ANS Control of BP Flashcards

1
Q

What is systolic BP

A

pressure inside the arteries when the heart pumps

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2
Q

What is diastolic BP

A

pressure when the heart relaxes between beats

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3
Q

Normal BP

S: less than ___
AND
D: less than ___

A

120, 80

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4
Q

Elevated BP

S: ___ - ___
AND
D: less than ___

A

120-129
80

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5
Q

High BP Stage 1

S: ___ - ___
OR
D: ___ - ___

A

130-139
80-89

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6
Q

High BP Stage 2

S: ___ or higher
OR
D: ___ or higher

A

140
90

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7
Q

Hypertensive Crisis

S: higher than ___
and/or
D: higher than ___

A

180
120

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8
Q

HTN

S: > ___ mmHg
D: > ___ mmHg
Resting Pulse Pressure (SBP-DBP) > ___ mmHg
- a pulse pressure > ___ mmHg is unhealthy
- a pulse pressure > ___ is a risk factor for heart disease, especially for old people
- often asymptomatic (may experience ___ or ___ )

A
  • 130
  • 80
  • 65
  • 40
  • 60
  • dizziness, headaches
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9
Q

relationship between blood pressure and age

T or F: by age 60, the average systolic blood pressure of women exceeds that of men

A

True

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10
Q

as you get older
- ___ decreases
- ___ inreases

A
  • cardiac output
  • peripheral resistance
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11
Q

Classifications of HTN

Primary
- ___ - ___ % of all cases, no identifiable cause

Secondary
- has a cause

A

85-90%

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12
Q

Causes of Secondary HTN

  • ___ disease, ___ artery constriction
  • tumor
  • ___ disease
  • coarctation of the ___
  • pregnancy
  • medication adverse effects
A

kidney, renal
endocrine
aorta

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13
Q

Causes of Secondary HTN

acronym
ABCDE

A
  • aldosteronism
  • bad kidneys
  • Cushing’s/Coarctation
  • drugs
  • endocrine disorders
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14
Q

PCOL Strategies for reducing Risk of HTN

BP = ___ x ___
- reduce ___
- reduce vascular ___ (vaso dilation, decrease blood volume)

A
  • cardiac output (CO), peripheral vascular resistance (TPR)
  • CO
  • resistance
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15
Q

Which of the following will have the greatest impact on the management of HTN
A) addition of 2 glasses of wine with dinner
B) addition of whole milk to diet
C) reduction in red meat
D) replacement of table salt with kosher salt
E) weight reduction

A

E) weight reduction

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16
Q

T or F: HTN does not self resolve and must be treated for life

A

True

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17
Q

races most affected by HTN (highest % to lowest)

A
  • black
  • white
  • asian
  • hispanic
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18
Q

CO = ___ x ___

A
  • stroke volume (SV)
  • HR
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19
Q

SV is determined by:
- cardia ___
- venous return to the heart ( ___ )
- ___ to the left ventricle must overcome to eject blood into the aorta ( ___ )

A
  • contractility
  • preload
  • resistance
  • afterload
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20
Q

Parasympathetic = ___
- endogenous neurotransmitter: ___
- exogenous: ___ and ___

Sympathetic = ___
- endogenous neurotransmitters: ___ and __

A

cholinergic
- ACh
- muscarine, nicotine

adrenergic
- Norepinephrine, epinephrine

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21
Q

Adrenergic receptors

a1 = ___ coupled
B = ___ coupled
a2 = ___ coupled

alpha control ____
beta control ___ stimulation

A

Gq
Gs
Gi
- vasoconstriction
- cardiac

a1 is the most involved in vasocontriction, not really a2

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22
Q

epinephrine binds stronger to ___ than ___

norepinephrine has strong ___ , doesnt really affect heart

A

beta, alpha
vasocontriction

a1 is the most involved in vasocontriction, not really a2

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23
Q

T or F: the vasculature is controlled only by the PSNS

A

FALSE FALSE FALSE
- SNS

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24
Q

vascular smooth muscle

which two receptors are highly populated in vascular smooth muscle

A

a1 and B2

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25
# Adrenergic receptor involvement in blood pressure regulation Baroreceptor Reflex decrease in blood pressure - activates ___ fibers that feed back and innervate the heart ( ___ receptor) - increases HR - reflex ___ - innervate blood vessels ( ___ receptors) resulting in ___ - inhibits vagus ( ___ ) - net result: ___ BP
- SNS, B1, tachycardia - a1, vasoconstriction - PSNS - increased
26
# Adrenergic receptor involvement in blood pressure regulation Increase in blood pressure - inhibits ___ fibers - activates vagus ( ___ ) - decrease ___ (reflex ___ ) - no direct effect on ___ - net result: decrease ____
- SNS - PSNS - HR, bradycardia - blood vessels - blood presure
27
# Adrenergic receptor involvement in blood pressure regulation NE: raises ___ and lowers ___ (a1, B1) E: raises ___ and lowers ___ (a1, B1, and B2) Isoproterenol: raises ___ and lowers ___ (B1, B2) E more elective for B | NE more selective for a
- peripheral resistance, HR - HR, peripheral resistance - HR, peripheral resisitance B2 = vasodilation B1 = heart stimulation B1 = heart stimulatio B2 - vasodialtion | a1 = vasoconstriction
28
# Adrenergic receptor involvement in blood pressure regulation phenylephrine: acting at a receptors result: ___ in systolic BP, ___ in HR - a1 effect ___ - activation of baroreceptor reflex which can ___ HR
- increase, decrease - vasoconstriction - decrease
29
# Adrenergic receptor involvement in blood pressure regulation epinephrine: acting at B and a receptors result: ___ in systolic pressure, pulse pressure, and HR - a1 effect: ___ - B2 effect: ___ - B1 effect: positive inotropic and chronotropic effects - activation of baroreceptor reflex which mitigates the direct effects
increase - vasoconstriction - vasodilation
30
# Adrenergic receptor involvement in blood pressure regulation isoproterenol: acting at B receptors result: ___ in diastolic pressure, ___ pulse pressure and HR - B2 effect: ___ - B1 effect: positive inotropic and chronotropic effects - activation of barorecptor reflex which could enhance the direct effects
decrease, increase - vasodilation
31
# Targets for anti-hypertensives heart = reduce ___ - both ___ and ___ resistance of ___ and ___ Kidney - reduce ___ and ___
- cardiac output - SNS, PSNS - fluids, blood volume
32
Meds indicated for heart failure
- diuretics - B blockers - ACE inhibitors - angiotensisn II receptor blockers - aldosterone antagonists
33
Meds indicated for post MI
- B blockers - ACE inhibitors - angiotension II receptor blockers - aldosterone antagonists
34
Meds indicated for diabetes
- ACE inhibitors - angiotensin II receptor blockers - calcium channel blockers
35
Meds indicated for CKD
- ACE inhibitors - angiotensin II receptor blockers
36
which receptor is most present in cardiac muscle?
B1
37
# a1 antagonists (-osins) - ___ produce peripheral ___ without reflex ___ or increased CO - acyl moiety determines ___ activity - indications: ___ , ___ disease, and ___ - side effects: first dose phenomenon, postural hypotension and syncope Examples (3 - in order of increasing t1/2) - undergo extensive metabolism, excreted in the bile
- quinazolines, vasodilation, tachycardia - PK - HTN, Reynaud's, BPH - prazosin (3hrs), terazosin (12 hrs), doxazosin (20 hrs)
38
T or F: non-selective a blockers cause reflex tachycardia
True selective (a1 -osins) do not cause tachycardia
39
# a2 agonists reduce BP by reducing ___ output from the brain Inhibition of ___ release - decreased ___ tone in CNS - decreased __ - decreased ___ - decreased ___ release - decreased ___
sympathetic NE - sympathetic - HR - contractility - renin - vasoconstriction
40
# Direct acting a2 receptor agonist - clonidine (Catapres) - (phenylimino) imidazolidine - ____ a2 receptor agonist - the basicity of the guanidine group is 13.6 but it is decreased to 8 due to being attached to the ___ ring - activation of a2 receptors in the CNS decreases ___ activity; good ___ - indication: HTN, opiate withdrawal, ADHD - Side effects: hypotension, sedation, dry mouth - must be ___
- selective - dichlorophenyl - SNS, lipophilicity - tapered
41
# Direct acting a2 receptor agonist - Guanabenz and Guanfacine - ___ ring imidazolines - __ atom bridge to the guanidine group decreases the pKa so the drug is mostly ___ at physiological pH - t1/2 guanabenz < guanfacine = clonidine - uses: HTN. ADHD (guanfacine)
- open - 2 - non-ionized
42
# Direct acting a2 receptor agonist - methyldopa (Aldomet) - a ___ metabolized to active a2 receptor agonist, ___ - ___ - water soluble, ester hydrochloride salt is used for ___ solutions - PO = ___ , inj = ___ - uses: HTN, especially in ___ - combine with ___ due to sodium/water retention
- prodrug, (1R, 2S) - a - methylnorepinephrine - methyldopate, parenteral - methyldopa, methyldopate - pregnancy - diuretic
43
# Beta blockers Hypertension - decrease ___ output - inhibition of ___ secretion
- cardiac - renin
44
# B-Blockers - structure aryloxypropanolamines
45
# B-Blocker - propranolol (Inderal) - non-selective - lipophilic - extensive ___ metabolism - decreased cardiac __ and ___ - reduced ___ release - increase ___, decrease ___ - inhibit ___ and compensatory ___ and glucose release in response to ___ - increase ___ airway resistance
- hepatic - output, HR - renin - VLDL, HDL - lipolysis, gluconeogenesis, hypoglycemia - bronchial
46
# B-Blockers - Nadolol (Corgard) - non-selective - less lipophillic than ___ - ___ t1/2 - mostly excreted unchanged in ___ - administered PO - use: hypertension, angina, migraine
- propanolol - long - urine
47
# B-Blockers - Timolol (Timoptic, Blocadren) - non-selective - thiadiazole nucleus with morpholine ring - administered PO, ophthalmic - uses: glaucoma, HTN, angina, migraine
48
# B-Blockers - pindolol (Visken) - non-selective - intrinsic sympathomimetic activity - ___ agonist - less likely to cause ___ and lipid adnormalities - good for patients who have severe ___ or little cardiac reserve
- partial - bradycardia - bradycardia
49
# B-blockers - carteolol (Cartrol, Ocupress) - non-selective - intrinsitc sypathomimetic activity - partial ___ - less likely to cause ___ and lipid abnormalities - administered: PO, ophthalmic - uses: hypertension, glaucoma
- agonist - bradycardia
50
# B-blockers - metoprolol (Lopressor, Toprol) and bisoprolol (Zebeta) - ___ selective - ___ substituted phenyl derivatives - "cardioselective" - less ___ - moderate lipophilicity - significant first pass metabolism - uses: HTN, angina, anti-arrhythmic, CHF - rebound HTN is discontinued abruptly - ___ dose
- B1 - para - bronchoconstriction - taper
51
# B-blockers - atenolol (Tenormin) - selective ___ - "cardioselective" - less ___ - low lipophilicity "water soluble ___ " - PO and inj - uses: HTN, angina
- B1 - bronchoconstriction - metoprolol
52
# B-blocker - esmolol (Brevibloc) - ___ selective - very short acting - half life: 9 min - rapid hydrolysis by ___ found in red blood cells - administered: ___ , incompatible with sodium bicarb - uses: supravenricular tachycardia, atrial fibrillation/flutter, perioperative hypertension
B1 esterases parenteral
53
# B-blocker - nebivolol (Bystolic) - 3rd generation - ___ selective - vasodilation due to ___ production
B1 nitric oxide
54
# B-blockers SE - ___ cardia - ___ block - sedation - mask symptoms of ___ , withdrawal syndrome Containdications: - ___ and ___ - congestive HF type ___
- bradycardia - AV - hypoglycemia - asthma, COPD - IV
55
effect of chronic B-receptor block - more ___ will grow
B-receptors
56
# Mixed adrenergic receptor antagonists - labetalol (Normodyne, Trandate) - ___ B receptor antagonist - ___ receptor antagonists - B blocking activity prevent reflex ___ normally associated with ___ receptor antagonists - administered: oral and parenteral - uses: HTN, hypertensive crisis - 1R, 1'R - isomer possesses ___ blocking activity - 1S, 1'R isomer possesses greatest ___ receptor blocking activity
- non selective - a1 - tachycardia, a1 - B - a1
57
# Mixed adrenergic receptor antagonists - carvedilol (Coreg) - ___ B receptor antagonist - ___ receptor antagonist - both enantiomers antagonize ___ receptors - only S enantiomer posses ___ blocking activity - B blocking activity prevent reflex ___ normally associated with ___ receptor antagonists - PO - uses: HTN, CHF
- non-selective - a1 - a1 - B - a1
58
Beta blocker withdrawal ___ the dose when DC
taper
59
# D1 receptor agonist - Fenoldopam used in __ HTN prolems: should not be used in patients with ___ due to increases in IOP notes: maintains or ___ renal perfusion while lowering ___ ' paticularly useful in patients with ___ impairment
severe glaucoma increases, BP renal
60
# Catecholamine Synthetic Path inhibiting with Metyrosine action: inhibits ___ hydroxylase Clinical Uses: perioperative management of ___ problem: depletes ___ everywhere
- tyrosine - pheochromocytoma - catecholamines | pheochromocytoma - tumor in adrenal gland that makes excess E and NE
61
# VMAT Inhibitor Reserpine Action: - nonselective, ___ inhbitor of vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT) - depletes stored ___ Clinical Use - HTN but rarely used due to AE Problems: - expected peripheral adverse effects (orthostatic, hypotension, increased GI activity) - CNS effects such as sedation severe depression/suicide
- irreversibel - NE
62
# Catecholamine depleters - Reserpin (Serpasil) - indole alkaloid obtained from root of Rauwolfia serpentina - block vesicular monoamine transporters - depletes vesicular pool of NE - slow onset of action - sustained effects (weeks)