Antibiotics Flashcards
(95 cards)
1
Q
Beta-Lactams (4)
A
- Penicillins
- Cephalosporins
- Monobactams
- Carbapenems
2
Q
Cell wall active agents (6)
A
- Penicillins
- Cephalosporins
- Monobactams
- Carbepenems
- Glycopeptides
- Lipopeptides
3
Q
DNA dependent RNA Polymerase blockers (1)
A
- Rifampin
4
Q
DNA synthesis and maintenance blockers (2)
A
- Bactrim
- Quinolones
5
Q
Natural pencillins (2)
A
- Penicillin G (IV or IM)
- Penicillin V (PO)
6
Q
Penicillin G is DOC for what (3)
A
- Syphilis
- Strep
- Some oral anaerobes
7
Q
Penicillin V is drug of choice for what (3)
A
- Strep throat (Group A strep, S pyogenes
- Rheumatic fever
- Asplenia prophylaxis
8
Q
Penicillinase resistant penicillins (3)
A
- Oxacillin
- Nacillin
- Dicloxacillin
9
Q
Oxacillin and nafcillin drug of choice for (3)
A
- Staph endocarditis
- Staph cellulitis
- Excellent strep coverage
10
Q
T/F penicillinase resistant penicillins do not have gram negative coverage
A
True
11
Q
What are the aminopenicillins (2)
A
- Ampicillin
- Amoxicillin
12
Q
Ampicillin is drug of choice for what (3)
A
- Enterococcus
- GBS in laboring women
- Listeria CNS infection
13
Q
Amoxicillin drug of choice for (4)
A
- Dental endocarditis prophylaxis
- Strep
- Sinusitis
- Otitis media
14
Q
B-lactams/B-lactamase inhibitors (3)
A
- Augmentin
- Unasyn
- Zosyn
15
Q
Augmentin drug of choice for (4)
A
- Bites
- Severe mouth infection
- Mild diabetic foot infections
- CAP
16
Q
Unasyn DOC for (2)
A
- Aspiration
- Acinetobacter
17
Q
Zosyn DOC for what (1)
A
- Pseudomonas at ECMC
18
Q
Monobactams (1)
A
- Aztreonam
19
Q
Aztreonam DOC for what (1)
A
- Gram negative coverage (pseudomonas)
20
Q
First generation cephalosporins (2)
A
- Cefazolin
- Cephalexin
21
Q
Cefazolin DOC for what (2)
A
- Peri-op first dose antibiotics
- Severe MSSA infection requiring parenteral therapy
22
Q
Cephalexin DOC for what (2)
A
- Sensitive UTI
- Sensitive cellulitis
23
Q
What cephalosporin treats MRSA
A
Ceftaroline
24
Q
Second generation cephalosporins (2)
A
- Cefuroxime
- Cefoxitin
25
Cefuroxime DOC for what (3)
1. PNA
2. COPD exacerbations
3. Sinusitis
26
Cefoxitin DOC for what (1)
1. Covers bowel anaerobes (OBGYN infections)
27
Third generation cephalosporins (4)
1. Ceftriaxone
2. Cefpodoxime
3. Cefdinir
4. Ceftazadime
28
Ceftriaxone DOC for what (1)
1. IM gonorrhea
29
Cefpodoxime and cefdinir DOC for what
Step down PO for IV Ceftriaxone
30
Ceftazadime DOC for what (1)
1. Pseudomonas
31
T/F Ceftriaxone is the most potent ceph against penicillin resistant pneumococci
True
32
Ceftriaxone downsides (2)
1. Biliary psedulithiasis (no treatment)
2. ++++ C-diff risk
33
Fourth generation cephalosporins (1)
1. Cefepime
34
Cefepime DOC for what (3)
1. Febrile neutropenia
2. HAP
3. HAI
35
What 3 cephalosporins get into the CNS
1. Cefepime
2. Ceftriaxone
3. Ceftazidime
36
Fifth generation cephalosporin (1)
1. Ceftaroline
37
Ceftaroline DOC for what (3)
1. MRSA
2. VISA
3. Penicillin resistant strep pneumoniae
38
When do we suspect extended spectrum beta lactamase
Susceptible to Cefoxitin but resistant to 3rd gen ceph/aztreonam
39
What is the DOC for ESBL
Carbapenem
40
What do carbapenems do to seizure threshold
Lower it
41
Carbapenems (3)
1. Imipenem
2. Meropenem
3.Ertapenem
42
What carbapenems cover pseudomonas (2)
1. Imipenem
2. Meropenem
43
What does ertapenem cover (1)
1. Resistant abdominal infections
44
HOw do you treat carbapnemases
2-3 of following:
1. Tigecycline
2. Colistin (very nephrotoxic)
3. Fosfomycin
4. Ceftazidime
45
T/F vancomycin only covers gram positive organisms
True
46
Vancomycin is the DOC for what
Empiric MRSA
47
T/F: Vancomycin needs to be given in the route of the infection
True
48
What reaction does vancomycin have
Red man syndrome (not an allergy)
49
What is the target trough level for vancomycin
15 mcg/mL
50
When do we check vancomycin for steady state
Before 5th dose
51
T/F Daptomycin is inactivated by lung surfactant
True (so no pneumonia)
52
Daptomycin is the DOC for what (4)
1. VRE UTI
2. SSTI endocarditis
3. MRSA endocarditis
4. VRE endocarditis
53
What do we need to check with Daptomycin
CPK baseline and weekly due to myopathy potential
54
What do we discontinue when on Daptomycin
Statins
55
T/F fluoroquinolones work the same oral and IV (effectiveness)
True
56
T/F fluoroquinolones have rapid resistance with staph aureus if not given with rifampin
True
57
What are fluoroquinolones the DOC for (1)
1. Atypicals
58
2 major side effects of fluoroquinolones
1. QT prolongation
2. Tendonopathy/rupture
59
What are the fluoroquinolones (3)
1. Ciprofloxacin
2. Levofloxacin
3. Moxifloxacin
60
What fluoroquinolones cover pseudomonas (2)
1. Ciprofloxacin
2. Levofloxacin (respiratory quinolone)
61
What does moxifloxacin cover
GNR anaerobes (respiratory quinolones)
62
What is Bactrim the DOC for (6)
1. GU infections
2. PCP/PJP
3. Nocardia
4. Cyclospora
5. Toxoplasmosis
6. Pertussis
63
What is metronidazole the DOC for (6)
1. Amebiasis
2. Giardia
3. H. Pylori
4. BV
5. PID
6. Trichomoniasis
64
T/F metronidazole is the Cadillac GN anaerobic coverage
True
65
T/F Don’t drink while taking metronidazole
True
66
What are the aminoglycosides (4)
1. Neomycin
2. Amikacin
3. Tobramycin
4. Gentamicin
67
T/F Aminoglycosides have excellent gram negative coverage
True
68
What do we worry about with aminoglycosides (2)
1. Ototoxic (irreversible)
2. Nephrotoxic (reversible)
69
What are the uses of aminoglycosides (1)
1. Synergy
70
How to determine amount of aminoglycosides for extended dosing (2)
1. Non-obese (actual body weight)
2. Obese (Adjusted body weight)
71
What aminoglycoside does Dr. Claus like
Amikacin
72
What is Amikacin used for (4)
1. GNR infections
2. Sepsis
3. bacteremia
4. TB
73
What is tobramycin used for (1)
1. Serious GNR infections
74
What is gentamicin used for (4)
1. Plaque
2. Bartonella
3. Open fracture prophylaxis
4. Synergy
75
T/F linezolid is used mostly for gram positive coverage
True
76
T/F linezolid is 100% bio available
True
77
Linezolids (1)
1. Zyvox
78
What is zyvox used for (4)
1. VRE
2. MRSA pneumonia
3. Cellulitis
4. Mycobacteria
79
What are side effects of linezolid (3)
1. Thrombocytopenia
2. Peripheral neuropathy
3. Lactic acidosis
80
What are the drug drug interactions of linezolid (2)
1. SSRI
2. TCA
81
What are macrolides the DOC for (4)
1. Atypical upper respiratory infection
2. CAP
3. COPD flare
4. Pertussis
82
T/F macrolides are 100% bioavailable
True
83
T/F macrolides have QT prolongation risk
True
84
What are the macrolides (3)
1. Erythromycin
2. Azithromycin
3. Clarithromycin
85
What are the lincosamides (1)
1. Clindamycin
86
What is Clindamycin the drug of choice for (2)
1. Head/neck infection
2. SSTI with severe penicillin/cephalosporin allergy
87
What are the antibiotics with the highest association of C. Diff (3)
1. Clindamycin
2. Fluoroquinolones
3. Cephalosporins
88
T/F Rifampin turns the tears, urine, sweat, and contacts red-orange-brown
True
89
Uses of rifampin (2)
1. Mycobacterium
2. Combo for staph infections
90
T/F Rifampin can cause abnormal LFTs and eventually liver failure
True
91
What is the tetracycline we need to know (1)
1. Doxycycline
92
Doxycycline is the DOC for what (5)
1. Atypicals
2. Chlamydia
3. Lyme
4. Malaria
5. Rickettsia
93
T/F Doxycycline has an adverse reaction of teeth/skin discoloration and esophagitis
True
94
Pregnancy category C antibiotics (4)
1. Imipenem
2. Fluoroquinolones
3. Linezolid
4. Rifampin
95
Pregnancy category D antibiotics (3)
1. Bactrim
2. Aminoglycosides
3. Doxycycline
