal tracing
```
Premises orientation
104
Which of the following is NOT considered as official identification for animals being transported interstate?
a. ear tag
b. nose print
c. brand
d. tattoo
nose print
105
```
Which year were the first livestock animals brought over to the New World?
A. 1400s
B. 1500s
C. 1492
D. 1493
E. 1462
```
1493
106
```
The Brahman breed would be an example of ___________ cattle.
A. Bos taurus
B. Bos indicus
C. Humped
D. Slick
E. Haired
```
Bos indicus
107
```
When animals are being used to pull loads, these animals are commonly referred
as __________ animals.
A. Draft
B. Strong
C. Haul
D. Sturdy
E. Heavy
```
draft
108
```
The ___________ industry is an example of a vertically integrated industry.
A. Beef
B. Pork
C. Lamb
D. Poultry
E. Horses
```
Poultry
109
```
With the use of ______________, breeders are able to prevent injuries to animals
as well as control the prodigy.
A. Technological advancements
B. Embryo transfer
C. Artificial insemination
D. Both B and C
E. Both A and C
```
Embryo Transfer and Artificial Insemination
110
CAFO stands for ______________________________.
A. Caring about feeding others
B. Concentrated animal feeding operations
C. Considerate animal feeding operations
D. Concise about feeding others
E. Careful animal feeding operations
Concentrated Animal Feeding Operations
111
```
Originally, fairs and shows were done in order for farmers to _____________.
A. Show their animals
B. Sell their animals
C. Breed their animals
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C
```
To show and sell their animals
112
```
All leftover fat and meat from the carcasses are referred to as ___________.
A. Waste
B. Trash
C. Trim
D. Extras
E. Leftovers
```
Trim
113
```
Plants which _________ meat are marked by an offensive odor and are often
far from people and towns.
A. Render
B. Process
C. Cook
D. Fabricate
E. None of the above
```
Render
114
```
Intramuscular fat is more commonly referred to as ____________.
A. Gristle
B. Connective tissue
C. Marbling
D. Fat
E. All of the above
```
marbling
115
```
Poor transportation can NOT cause which of the following health problems?
A. Stress
B. Bruising
C. Swine flu
D. Trampling
```
Swine Flu
116
```
Which of the following is the second step in swine hair removal?
A. Singeing
B. Scalding
C. Skinning
D. Tumbling machine
```
Tumbling machine
117
```
Antemortem inspection is done at which stage of the slaughter process?
A. Holding
B. Splitting
C. Grading
D. Transportation
```
Holding
118
```
Beef carcasses with B maturity are in which age group?
A. Over 96
B. 42 to 72
C. 72 to 96
D. 30 to 42
```
30-42 months
119
```
Which of the following animals was NOT included in the Humane Slaughter Act of
1958?
A. Cattle
B. Swine
C. Chicken
D. Horse
```
Chicken
120
```
Which beef cut is inexpensive and often used to feed a large number of people?
A. Shank
B. Round
C. Loin
D. Brisket
```
Brisket
121
```
Which cut of pork meat only has thin layers of lean meat?
A. Loin
B. Belly
C. Ham
D. Shoulder butt
```
Belly
122
```
The hot box is usually set between what temperature range?
A. 250 to 275°F (121 to 135°C)
B. 180 to 360°F (82 to 182°C)
C. 45 to 55°F (7 to 13°C)
D. 26 to 28°F (-3 to -2°C)
```
26-28 Degrees F
123
```
Which of the following used in the slaughter process increases color and tenderness in the meat?
A. Electric stimulators
B. Holding stage
C. Stunning
D. Evisceration
```
Electric stimulators
124
```
Which of the following is NOT a quality grade for young beef (A and B maturity)?
A. Prime
B. Choice
C. Cutter
D. Select
```
Cutter
125
Which of the following is the primary reason the National Animal Identification
Systems was developed?
A. To provide a record of ownership to ranchers
B. To help producers and officials in the event of disease outbreak
C. To aid breed associations in registrations
D. To improve management and mating decisions for livestock owners
To help producers and officials in the event of disease outbreak
126
```
Ear tags, brands, microchips and tattoos are official identification required for animals to move in which of the following ways?
A. Interstate
B. Nationally
C. Inner state
D. Locally
```
Interstate
127
```
Which of the following is a disadvantage of ear tagging?
A. Not weatherproof
B. Hard to read
C. Can be ripped from ear
D. Expensive
```
Can be ripped from ear
128
```
In numbering system 2, which of the following is branded above the birth year?
A. Animal weight
B. Animal number
C. Mother year
D. Mother number
```
animal number
129
```
Where is the brand placed in hot iron and freeze branding?
A. On the neck
B. On the rump
C. On the head
D. On the back
```
On the rump
130
```
In which of the following industries are neck chains most commonly used?
A. Dairy cattle
B. Horses
C. Dairy goats
D. Beef cattle
```
Dairy Cattle
131
```
In freeze branding, the branding iron is chilled with which of the following?
A. Liquid nitrogen
B. Ice water
C. Frozen salt
D. Cooling compound
```
Liquid nitrogen
132
```
Which of the following is NOT an identification method commonly used for swine?
A. Ear tag
B. Tattoo
C. Ear notch
D. Retina scan
```
retina scan
133
```
Ear tags are pierced between which of the following cartilage ribs of the ear?
A. Second and third
B. First and second
C. Third and fourth
D. Fourth and fifth
```
2nd and 3rd
134
```
Which of the following is NOT included as an electronic identification method?
A. Electronic ear tags
B. Electronic collars
C. Microchips or transponders
D. Electronic nose prints
```
Electronic nose prints
135
What does mastication mean?
a. eating
b. chewing
c. breathing
d. smelling
chewing
136
The teeth of what animal continue to grow throughout its life?
a. horse
b. cow
c. pig
d. sheep
horse
137
If a horse is overfed, the excess feed escapes into what organ?
a. small intestine
b. large intestine or proximal colon
c. stomach
d. gallbladder
small intestine
138
Monogastric animals...
a. have complex stomachs
b. are ruminants
c. have two stomachs
d. have simple stomachs
Have simple stomachs
139
What is another term used for proximal colon?
a. small intestine
b. large intestine
c. rumen
d. reticulum
large intestine
140
Bile is
a. an organ located in the lower GI tract
b. an acid found in the stomachs of ruminants
c. a liver secretion that aids in fat digestion
d. found only in monogastrics
a liver secretion that aids in fat digestion
141
Which compartment is the true stomach of a ruminant?
a. rumen
b. reticulum
c. omasum
d. abomasum
abomasum
142
The gizzard is
a. a highly muscular organ
b. found in chickens
c. used to grind feed
d. all of the above
all of the above
143
The cereal grain popular as a feed for horses is
a. grain sorghum
b. wheat
c. oats
d. barley
oats
144
Which cereal grain must be processed to provide nutrients to the animal?
a. grain sorghum
b. corn
c. wheat
d. barley
grain sorghum
145
The major source of energy for animals is
a. protein
b. carbohydrates
c. vitamins
d. minerals
Carbohydrates
146
Dietary essential nutrients would include
a. vitamins
b. minerals
c. some amino acids
d. all of the above
all of the above
147
The crude protein content of wheat is
a. six to seven percent
b. 8-10 percent
c. 13-14 percent
d. 16-18 percent
13-14%
148
The crude protein content of rye is
a. five to seven percent
b. 12-13 percent
c. 15-17 percent
d. 18-20 percent
12-13%
149
Daily supply of feed or food is a
a. diet
b. ration
c. basic nutrient
d. essential nutrient
ration
150
The USDA pork grades are one, two, three, four and utility.
A. True
B. False
False
151
```
______________ is the removal of the testicles from a male animal.
A. Ear notching
B. Ear tagging
C. Tail trimming
D. Castration
```
castration
152
```
______________ is the universal swine identification system.
A. Ear notching
B. Ear tagging
C. Tail trimming
D. Castration
```
ear notching
153
What is the gestation of swine?
3 months, 3 weeks, and 3 days (114 days)
154
```
_________________ is the period of time in a sow’s cycle when she is receptive to a boar for breeding purposes and the vulva is swollen and red.
A. Gestation
B. Farrowing
C. Castration
D. Estrus
```
Estrus
155
```
What is a main factor in selecting breeding hogs?
A. Muscling
B. Frame size
C. Structural correctness
D. Maternal traits
```
structural correctness
156
```
Which breed of pig is red with white faces, feet and underline?
A. Hampshire
B. Duroc
C. Hereford
D. Tamworth
```
hereford
157
```
_____________ is a form of ownership or strategic management where all or more than one section of an industry is combined under the same ownership.
A. Seedstock operation
B. Vertical integration
C. Farrow-to-finish
D. Farrow-to-nursery
```
vertical integration
158
```
What are the USDA grades for pork?
A. One, two, three, four
B. A, B, C, D
C. Prime, choice, grade, standard
D. Acceptable, utility
```
acceptable and utility
159
```
Which is a by-product of pork?
A. Pork fat
B. Pork skins
C. Insulin
D. All of the above
```
all of the above
160
```
Which is NOT wholesale cut of a pork carcass?
A. Brisket
B. Ham
C. Loin
D. Shoulder
```
Brisket (beef)
161
The underline is important only in females, as they should have a minimum of six evenly spaced nipples.
A. True
B. False
False (Boars pass on nipple placement characteristics too)
162
```
What management practices should be performed on the liter within the first two weeks of age?
A. Clipping needle teeth
B. Tails trimmed
C. Ears notched
D. All of the above
```
All of the above
163
```
Which type of operation farrows out and then sells the piglets at weaning?
A. Farrow-to-finish
B. Farrow-to-nursery
C. Seedstock
D. Show pigs
```
farrow to nursery
164
```
Which type of operation produces purebred breeding stock for purebred and commercial operations?
A. Farrow-to-finish
B. Farrow-to-nursery
C. Seedstock
D. Show pigs
```
Seedstock
165
```
Which type of barn is used for just weaned pigs?
A. Gestation house
B. Farrowing house
C. Finishing barn
D. Nursery
```
nursery
166
```
Pigs are _________________, meaning they have one true stomach.
A. Nonruminants
B. Ruminants
C. Bigastric
D. Trigastric
```
nonruminant
167
Typically a young animal requires a higher level of protein in the diet than does an adult.
A. True
B. False
true
168
```
The majority of swine breeds are believed to be descendants of the __________.
A. Berkshire
B. Yorkshire
C. Eurasian wild boar
D. All of the above
```
Eurasian wild boar
169
```
Which pig breed is solid white in color and has drooped ears?
A. Berkshire
B. Chester white
C. Duroc
D. Hampshire
```
chester white
170
```
3. Which breed is extremely long bodied and known for their maternal instincts?
A. Landrace
B. Chester white
C. Yorkshire
D. Berkshire
```
landrace
171
```
Which breed is black with a white belt behind its shoulders?
A. Duroc
B. Spot
C. Hampshire
D. Hereford
```
hampshire
172
```
________ is one of the largest breeds in production in America.
A. Landrace
B. Chester white
C. Yorkshire
D. Berkshire
```
Berkshire
173
```
Which of the following is the fastest growing division in the goat industry?
A. Meat
B. Milk
C. Fiber
D. Genetics
```
meat
174
```
According to the presentation, which of the following is the leading state in the
milk goat industry?
A. Texas
B. Oklahoma
C. California
D. New Mexico
```
California
175
```
The boer goat was imported to the United States in which of the following years?
A. 1990
B. 1992
C. 1993
D. 1997
```
1993
176
```
Which of the following is the fiber produced from the undercoat of a goat’s pelt?
A. Wool
B. Cashmere
C. Chevre
D. Mohair
```
Cashmere
177
```
Which benefit does goat milk have over cow milk?
A. Lower butterfat content
B. Higher butterfat content
C. More easily digested by humans
D. Broader product line
```
more easily digested by humans because of the lower protein content
178
```
Which goat breed undergoes a temporary paralysis when frightened?
A. Kiko
B. Myotonic
C. Alpine
D. LaMancha
```
Myotonic (TN fainting goats) LOLOLOL!
179
```
Which of the following goat breeds are seasonal breeders and tend to have single
kid crops?
A. Angora goats
B. Boer goats
C. Tennessee fainting goats
D. Nubian goats
```
Angora
180
```
Which breed is known for being used for both milk and meat production?
A. Boer
B. Angora
C. Nubian
D. Tennessee fainting goats
```
Nubian
181
```
Which of the following is a common fence used in a goat operation?
A. Barbed wire
B. Woven wire
C. Pipe
D. Wooden
```
Woven wire
182
```
Which of the following accounts for more than three-quarters of all livestock lost
to predators?
A. Coyotes & Dogs
B. Bears
C. Bobcats
D. Foxes
```
Coyotes and Dogs
183
```
Morgan is a producer and wants to identify her animals by an individual animal number as well as her operation identification. Which identification method should she use?
A. Ear tagging
B. Branding
C. Tattooing
D. Collars
```
tattooing
184
```
Which instrument is used to perform bloodless dehorning?
A. Burdizzo
B. Barnes dehorner
C. Heated iron
D. Clippers
```
Heated iron
185
```
Which of the following terms defines a castrated male goat?
A. Billy
B. Buck
C. Ewe
D. Wether
```
Wether
186
When should a goat’s hooves be trimmed?
A. When goats are shorn for the summer
B. When goats live on rough environmental terrain
C. When the sidewall of the hoof extends past the sole of the foot
D. When the hoof is even with the plane of the foot
When the sidewall of the hoof extends past the sole of the foot
187
```
Which stomach produces bacteria to break down roughages?
A. Rumen
B. Reticulum
C. Omasum
D. Abomasum
```
Rumen
188
```
Which of the following is considered the most intensive feeding program for a
goat producer?
A. Pasture grazing
B. Feed supplementation
C. Confinement feeding
D. Self-feeding
```
Confinement feeding
189
```
Which of the following is the most prevalent disease in goat operations?
A. Foot rot
B. Enterotoxemia
C. Soremouth
D. Ketosis
```
Enterotoxemia (Over eating disease)
190
```
Which of the following is a term meaning “a goat in estrus”?
A. Photoperiod
B. Puberty
C. Gestation
D. Standing heat
```
Standing heat (same in pigs)
191
```
Which method of breeding utilizes a superior female to enhance genetics of a
herd?
A. Selective breeding
B. Artificial insemination
C. Embryo transfer
D. Hand breeding
```
Embryo Transfer (Harvesting her eggs and implanting them into inferior females)
192
```
Which of the following diseases is caused by intestinal parasites found naturally
in most goats?
A. Foot rot
B. Soremouth
C. Coccidiosis
D. Ketosis
```
Coccidiosis
193
```
Which sheep breed classification is a cross breed between a fine wool breed and a long
wool breed?
A. Fine wool breeds
B. Medium wool breeds
C. Long wool breeds
D. Hair sheep breeds
```
medium wool breeds
194
```
Which type of operation is aimed toward maximizing production and market value of offspring?
A. Seedstock
B. Purebred
C. Commercial
D. All of the above
```
commercial
195
```
Which disease in sheep causes stones or crystals to be formed in the urinary tract?
A. Parasites
B. White muscle disease
C. Urinary calculi
D. Tetanus
```
Urinary calculi
196
```
The gestation or pregnancy length in sheep is ____ ______.
A. 148 days
B. 128 days
C. 168 days
D. 248 days
```
148 days (5 months)
197
```
Gestation ends with what is known as ____________, or birth.
A. Estrus
B. Dystocia
C. Colostrum
D. Parturition
```
parturition
198
```
___________ is known as removing the wool around the dock and mammary
glands.
A. Shearing
B. Clipping
C. Tagging
D. All of the above
```
tagging
199
```
Which of the following is a main factor when evaluating market lambs?
A. Weight
B. Finish
C. Muscle
D. All of the above
```
all of the above
200
```
Which is the most important when evaluating a wool fleece?
A. Grease fleece weight
B. Yield
C. Staple length
D. Fiber diameter
```
Grease fleece weight
201
```
_________________ is a term used to describe the period of pregnancy in animals, or the time from conception to birth.
A. Parturition
B. Colostrum
C. Gestation
D. Dystocia
```
gestation
202
```
Which disease causes stiffness or rigor in the body’s muscles?
A. Overeating disease
B. Tetanus
C. Urinary calculi
D. White muscle disease
```
tetanus
203
```
Which of the following is a viral disease which causes ulcerations and scabs around the lips and in the mouth of a sheep?
A. Urinary calculi
B. Sore mouth
C. White muscle disease
D. Coccidiosis
```
sore mouth
204
```
Which operation provides the genetics for which commercial sheep production systems are based?
A. Flock operations
B. Purebred operations
C. Commercial operations
D. All of the above
```
purebred operations
205
```
What is the average live weight for a slaughter lamb?
A. 100 lbs.
B. 120 lbs.
C. 140 lbs.
D. 200 lbs.
```
140 pounds
206
```
Which of the following is a quality grade for lamb carcasses?
A. Prime
B. Choice
C. Good
D. All of the above
```
all of the above
207
```
Which is the most common fence used in a sheep operation?
A. Net wire
B. Barbed wire
C. Pipe
D. Wooden
```
Net wire (like the poultry fence we used for the turkeys)
208
```
What year was the National Wool Act repealed?
A. 1976
B. 1986
C. 1996
D. 2006
```
1996
209
```
Which sheep breed classification produces wool fibers with a small fiber diameter and are known for their flocking instincts?
A. Fine wool breeds
B. Medium wool breeds
C. Long wool breeds
D. Prolific breeds
```
fine wool breeds
210
Which breed classification excels in feed efficiency, rate of gain and muscularity
and is also classified as meat type animals?
A. Fine wool breeds
B. Long wool breeds
C. Terminal sire breeds
D. Hair sheep breeds
terminal sire breeds
211
```
Which breed classification sheds their wool in the winter?
A. Fine wool breeds
B. Long wool breeds
C. Terminal sire breeds
D. Hair sheep breeds
```
Hair sheep
212
```
Which breed classification is known for their multiple births?
A. Fine wool breeds
B. Medium wool breeds
C. Long wool breeds
D. Prolific breeds
```
prolific breeds
213
```
Which is NOT a segment of the beef cattle industry?
A. Cow/calf
B. Farrow to finish
C. Stocker
D. Seedstock
```
Farrow to finish (Farrow is pigs)
214
```
____________ are a number estimate of breeding potential for characteristics, such as gain, muscling and maternal and carcass traits.
A. Sterotypes
B. EPDs
C. Genotypes
D. None of the above
```
EPDs
215
```
What is an advantage of synchronizing a cow herd?
A. Longer calving season
B. Results in a ununiform calf crop
C. More labor intensive
D. None of the above
```
Results in a ununiform calf crop
216
```
Which is the most intensely managed area of beef cattle production?
A. Reproduction
B. Calf management
C. Nutrition
D. Facilities
```
Nutrition
217
Breeding stock can receive implants.
A. True
B. False
False
218
It is much easier and less expensive to prevent sickness than to treat it.
A. True
B. False
True
219
```
Cattle have a ______________, or their own safety zone.
A. Fear zone
B. Bubble
C. Sight zone
D. Flight zone
```
Flight zone
220
What are some programs feedlot managers should establish to prevent water
and air pollution?
A. Control rainfall runoff
B. Manage solid manure
C. Maintain the feedlot surface
C. Operate wastewater handling facilities
E. All of the above
All of the above
221
Grazing operations have more runoff than feedlots.
A. True
B. False
False
222
```
Runoff is collected in ____________.
A. Rivers
B. Lakes
C. Swimming pools
D. Holding ponds
```
holding ponds (lagoons)
223
```
Which of the following is a way solid manure can be disposed of?
A. By applying it to crop land
B. By letting it blow away
C. By letting it runoff in water
D. All of the above
```
By applying it to crop land
224
```
How is dust controlled in feedlots?
A. By letting it blow away
B. By not exciting the cattle
C. By watering feedlot surfaces
D. None of the above
```
By watering feedlot surfaces
225
What is the purpose of providing mounds in feedlot pens?
A. Providing a dry place for cattle to stand
B. Help improve drainage
C. Provide a windbreak
D. All of the above
all of the above
226
```
What is an advantage of castration?
A. Increased performance and gain
B. Decreased performance and gain
C. An unhappy steer
D. None of the above
```
increased performance and gain
227
```
In which part of the body are cattle implanted?
A. Tail
B. Flank
C. Ear
D. Neck
```
Ear
228
```
At what age should a calf be weaned?
A. One year of age
B. Eight to ten months
C. Two to four months
D. Three to four weeks
```
8-10 months
229
```
Which is a top priority when evaluating breeding cattle?
A. Muscling
B. Balance
C. Structural correctness
D. Breed characteristics
```
structural correctness
230
```
Which is the best body condition score for breeding cattle and other species of livestock?
A. Two
B. Five
C. Nine
D. All of the above
```
5
231
```
Trouble giving birth is known as ____________.
A. Gestation
B. Parturition
C. Dystocia
D. Estrus
```
Dystocia
232
```
What causes wheat pasture poisoning in cattle?
A. Protein deficiency
B. Water deficiency
C. Magnesium deficiency
D. Calcium deficiency
```
magnesium deficiency
233
```
Cattle facilities should have what functions?
A. Safety
B. Ease to people
C. Control of cattle
D. All of the above
```
all of the above
234
```
Which type of fencing is used in cattle operations?
A. Electric wire
B. Barbed wire
C. Solid fencing
D. All of the above
```
all of the above
235
```
Seedstock producers are cow/calf producers who produce _________ for purebred or commercial operations.
A. Calves
B. Slaughter cattle
C. Breeding stock
D. Beef
```
breeding stock
236
```
What is the purpose of a feedlot?
A. Feed and fatten cattle
B. Breed cattle
C. Calf management
D. All of the above
```
feed and fatten cattle
237
```
Stocker operations purchase weanling calves from cow/calf producers and feed
them out on _______________.
A. Grain
B. Pasture land
C. Hay
D. Corn
```
pasture land
238
```
What is the final segment of the beef industry?
A. Cow/calf
B. Consumer
C. Retailer
D. Processor
```
consumer
239
```
What operation uses purebred breeding stock in crossbreeding programs to
produce commercial offspring?
A. Stocker
B. Seedstock
C. Feedlot
D. Cow/calf
```
Cow/calf
240
```
According to the presentation, inactivated vaccines are typically given in how
many doses?
A. One
B. Two
C. Six
D. Eight
```
two
241
```
According to the presentation, when giving a subcutaneous injection how long
should the needle be?
A. 1/2 to 3/4 of an inch
B. 1 inch
C. 1 to 1 1/2 inch
D. 3/4 to 1 inch
```
1 inch
242
```
Which of the following describes the term “gauge”?
A. Length of the needle
B. Consistency of the injection
C. Diameter of the needle
D. Injection type
```
Diameter of the needle
243
```
According to the presentation, which disease affects sheep and goats?
A. Atrophic Rhinitis
B. Bluetongue
C. Tuberculosis
D. Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis
```
Bluetongue
244
```
Barrels can be measured in which of the following units?
A. dL (deciliter)
B. cc (cubic centimeters)
C. cm (centimeters)
D. vol (volume)
```
CC
245
```
Which of the following diseases causes facial malformation?
A. Tetanus
B. Atrophic Rhinitis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis
```
Atrophic Rhinitis
246
```
According to the presentation, which of the following is NOT listed as a use for
intravenous injections?
A. Fluids
B. Electrolytes
C. Medicines
D. Vaccines
```
Vaccines
247
Which of the following is NOT included in the indication statement?
A. Amount of vaccination or medication to give
B. Frequency a vaccination or medication is given
C. Which vaccinations or medications are approved for each species
D. Amount of time it takes for a vaccination or medication to leave the
animal’s system
D. Amount of time it takes for a vaccination or medication to leave the
animal’s system
248
```
. A decrease in which of the following molecules decreases the effectiveness of a
vaccination or medication?
A. Fat molecules
B. Protein molecules
C. Carbohydrate molecules
D. Antigen molecules
```
Protein molecules
249
```
Modified-live vaccines come in how many vials?
A. One vial
B. Two vials
C. Three vials
D. Four vials
```
two vials
250
```
Which type of vaccine is created from a new combination of DNA?
A. Subunit
B. Modified-live
C. Inactivated
D. Killed
```
Subunit
251
```
Which type of vaccine has been altered with heat or
chemicals?
A. Modified-live
B. Subunit
C. Inactivated
D. Initial
```
Inactivated
252
```
Which of the following types of vaccines can multiply but cannot produce a
disease?
A. Inactivated
B. Subunit
C. Modified-live
D. Live
```
Modified Live
253
According to the segment, why are newborn animals NOT vaccinated when they
are born?
A. There are no vaccines for newborn animals
B. Vaccines are not safe for newborn animals
C. Animals are not vaccinated unless they are showing signs of illness
D. Maternal immunity will prevent vaccines from working
D. Maternal immunity will prevent vaccines from working
254
```
Which type of injection uses the “tenting” method?
A. Intramammary
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intravenous
D. Intramuscular
```
Sub Q
255
```
In which type of injection is it acceptable for blood to appear in the syringe before
administering the injection?
A. Subcutaneous
B. Intramuscular
C. Intravenous
D. Intramammary
```
Intraveneous
256
```
Which of the following is NOT an injection site listed in the segment for giving intramuscular injections to cattle?
A. Pectoral muscle
B. Thigh muscle
C. Gluteal muscle
D. Neck muscle
```
Pectoral muscle
257
According to the segment, where is the jugular groove located?
A. Between the esophagus and trachea
B. Between the esophagus and neck muscles
C. In front of the neck muscles
D. Between the trachea and neck muscles
Between the trachea and neck muscles
258
```
According to the segment, when giving an intramuscular injection, what gauge
needle should be used?
A. 16 to 18
B. 20 to 21
C. 14 to 16
D. 18 to 20
```
16-18
259
```
According to the segment, which of the following should be closely monitored for
withdrawal periods?
A. Vaccines
B. Antibiotics
C. Wormers
D. Nutritional supplements
```
Antibiotics
260
```
Which of the following devices pushes the vaccination solution or medication
through the needle and into the animal?
A. Barrel
B. Needle
C. Syringe
D. Plunger
```
Plunger
261
```
According to the segment, how often should an individual change needles when
worming cattle?
A. Every 10 cows
B. Every 5 cows
C. Every 15 cows
D. Every cow
```
Every 10 cows (needle gets really full by then)
262
Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning improper injection
techniques?
A. The animal will have partial immunity
B. Drug residues could be left in food-producing animals
C. The animal could suffer from nerve damage
D. The individual administering the injection could unintentionally be
injected
A. The animal will have partial immunity
263
```
At what temperature should vaccinations be stored?
A. 40° to 45°F (4° to 7°C)
B. 32° to 40°F (0° to 4°C)
C. 30° to 35°F (1° to 2°C)
D. 35° to 45°F (2° to 7°C)
```
35 to 45 degrees
264
According to the presentation, what could performing procedures on ill animals cause?
A. There will be no effect on the animals
B. The procedure will be harder to complete
C. The procedure will require additional sedation
D. The risks associated with the procedure increase
The risks associated with the procedure increase
265
```
Which procedure increases feed efficiency?
A. Dehorning
B. Castration
C. Teeth clipping
D. Lancing
```
Castration
266
```
According to the presentation, tail docking is primarily performed on which animals?
A. Cattle and sheep
B. Sheep and goats
C. Sheep and swine
D. Cattle and swine
```
Sheep and swine
267
According to the presentation, when should piglets’ teeth be clipped?
A. Within the first week of life
B. Within 24 hours after birth
C. Between 48 and 72 hours after birth
D. Teeth only need to be clipped if the piglets are fighting
Within the first 24 hours after birth
268
```
What procedure uses hydrotherapy to help heal wounds?
A. Dehorning
B. Lancing
C. Tail docking
D. Castrating
```
Lancing (Hydrotherapy is using water to wash out the open cut from the lancing)
269
```
Which method of castration is the most reliable?
A. Burdizzo
B. Surgical
C. Banding
D. All are equally effective
```
Surgical
270
```
Which species can only be castrated surgically?
A. Swine
B. Cattle
C. Sheep
D. Goats
```
Swine
271
```
After castrating an animal using a burdizzo, how long does it take for the testicles to shrivel?
A. Two to three weeks
B. Four to six weeks
C. Six to eight weeks
D. One to two weeks
```
4-6 weeks
272
```
Which of the following is NOT a type of hot iron
used for dehorning?
A. Furnace heated
B. 10-volt battery operated
C. 12-volt battery operated
D. 120-volt electric
```
120-volt electric
273
```
If used incorrectly, which tool could open the frontal sinus?
A. Caustic paste
B. Burdizzo
C. Cup or scoop dehorner
D. Spoon or tube dehorner
```
Cup or scoop dehorner
274
```
Teeth clipping is necessary in what species?
A. Cattle
B. Swine
C. Sheep
D. Goat
```
Swine
275
What could be a result of docking an animal’s tail too short?
A. It does not matter how short the tail is
B. Price reduction at market
C. Fly strike
D. Rectal prolapses
Rectal prolapses
276
```
How far from the base of the tail should a pig’s tail be docked?
A. 1 to 2 inches
B. 1 inch
C. 2 to 2 1/2 inches
D. 1/2 to 1 inch
```
1/2 to 1 inch
277
```
According to the segment, which of the following tools is NOT used for lancing?
A. Needle
B. Knife
C. Razor blade
D. Scalpel
```
Needle (Lancing is cutting open an abscess)
278
```
Which tool is commonly used to dock lamb tails?
A. Elastrator
B. Tail docker
C. Tooth clippers
D. Emasculator
```
Elastrator (think rubber bands (elastic))
279
```
When should disinfectants be used for surgery?
A. After the procedure
B. Before and after the procedure
C. During the procedure
D. Before the procedure
```
Before and after the procedure
280
```
Which of the following terms refers to only one testicle being dropped into the scrotum?
A. Inguinal hernia
B. Bilateral cryptorchidism
C. Unilateral cryptorchidism
D. Scrotal hernia
```
Unilateral cryptorchidism
281
```
When are boars castrated?
A. Between two and 21 days of age
B. After three months of age
C. Between four and 14 days of age
D. At one month of age
```
Between 4 and 14 days
282
```
According to the segment, which of the following methods of castration has the highest risk of maggot infestation?
A. Elastic bands
B. Burdizzo
C. Emasculator
D. Surgical
```
Elastic bands (rotting skin draws maggots)
283
```
Which of the following methods of castration allows the spermatic cord to be cut to remove it from the body?
A. Elastrator
B. Burdizzo
C. Emasculator
D. Lancing
```
Emasculator
284
```
According to the segment, which tool is used for dehorning weaned animals?
A. Chemical pastes
B. Scoop dehorners
C. Hot iron
D. Horn clippers
```
scoop dehorners
285
```
What is analgesia?
A. Inability to be numb
B. A sedative
C. Inability to feel pain
D. A surgical tool
```
Inability to feel pain
286
```
Which of the following is NOT a reason to dehorn animals?
A. Cosmetic appeal
B. Decrease carcass bruising
C. Increase space at feed trough
D. Increase effective handling
```
Cosmetic appeal
287
```
Which of the following refers to the term “caustic”?
A. A chemical paste
B. Having the ability to destroy tissue
C. Making an incision
D. Removing horns
```
Having the ability to destroy tissue
288
```
Which of the following dehorning methods should NOT be performed during fly season?
A. Chemical paste
B. Hot iron
C. Emasculator
D. Scoop
```
Scoop
289
```
Which of the following parasites has a spherical shape?
A. Cocci
B. Bacilli
C. Spirilli
D. Bacci
```
Cocci
290
```
Which of the following systems protects and supports the body tissues and organs?
A. Endocrine
B. Skeletal
C. Circulatory
D. Integumentary
```
Skeletal
291
```
Which of the following systems defends the body against infectious organisms and other invaders?
A. Respiratory system
B. Integumentary system
C. Immune system
D. Endocrine system
```
Immune System
292
```
Which of the following systems pumps and delivers blood to organs throughout the body?
A. Endocrine system
B. Circulatory system
C. Respiratory system
D. Digestive system
```
Circulatory System
293
```
Which type of medication is most commonly used to treat parasitic infections?
A. Penicillin
B. Antibiotics
C. Anthelmintics
D. Aspirin
```
Anthelmintics
294
```
Which of the following parasites may grow up to 10 to 12 feet long?
A. Ringworm
B. Lungworm
C. Roundworm
D. Tapeworm
```
Tapeworm
295
```
Which of the following parasites are also known as ascarids?
A. Whipworm
B. Roundworm
C. Liver fluke
D. Lungworm
```
roundworms
296
```
Which of the following parasites burrow holes through the intestinal wall and then goes to lungs where they mature?
A. Lungworms
B. Liver flukes
C. Strongyles
D. Pinworms
```
Lungworms
297
```
Which of the following parasites larvae burrow holes into arteries and internal organs?
A. Lungworms
B. Liver flukes
C. Strongyles
D. Pinworms
```
Strongyles
298
```
Which of the following parasites lay eggs around the rectum of horses?
A. Lungworm
B. Pinworm
C. Whipworm
D. Roundworm
```
Pinworms (The pin bones are next to the rectum hense why they call them pinworms)
299
```
Which of the following parasites eggs hatch and migrate into nasal chambers and sinuses?
A. Nasal bots
B. Flies
C. Mites
D. Lice
```
nasal bots
300
```
Which of the following parasites lays eggs on the hair of the rear legs on animals?
A. Bots
B. Mites
C. Lice
D. Heel flies
```
Heel flies
301
```
Which of the following parasites can cause skin problems such as scabies, scabs, mange or barn itch?
A. Lice
B. Mites
C. Flies
D. Horse bots
```
mites
302
```
Which of the following parasites are small arachnids which feed on the blood of animals?
A. Lice
B. Mites
C. Ticks
D. Flies
```
Ticks
303
```
Which of the following parasites life cycles includes adults laying and gluing eggs to hair follicles, then eggs hatch in one to two weeks and become adults in two to
four weeks?
A. Mites
B. Ticks
C. Flies
D. Lice
```
Lice
304
```
Which of the following parasites glue onto the mouths of horses when rubbed or bitten and enter the stomach and attach to the wall?
A. Horse bots
B. Nasal bots
C. Lice
D. Heel flies
```
Horse bots
305
```
Which of the following are also known as cattle grubs?
A. Lice
B. Mites
C. Ticks
D. Heel flies
```
heel flies
306
```
Which of the following parasites adults lay eggs on skin of an animal, then hatch, feed on the skin and reach adult stage in about 12 days?
A. Lice
B. Ticks
C. Flies
D. Mites
```
Mites
307
```
Which of the following parasites completes their life cycle by mating, engorging from feeding, then dropping to the ground to lay eggs in the environment?
A. Lice
B. Mites
C. Ticks
D. Roundworms
```
ticks
308
```
Which of the following parasites larva must attach to a snail to complete their life cycle and then encyst on water plants eaten by livestock?
A. Lungworms
B. Liver flukes
C. Strongyles
D. Pinworms
```
Liver flukes (Flukes live in water)
309
```
Which of the following parasites has segments containing eggs which break off and are passed with feces, then the eggs are eaten by mites and develop until eaten by a major host?
A. Tapeworms
B. Lungworms
C. Roundworms
D. Liver flukes
```
tapeworm
310
```
Which of the following parasites adults live in the cecum where they lay eggs to be passed with feces then eggs are eaten and hatch?
A. Pinworms
B. Whipworms
C. Tapeworms
D. Lungworms
```
Whipworm
311
```
Which of the following parasites are also known as blood worms?
A. Whipworms
B. Liver flukes
C. Strongyles
D. Roundworms
```
Strongyles
312
```
Which body system produces hormones which regulate metabolism?
A. Immune system
B. Respiratory system
C. Digestive system
D. Endocrine system
```
Endocrine system
313
```
Which of the following digestive systems is also known as polygastric?
A. Ruminant
B. Non-ruminant
C. Monogastric
D. Hindgut fermenter
```
ruminant
314
```
Larry is a producer and wants to save time when planning his artificial insemination program. He is able to control the ovulation in all his female recipients. This process is referred to as _____________.
A. Control birthing
B. Ovulation sequence
C. Selective mating
D. Estrus synchronization
E. None of the above
```
Estrus synchronization
315
```
CIDR stands for_____________.
A. Compound Implant Does Recipient
B. Controlled Intravaginal Drug Release
C. Controlled Intramuscular Does Release
D. Compound Implant Drug Recipient
```
Controlled Intravaginal Drug Release
316
```
Producers use a _____________ to determine ovulation in sheep and goats.
A. Scalpel
B. Stethoscope
C. Ultrasound
D. Laparoscope
E. Both C and D
```
ultrasound and laparoscope
317
```
Sarah is a swine producer and wants to incorporate a new breeding method in her operation. Which method is most commonly used in the swine industry?
A. Artificial insemination
B. Embryo transfer
C. Natural selection
D. Cloning
E. Both B and C
```
Artificial Insemination
318
```
When collecting semen from a boar, the collection container should be filled with water at ______________.
A. 38°C (100°F)
B. 35°F (2°C)
C. 45°F (7°C)
D. 43°C (109°F)
```
100 degrees F
319
```
Josh is analyzing the semen he collected from his bull. Which characteristic is he considering?
A. Appearance
B. Concentration
C. Morphology
D. Motility
E. All of the above
```
All of the Above
320
```
Which is a technique producers use for collecting semen in cattle?
A. Gloved-hand technique
B. Artificial insemination
C. Electroejaculation
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
```
Electroejaculation
321
```
How is artificial insemination performed on horses?
A. Surgically
B. Microscopically
C. Both A and B
D. Vaginally
E. None of the above
```
Vaginally
322
```
The process of cloning when the donor cell is fused with the oocyte is called ____________.
A. Incubation
B. Electrofusion
C. Electroporation
D. Cell manipulation
E. Hybridoma
```
Electrofusion
323
Which breeding technology utilizes gene banking?
A. Cloning
B. Artificial insemination
C. Embryo transfer
D. All technologies utilize gene banking
E. None of the above
cloning
324
```
Which of the following pathogens can NOT reproduce without a host and consists of DNA and RNA?
A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Fungi
D. Protozoa
```
Viruses
325
```
Which of the following pathogens lives in soil, air, water and plants?
A. Bacteria
B. Protozoa
C. Viruses
D. Fungi
```
Fungi
326
```
Which of the following systems defends the body against infectious organisms and other invaders?
A. Respiratory system
B. Integumentary system
C. Immune system
D. Endocrine system
```
Immune System
327
```
Which of the following diseases is also known as gastritis?
A. Hardware disease
B. White muscle disease
C. Milk fever
D. Lactic acidosis
```
Hardware disease
328
```
Which of the following diseases is a result of a selenium and/or vitamin E deficiency?
A. Milk fever
B. Lactic acidosis
C. White muscle disease
D. Enterotoxemia
```
White muscle disease
329
```
Which of the following is also known as hypocalcemia?
A. Lactic acidosis
B. Colic
C. Milk fever
D. Overeating disease
```
Milk Fever (Not having enough calcium)
330
```
Which of the following is the general term used for abdominal pain?
A. Colic
B. Milk fever
C. White muscle disease
D. Enterotoxemia
```
colic
331
```
Which of the following is a serious and often fatal metabolic disorder caused by low levels of magnesium in the blood?
A. Colic
B. Grass tetany
C. Milk fever
D. Bloat
```
Grass Tetany (Make sure you have a Magnesium salt block sitting out for the cows in the spring.)
332
```
Which of the following is an incurable wasting disease of cattle?
A. Foot rot
B. Black leg
C. Johne’s disease
D. Colic
```
Johne's disease
333
```
Zinc sulfate or copper sulfate footbaths are used to treat which of the following
diseases?
A. Johne’s disease
B. Entertoxemia
C. Black leg
D. Foot rot
```
Foot rot
334
```
Which of the following diseases damages the cornea and conjunctiva?
A. Erysipelas
B. Pinkeye
C. Strangles
D. Vibriosis
```
pinkeye
335
```
Which of the following diseases is also known as “bangs disease”?
A. Foot rot
B. Leptospirosis
C. Brucellosis
D. Erysipelas
```
Brucellosis
336
```
Which of the following is one of the most common diseases in cattle and affects the respiratory tract?
A. Bovine respiratory disease
B. Johne’s disease
C. Strangles
D. Brucellosis
```
Bovine respiratory Disease (BVR)
337
```
Which of the following diseases affects the fetus of a pregnant sow and often times causes fetus mummification?
A. Sore mouth
B. Blue tongue
C. Porcine parvovirus
D. Porcine circovirus
```
Porcine Parvovirus
338
```
Which of the following diseases is transmitted by blood feeding flies and contact with fomites?
A. Avian influenza
B. Sore mouth
C. Blue tongue
D. Bovine virus diarrhea
```
Bovine virus diarrhea (BVD)
339
```
Which of the following diseases causes blisters in the mouth and excessive salivation?
A. Bluetongue
B. Porcine circovirus
C. Foot and mouth disease
D. Sore mouth
```
Foot and mouth disease
340
```
Which of the following diseases has two different virus strains?
A. Porcine circovirus
B. Bluetongue
C. Foot and mouth disease
D. Sore mouth
```
Porcine circovirus
341
```
Which of the following causes vesicles to appear on lips, gums and tongue, causing redness or swelling?
A. Bluetongue
B. Porcine circovirus
C. Sore mouth
D. Avian influenza
```
sore mouth
342
```
Which of the following is also known as club lamb fungus?
A. Mange
B. Ringworm
C. Ascaris
D. Facial eczema
```
Ringworm
343
```
Which of the following is a type of sunburn?
A. Mange
B. Ringworm
C. Ostertagious
D. Facial eczema
```
Facial eczema
344
```
Which of the following parasites causes scabs, lesions and hair loss?
A. Coccidiosis
B. Mange
C. Ascaris
D. Ostertagious
```
mange
345
```
Which of the following is also known as wire worm?
A. Haemonchus contortus
B. Coccidiosis
C. Ostertagious
D. Ascaris
```
Haemonchus contortus
346
Which of the following parasites is the principal worm parasite of beef and dairy
cattle and attacks the lining of the abomasum?
A. Ascaris
B. Haemonchus contortus
C. Ostertagious
D. Coccidiosis
Ostertagious
347
```
Which of the following diseases is also known as hairlessness?
A. Cryptorchidism
B. Hypotrichosis
C. Mulefoot
D. Porcine stress syndrome
```
Hypotrichosis
348
```
Which of the following diseases occurs when two toes are joined together to create only one toe?
A. Mulefoot
B. Spider lamb syndrome
C. HYPP
D. Hypotrichosis
```
Mulefoot
349
```
Which of the following diseases has symptoms which include infertility and failure to produce sperm?
A. Cryptorchidism
B. Hypotrichosis
C. Mulefoot
D. Porcine stress syndrome
```
Cryptorchidism
350
```
Which of the following is a muscle disease found in Quarter Horses?
A. Hypotrichosis
B. Spider lamb syndrome
C. Mulefoot
D. HYPP
```
HYPP
351
```
Which of the following diseases cause muscle and tail tremors, reddened skin and increased body temperature in pigs?
A. Spider lamb syndrome
B. Mulefoot
C. Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
D. Porcine stress syndrome
```
Porcine Stress Syndrome
352
```
Which of the following CANNOT cause disease?
A. Fungi
B. Viruses
C. Vitamins
D. Parasites
```
Vitamins
353
```
Nutrient deficiencies are NOT caused by a lack of which of the following?
A. Liquids
B. Vitamins
C. Minerals
D. Protein
```
Liquids
354
```
A cocci bacterium is shaped like which of the following?
A. Rod
B. Spiral
C. Spherical
D. Circular
```
Spherical
355
```
Which of the following is the study of fungi?
A. Organism
B. Mycology
C. Polypore
D. Mushroom
```
Mycology
356
```
Which disease is caused by a spore forming bacterium?
A. Blackleg
B. Lactic acidosis
C. Foot and mouth disease
D. Bovine virus diarrhea
```
Blackleg
357
```
Which of the following is a disease which can only be transmitted through insects?
A. Blackleg
B. Ringworm
C. Bluetongue
D. Foot rot
```
Bluetongue (mosquitos)
358
```
Foot rot is caused by which of the following?
A. Anaerobic bacteria
B. Proper management
C. Soil fungus
D. Poor digestive health
```
Anaerobic bacteria
359
```
Which of the following is a common symptom among viral diseases?
A. Fever
B. Frequent urination
C. Hyperactivity
D. Vomiting
```
Fever
360
Which of the following is NOT a step when designing a breeding program?
A. Setting goals
B. Choosing and weighing traits
C. Choosing offspring
D. Devising a strategy for selecting parents
Choosing offspring
361
```
For which of the following EPD figures is a negative number more desirable?
A. Days to 250 and Backfat
B. Days to 250 and Loin Eye Area
C. Backfat and Pounds of Lean
D. Pounds of Lean and Days to 250
```
Days to 250 and Backfat
362
```
Which of the following is NOT a way to select parents in a breeding program?
A. Grading up
B. Visual selection
C. Pedigree
D. Expected Progeny Differences
```
Grading Up
363
Which of the following is NOT a result of inbreeding?
A. Surfacing of deleterious gene
B. increase uniformity
C. Noticeable improvement of fourth generation
D. Reduction in performance
Noticeable improvement of fourth generation
364
```
Which system is the mating of animals of different breeds?
A. Grading up
B. Crossbreeding
C. Inbreeding
D. Linebreeding
```
Crossbreeding
365
```
What is the proper term for the measure of how inbred an animal is?
A. Inbreeding coefficient
B. Inbreeding measurement
C. Inbred ratio
D. Inbreeding results
```
Inbreeding coefficient
366
```
What is the value of an animal as a parent?
A. Grading up
B. Breeding value
C. Hybrid vigor
D. Inbreeding coefficient
```
Breeding Value
367
```
Which system consists of breeding purebred sires to commercial females?
A. Inbreeding
B. Linebreeding
C. Cross breeding
D. Grading up
```
Grading Up
368
The composite breeding system combines desirable traits of how many breeds of cattle?
A. One
B. Two
C. Two or more
D. There is no such thing as a composite breeding system
Two or more
369
```
Which crossbreeding system produces replacement females through the rotation and produces crossbred offspring?
A. Inbreeding coefficient
B. Inbreeding measurement
C. Inbred ratio
D. Inbreeding results
```
Inbreeding coefficient
370
```
How does the modified static system differ from the static system?
A. Produces replacement females
B. Produces replacement males
C. Produces terminal sires
D. Produces terminal dams
```
produces replacement females
371
```
In a two breed rotational crossbreeding system, which generation and sire will have a 75 percent Breed A and 25 percent Breed B?
A. First generation; Breed B
B. Second generation; Breed A
C. Third generation; Breed B
D. Fourth generation; Breed A
```
2nd generation
372
In a static crossbreeding system, which of the following is true regarding replacement females?
A. Purchased or produced in a separate population
B. Purchased or produced in same operation
C. Produced in a rotational crossbreeding system
D. Purchased from a composite breeding system
Purchased or produced in a separate population
373
Which of the following is NOT considered an advantage of embryo transfer?
A. Greater use of genetically superior females
B. Decreases time and supervision of female herd
C. Fast way to acquire offspring for progeny testing
D. Allow females with long gestation periods to meet their genetic
material
Decreases time and supervision of female herd
374
```
Pen mating is mostly used by which of the following?
A. Commercial breeders
B. Purebred breeders
C. Inbreeding breeders
D. Small operations
```
Commercial breeders (Having a bull for your cows in the pasture)
375
```
What is the first step in the process of AI?
A. Select the bull
B. Detect when female is in heat
C. Introduce semen into uterus
D. Collect semen
```
Select the bull
376
```
What is the process by which semen from the male is placed in the reproduction tract of the female through methods other than natural service?
A. Hand mating
B. Embryo transfer
C. Stud mating
D. Artificial insemination
```
Artificial insemination
377
```
Which mating system results in maximum breeding by a superior male?
A. Pen mating
B. Stud mating
C. Hand mating
D. Embryo transfer
```
stud mating
378
What is the first step in developing a breeding program?
A. Setting goals
B. Choosing and weighing traits
C. Determining measurement
D. Devising a strategy for selecting parents
setting goals
379
```
What type of breeding system is designed to take advantage of both hybrid vigor and breeding value?
A. Pure breeding
B. Impure breeding
C. Crossbreeding
D. Multi-breeding
```
Crossbreeding
380
In which type of crossbreeding system must replacement females be purchased
from or produced in a separate environment?
A. Rotational crossbreeding system
B. Static crossbreeding system
C. Rotational-terminal crossbreeding system
D. Modified static crossbreeding system
Static crossbreeding system
381
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of artificial insemination?
A. Decrease spread of disease
B. Increase the number of offspring from a superior sire
C. Identifies the sire for fertility
D. Increases the number of sires needed
Increases the number of sires needed
382
```
What method of breeding is used to develop specialized “lines” of animals?
A. Inbreeding
B. Crossbreeding
C. Pure breeding
D. Multi-breeding
```
Inbreeding
383
Selection of which parent is more important when a producer is developing a breeding program?
A. Sire selection
B. Dam selection
C. Selection of both parents is equally important
D. Selection of the parents is not important
Sire selection
384
```
If you chose grading up as the method of breeding for your operation, what generation would you see the most evidence of improvement?
A. Second generation
B. Third generation
C. Fourth generation
D. Fifth generation
```
4th generation
385
What is hybrid vigor?
A. Crossbred offspring exceeds the average of the two parental breeds
B. The value of an animal as a parent
C. The performance expected from the progeny of each sire or dam
D. The mating of related individuals in which the sire and dam share at least one ancestor
Crossbred offspring exceeds the average of the two parental breeds
386
```
What two types of breeding systems are generally used by individuals in the purebred industry?
A. Inbreeding and linebreeding
B. Crossbreeding and inbreeding
C. Crossbreeding and linebreeding
D. Half breeding and full breeding
```
inbreeding and linebreeding
387
```
What method of breeding can increase conception rates by five to ten percent?
A. Artificial breeding
B. Stud mating
C. Pen mating
D. Hand mating
```
hand mating
388
```
What is meiosis called in males?
A. Mitosis
B. Oogenesis
C. Spermatogenesis
D. Homologous
```
Spermatogenesis
389
```
What is meiosis called in females?
A. Mitosis
B. Oogenesis
C. Spermatogenesis
D. Homologous
```
Oogenesis
390
What are the products of meiosis in females?
A. One ovum and two or three polar bodies
B. Two ova and two or three polar bodies
C. One ovum and three or four polar bodies
D. Two ovum and three or four polar bodies
One ovum and two or three polar bodies
391
```
What are the products of meiosis in males?
A. Eight functional haploid cells
B. Four functional haploid cells
C. Two functional haploid cells
D. One functional haploid cell
```
Four functional haploid cells
392
```
The exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes is known as which of the following?
A. DNA
B. Crossing over
C. RNA
D. Allele
```
Crossing over
393
The sex of an animal is determined at fertilization.
A. True
B. False
True
394
In mammals, the male carries a set of identical chromosomes for sex
determination.
A. True
B. False
False
395
After meiosis, half of the sperm and half of the eggs carry the Y chromosome.
A. True
B. False
False
396
If a lamb's chromosomes are XY, then it will be a male.
A. True
B. False
True
397
If a chicken's chromosomes are ZW, then it will be a female?
A. True
B. False
True
398
The functions of genes are to reproduce themselves and provide codes for protein synthesis.
A. True
B. False
True
399
Genes are parts of the chromosomes which control the development of certain characteristics.
A. True
B. False
True
400
DNA is composed of deoxyribose, phosphoric acid and six nitrogen bases.
A. True
B. False
False (4 nitrogen bases)
401
```
The structure formed by deoxyribose, phosphoric acid and a nitrogen base is called which of the following?
A. Nucleotide
B. Ribosome
C. Amino acid
D. Helix
```
nucleotide
402
```
Which of the following is NOT one of the nitrogen bases found in DNA?
A. Guanine
B. Thymine
C. Adenine
D. Lysine
```
Lysine
403
```
In the pairing of the nitrogen bases, which base always pairs with cytosine?
A. Adenine
B. Guanine
C. Thymine
D. Pyrimidine
```
Guanine
404
```
In RNA, the nitrogen base thymine is replaced by which of the following bases?
A. Adenine
B. Cytosine
C. Guanine
D. Uracil
```
Uracil
405
```
Which of the following is a type of RNA which carries the code for protein synthesis to the cytoplasm?
A. Messenger RNA
B. Ribosomal RNA
C. Transfer RNA
D. Sender RNA
```
Messenger RNA
406
```
What is the structure which combines amino acids to form proteins?
A. Nucleus
B. Vesicle
C. Ribosome
D. Vacuole
```
Ribosome
407
```
Which of the following is a type of RNA which reads the code and carries amino acids through the cytoplasm?
A. Messenger RNA
B. Ribosomal RNA
C. Transfer RNA
D. Sender RNA
```
Transfer RNA
408
Genetics makes it possible for organisms to pass their characteristics on to their offspring.
A. True
B. False
True
409
Genotype and phenotype are essentially the same.
A. True
B. False
False
410
```
What is the genetic makeup of an organism called?
A. Phenotype
B. Genotype
C. Heredity
D. Homologous
```
Genotype
411
```
Which of the following is the actual physical appearance of an organism?
A. Phenotype
B. Genotype
C. Heredity
D. Homologous
```
Phenotype (Physical)
412
```
Who is the man known to be responsible for the five basic rules of genetics?
A. Oliver Mendel
B. Gregor Mendel
C. Gregor Mandela
D. Ivan Pavlov
```
Gregor Mendel
413
```
In what molecule are genes located?
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. mRNA
D. Chromosomes
```
DNA
414
```
Which of the following is the type of cell division by which somatic cells
divide?
A. Meiosis
B. Mitosis
C. Oogenesis
D. Spermatogenesis
```
mitosis
415
```
Which of the following refers to the number of chromosomes in a sex cell which is half of the original number?
A. Diploid
B. Haploid
C. Gametes
D. Chromatin
```
Haploid
416
```
In meiosis, crossing over of chromosomes results in a healthy population because of which of the following?
A. Prophase
B. Genetic variability
C. Mitosis
D. Homologous chromosomes
```
Genetic variability
417
```
Which of the following chromosome pairings would a normal female duck have?
A. XY
B. XX
C. ZW
D. ZZ
```
ZW
418
```
The DNA molecule is usually found in what form?
A. Double helix
B. Single strand
C. Hexagon
D. Nucleotide
```
Double helix
419
```
Which of the following nitrogen bases is NOT found in RNA?
A. Uracil
B. Thymine
C. Adenine
D. Guanine
```
Thymine
420
```
In what structure are proteins produced?
A. Ribosome
B. Nucleus
C. DNA molecule
D. Cell wall
```
Ribosomes
421
```
Which of the following is determined by both genetics and environment?
A. Genotype
B. Genetic variability
C. Phenotype
D. Oogenesis
```
phenotype
