Anti-infectives Flashcards

(62 cards)

1
Q

Vancomycin (Vancocin)

A

Active against gram+

  • Use: severe infections; MRSA, VRE
  • Poorly absorbed in GI but given po for C.difficile
  • Given IV: “red man syndrome” (drug infused too rapidly)

Need drug levels, ototoxicity, nephotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)

A

Fusion inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

metronidazole (Flagyl)

A
  • use: anaerobic organisms in intraabdominal and gyn infections, trichomoniasis (std)
  • po or IV
  • do not use ETOH

-adverse: dizziness, HA, GI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Azithromycin (Zithromax)

A

Commonly ordered and appealing

500mg 1st day
250mg 4 days after

To treat: staph, strep, gonorrhea, chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Erythromycin (E-mycin)

A

Macrolide

Compliance issue: 4x a day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Fusion inhibitors

A

Suppresses the fusion process where a virus attaches to outer membrane of T-cell before entering into cell and replicating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

macrolides

A
  • bacteriostatic and bacteriocidal in large doses
  • inhibit protein synthesis

Advers: GI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

indinavir (Norvair)

A

protease inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

carbapenems

A
  • broad spectrum bactericidal
  • inhibit cell wall synthesis

Adverse: drug induced seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

cefepime (Maxipime)

A

4th generation cephalosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

A

3rd generation cephalosporin

specifically used for gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Protease inhibitors

A

Inhibits protease retroviral enzyme, which promotes the break-up of chain protein molecules – This process is necessary for viral replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

delavirdine (Rescriptor)

A

Non-NRTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

tenoforvir (Viread)

A

NRTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

cefoxetan (Cefotan)

A

2nd generation cephalosporin

Surgical prophylaxis to prevent infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cephalosporins

A
  • baceteriostatic and bacteriocidal
  • inhibit cell wall synthesis
  • broad spectrum (gram +/-)
  • Structurally similar to penicillin – has cross sensitivity issues with Penicillin (1-4%)

Can cause GI symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

isoniazid (INH)

A

TB treatment

  • People with a + TB test & latent TB get this med which they’ll take for months
  • can be used prophylaxis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

permethrin (Nix)

A

used to treat head lice, pediculosis (body lice)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Tetracyclines

A
  • broad spectrum bacteriostatic
  • increased resistance
  • For individuals with penicillin allergies

Treats: H. Pylori, chlamydia, PID, acne, UTI, syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

cephalexin (Keflex)

A

1st generation cephalosporin

  • Gram +
  • Compliance issue: 4x/day drug
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

tetracycline HCL (Achromycin)

A

Can cause renal failure

Do not give to kids under 8 years due to yellow staining of teeth and do not give to pregnant women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

A

Topical for 2nd and 3rd degree burns - used to treat infections

Watch for sulfa allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

fosfomycin (Monurol)

A

sulfa drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

phenazopyridine (Pyridium)

A

sulfa drug

Used in treatment for UTI - Causes decreases in burning associated with UTI but turns pee red/orange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
trimethprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
Drug most associated with "sulfa allergy" Mostly used for UTI
26
imipenem cilastatin (Primaxin)
IV - complicated body cavity and connective tissue infections in the acutely ill hospitalized patients - used to treat staph and ecoli Carbapenem
27
Sulfonamides
Inhibit bacteria Used for UTI Can cause N/V/D and allergies
28
Antiparasitic
used in treatment of living organisms that survive on another
29
benzoyl peroxide
dermatologic agent drying agent used for acne
30
Betadine and Chloroprep
dermatologic agent Skin prep used prior to procedures or surgeries
31
pyrazinamide (Tebrazid)
TB treatment
32
bacitracin or Neomycin
Topical antibacterial for infections
33
ethambutol (Myambutol)
TB treatment
34
zidovadine (AZT)
NRTI for HIV/AIDS
35
Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors
Stop abnormal replication | - DNA is synthesized from RNA rather than the opposite.
36
Antifungals
disrupt cell membrane
37
amphotericin B (Fungizone)
- IV only - extremely potent - used in life-threatening fungal infections only - Must be pre-treated with pain meds prior to administration - Can cause: chills, fever, hypotension and is painful to receive
38
nystatin (Mycostatin)
topical agent given to treat an oral candidiasis or vaginal thrush
39
gentamicin (Garamycin)
IM or IV treatment of meningitis or endocarditis aminoglycoside
40
rifampin (Rifaidin)
TB treatment
41
Dermatologic agents
For skin - applied topically, many are OTC
42
Zocin
Extended spectrum penicillin will treat gram - and anaerobic agents used in hospitals for nosocomial infections
43
amoxicillin
Penicillin Resistance issues - higher doses must be prescribed
44
brimonidine (Alphagen)
Alpha 2 adrenergic agonist Decreased Intraocular Pressure (IOP)
45
Opthalmic agents
- prevent systematic absorption | - ointments have higher drug concentration
46
tobramycin (Nebcin)
aminoglycoside
47
streptomycin
IM or for TB treatment Watch for nephrotoxicity/ototoxicity aminoglycoside
48
Aminoglycoside
- bactericidal - inhibit protein synthesis - serious gram - infections and active resistant TB - NO po - Often combined with ampicillin - Peak/Trough levels: measured to see renal clearance for the measurement of drug toxicity. Trough is more important.
49
pilocarpine (Pilocar)
Cholingeric drops - increase outflow of aqueous humor
50
timolol (Timoptic)
Betablocker drops - decrease the production of the aqueous humor
51
penicillin G
penicillin general Adverse effects: allergy, neurotoxicity, GI symps Nursing Imp: allergic reaction, yogurt for diarrhea
52
Erythromycin drops (Ilotycin)
Given to newborns - to treat neonatal conjuctivitis caused by chlamydia
53
Sufacetamide
antimicrobial for eyes
54
Atropine sulfate
Drops used to dilate eyes for examination
55
Penicillin
- bacteriostatic and bacteriocidal - gram + - used for: strep, pneumococcal pneumonia, endocarditis, and meningitis
56
fluconazole (Diflucan)
- po or IV | - preferred over amphotericin B due to less adverse effects
57
clotrimazole (Lotimin)
- po, topical or intravaginal antifungal
58
trabinafine (Lamisil)
- topical for ringworm | - po for toe fungus
59
zanamirvir (Relenza)
inhibits replication of Influenza A (and/or B) virus - Must be taken within 2 days of symptoms or less May cause broncospasms in asthamatics
60
acyclovir (Zovirax)
- IV, po, or topical - anti-viral: Inhibits viral reproduction - used for genital herpes - only lessens pain and decreases lesions
61
mebendazole (Vermox)
used in treatment of pinworms (enterobiasis)
62
gamma benzene hexachloride (Kwell)
used in treatment of itch mites (scabies)