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PHAR 395 > Antibiotic Quiz > Flashcards

Antibiotic Quiz Flashcards

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1
Q

A patient has been diagnosed with a serious Staphylococcus aureus infection. Sensitivity results are pending, He is allergic to penicillin. The most appropriate antibiotic to administer empirically is:
A. vancomycin
B. erythromycin
C. gentamicin
D. ciprofloxacin

A

A.

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2
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to ciprofloxacin?
A. it has good activity against many gram negative aerobes
B. it provides good coverage of anaerobic organisms
C. it produces lower urinary concentrations than moxifloxacin
D. it can be co-administered with Maalox (aluminum hydroxide/magnesium hydroxide) without any interaction

A

A.

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3
Q

What is the mechanism responsible for penicillin resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae?
A. production of beta-lactamase enzymes
B. alteration of penicillin binding proteins
C. mutation of ribosomal binding sites
D. active efflux of penicillin out of the cell
E. altered outer membrane porins

A

B.

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4
Q

Amoxicillin has which of the following advantages over ampicillin?
A. broader spectrum of activity
B. penicillinase resistance
C. produces fewer hypersensitivity reactions
D. better absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract, especially in the presence of food

A

D.

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5
Q

Which of the following antibiotics can be used to treat an infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A. azithromycin
B. cefuroxime
C. ciprofloxacin
D. amoxicillin

A

C.

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6
Q

Which of the following antibiotics has activity against methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus?
A. cloxacillin
B. linezolid
C. clarithromycin
D. cephalexin

A

B.

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7
Q

Which of the following antibiotics does NOT require dosage adjustment in reduced renal function?
A. vancomycin
B. gentamicin
C. ceftriaxone
D. cefazolin

A

C.

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8
Q

Which of the following is the most common adverse effect associated with amoxicillin/clavulanate?
A. photosensitivity
B. diarrhea
C. joint tenderness
D. QTc prolongation

A

B.

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9
Q

Of the following classes of antimicrobials, which is likely to have the most CYP450 mediated drug interactions?
A. macrolides
B. glycopeptides
C. cephalosporins
D. azoles

A

D.

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10
Q

Tendon rupture is a known adverse effect of which of the following antibiotics?
A. clindamycin
B. sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim
C. levofloxacin
D. gentamicin

A

C.

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11
Q

The antibiotic most commonly implicated as a cause of C. difficile infection is:
A. sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim
B. cefuroxime
C. clarithromycin
D. clindamycin

A

D.

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12
Q

Which statement regarding valacyclovir and acyclovir is true?
A. oral acyclovir can be given BID, like valacyclovir
B. both drugs can be given IV and orally
C. valacyclovir is the prodrug of acyclovir
D. neither drug requires adjustment in renal dysfunction

A

C.

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13
Q

Which of the following cephalosporins have activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A. cephalexin
B. cefazolin
C. cefotaxime
D. ceftazidime

A

D.

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14
Q

Which of the following drugs has activity against Enterococcus sp.?
A. ampicillin
B. cloxacillin
C. ceftriaxone
D. ceftazidime

A

A.

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15
Q

Your patient is currently on a medication which can prolong the QTc interval. Which of the following antibiotics should be avoided?
A. gentamicin
B. clindamycin
C. minocycline
D. moxifloxacin

A

D.

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16
Q

Your patient is currently on a nephrotoxic drug. Which of the following antibiotics should be avoided?
A. doxycycline
B. penicillin V
C. cefuroxime
D. gentamicin

A

D.

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17
Q

All of the following statements regarding vancomycin are true EXCEPT:
A. the oral formulation is not absorbed from the gut
B. therapeutic drug monitoring can help to guide dosing
C. a major adverse effect is hepatotoxicity
D. infusion rates can be slowed to prevent vancomycin flushing syndrome

A

C.

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18
Q

All of the following antibiotics are aminoglycosides EXCEPT:
A. amikacin
B. gentamicin
C. tobramycin
D. vancomycin

A

D.

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19
Q

Which class of drugs is generally avoided in children due to possible joint toxicity?
A. aminoglycosides
B. fluoroquinolones
C. cephalosporins
D. macrolides

A

B.

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20
Q

What are two most serious side effects associated with aminoglycosides?
A. skin rash and shortness of breath
B. phototoxicity and skin rash
C. ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
D. nephrotoxicity and hepatotoxicity

A

C.

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21
Q

Second generation cephalosporins have greater activity against gram negative bacilli such as E. coli compared to first generation cephalsporins.
A. True
B. False

22
Q

Most skin rashes associated with amoxicillin are not true hypersensitivity reactions.
A. True
B. False

23
Q

What part of the cell does penicillin VK exert its action?

24
Q

What part of the cell does azithromycin exert its action?

Study These Flashcards
A

Within the cell

25
What part of the cell does cephalexin exert its action?
Cell wall
26
What part of the cell does cloxacillin exert its action?
Cell wall
27
What part of the cell does doxycycline exert its action?
Within the cell
28
What part of the cell does amoxi/clav exert its action?
Cell wall
29
What part of the cell does SMX/TMP exert its action?
Within the cell
30
What part of the cell does ceftriaxone exert its action?
Cell wall
31
What part of the cell does clindamycin exert its action?
Within the cell
32
Which of the following drugs is most likely to be effective against an infection on the skin? A. Pencillin VK B. Amoxicillin C. Cephalexin D. Ciprofloxacin
C.
33
Which of the following drugs is most likely be the best empiric therapy for a bacterial infection in the throat? A. Penicillin VK B. Cloxacillin C. Moxifloxacin D. Tetracycline
A.
34
Jamie accidentally cut her hand while putting away her clean knife, fresh from the dishwasher. If her cut were to get infected, what organism would you expect to be likely responsible? A. Staphylococcus aureus (Staph aureus) B. Streptococcus pneumoniae (S. pneumoniae) C. Escherichia coli (E.coli) D. Lactobacillus rhamnosus
A.
35
Little Johnny has had a cough for which he is receiving antibiotics. His mother tells you that the doctor told her it was an atypical bacterial infection. Which of the following drugs was most likely prescribed? A. Levofloxacin B. Azithromycin C. Amoxicillin/clavulanate D. Cephalexin
B.
36
Which of the following medications would you expect to have the most activity against a gram-negative bacteria? A. Amoxicillin B. Azithromycin C. Cephalexin D. Cefuroxime
D.
37
Which of the following medications would you expect to have activity against a S.aureus infection? A. Cephalexin B. Cefixime C. Fosfomycin D. Nitrofurantoin
A.
38
Which bug(s) would you expect Amoxicillin/Clavulanate to be effective against? A. MRSA B. Enterococcus faecium C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. All of the above
C.
39
A physician calls you with a verbal prescription for Nitrofurantoin for a patient with a Urinary Tract Infection (UTI). They tell you that they believe it is a gram-negative species. What is the organism most likely responsible? A. Escherichia coli B. Streptococcus viridans C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Clostridium difficile
A.
40
Which of the following is an example of a gram-negative rod? A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae B. Neisseria meningitidis C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D.
41
What are the predominant organisms in acute otitis media? A. M.cattarhalis, S.pneumoniae, H.influenzae B. S.pyogenes, M.cattarhalis, H.influenzae C. H.influenzae, S.pneumoniae, C.pneumoniae D. S.pneumoniae, M.pneumoniae, C.pneumoniae
A.
42
All of the following are criteria for watchful waiting EXCEPT: A. Child has a reliable caregiver B. Unilateral, mild ear pain C. Low-grade fever D. Perforated tympanic membrane
D.
43
What is the rationale for using high-dose amoxicillin in AOM? A. To exploit the PK/PD of amoxicillin B. To penetrate the inner ear C. To overcome penicillin binding protein resistance of the causative organism D. To dose less frequently throughout the day
C.
44
In the context of AOM, which of these statements about azithromycin is FALSE? A. azithromycin can be used as empiric treatment for AOM B. azithromycin can be used for true Type-1 allergy to beta-lactams C. azithromycin has a long half-life and can be dosed once daily D. azithromycin has excellent atypical coverage
A.
45
What are the predominant organisms in CAP? A. S.pyogenes, C. pneumoniae, S.aureus B. S.pneumoniae, H.influenzae, M.cattarhalis C. S.pneumoniae, H.influenzae, M.pneumoniae D. viral
C.
46
Which is the most appropriate empiric therapy for CAP for an outpatient less than 65 years of age and otherwise healthy (i.e., no comorbidities)? A. azithromycin B. doxycyline C. levofloxacin D. amoxicillin/clavulanate
B.
47
All of the following are true about doxycycline EXCEPT: A. safest option for young children B. patients should be counselled to wear sunscreen C. patients must take with a full glass of water D. patients must be upright for 30 minutes after administration
A.
48
All of the following are useful monitoring parameters for a patient with community acquired pneumonia, EXCEPT: A. respiratory rate B. oxygen saturations C. breath sounds on auscultation D. repeat chest x-ray
D.
49
All of the following are predominant organisms in an uncomplicated UTI, EXCEPT: A. S.aureus B. E.coli C. K.pneumoniae D. S.saprophyticus
A.
50
A patient presents to your community pharmacy looking to see if you can prescribe an antibiotic for her cystitis. Which symptom is a "red flag" and would cause you to refer her to a physician? A. Dysuria B. Frequent urination C. Suprapubic heaviness D. Flank pain
D.
51
On a urinalysis, which of the following is the most indicative of a possible UTI? A. Foul smelling urine B. Positive nitrites C. Low specific gravity D. Blood in the urine
B.
52
Which of the following statements regarding nitrofurantoin is FALSE? A. This drug cannot be used in patients with a CrCl < 30 mL/min B. This drug can be used in pyelonephritis C. This drug can change the colour of a patient's urine D. Commercially, this drug is available as two different formulations
B.

PHAR 395 (9 decks)

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