Antibiotics Flashcards

(57 cards)

1
Q

Exacerbation of chronic bronchitis

A

amoxicillin or tetracycline or clarithromycin

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2
Q

Uncomplicated community acquired pneumonia

A

amoxicillin or clarithromycin or doxycycline

flucloxacillin if staph suspected

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3
Q

Atypical pneumonia

A

clarithromycin

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4
Q

Hospital acquired pneumonia

A
  • within 5 days of admission: co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime

- more than 5 days after admission: piperacillin with tazobactam or broad spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone

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5
Q

Lower UTI

A

trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin

alt. amoxicillin or cephalosporin

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6
Q

Acute pyelonephritis

A

broad spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone

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7
Q

Acute prostatitis

A

quinolone or trimethoprim

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8
Q

Impetigo

A

topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin or erythromycin if widespread

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9
Q

Cellulitis

A

flucloxacillin

penicillin allergic: clarithromycin, erythromycin or doxycycline

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10
Q

Cellulitis near eyes or nose

A

co-amoxiclav

clarithromycin and metronidazole if penicillin allergic

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11
Q

Erysipelas

A

flucloxacillin

penicillin allergic: clarithromycin, erythromycin or doxycycline

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12
Q

Animal or human bite

A

-co-amoxiclav

doxycycline and metronidazole if allergic

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13
Q

Mastitis during breast-feeding

A

flucloxacillin

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14
Q

Throat infections

A

phenoxymethylpenicillin

erythromycin

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15
Q

Sinusitis

A

phenoxymethylpenicillin

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16
Q

Otitis media

A

amoxicillin

erythromycin

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17
Q

Otitis externa

A

flucloxacillin

erythromycin

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18
Q

Periapical or periodontal abscess

A

amoxicillin

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19
Q

Gingivitis: acute necrotising ulcerative

A

metronidazole

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20
Q

Gonorrhoea

A

IM ceftriaxone

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21
Q

Chlamydia

A

doxycycline or azithromycin

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22
Q

PID

A

oral ofloxacin + oral metronidazole or IM ceftriaxone + oral doxycycline + oral metronidazole

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23
Q

Syphilis

A

benzathine benxylpenicillin or doxycycline or erythromycin

24
Q

Bacterial vaginosis

A

oral/topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin

25
C diff
- 1st: oral vancomycin - 2nd: oral fidaxomicin - 3rd: oral vancomycin with IV metronidazole - Recurrent within 12 weeks: oral fidaxomicin - Recurrent after 12 weeks: oral fidaxomicin/vancomycin
26
Campylobacter enteritis
clarithromycin
27
Salmonella (non-typhoid)
ciprofloxacin
28
Shigellosis
ciprofloxacin
29
Metronidazole ADR
disulfiram like reaction with alcohol
30
Rifampicin ADR
- potent CYP450 liver enzyme inducer - hepatitis - orange secretions - flu-like symptoms
31
Sulfonamide ADR
- hyperkalaemia - headache - rash (Steven Johnson syndrome)
32
Tetracycline ADR
- teeth discolouration - photosensitivity - angioedema - black hairy tongue
33
Trimethoprim ADR
- myelosuppression - transient rise in creatinine - teratogenic risk in first trimester
34
Vancomycin ADR
- nephrotoxicity - ototoxicity - thrombophlebitis - red man syndrome (on rapid infusion)
35
Chloroquine CONTRA
epilepsy
36
Doxycycline ADR
- oesophagitis | - photosensitivity
37
Most common cause of lactational mastitis?
staph aureus
38
Most common cause of gas gangrene:
clostridium perfringens
39
How is legionella pneumophilia best diagnosed?
urinary antigen
40
Bacteria type strep pneumonia
gram positive diplococci
41
Bacteria type e coli
gram negative bacilli
42
Bacteria type H influenzae
gram negative coccobacilli
43
Bacteria type listeria monocytogenes
gram positive rod
44
When should vaccines be administered before a splenectomy?
2 weeks before
45
How does miliary TB spread?
through pulmonary venous system
46
How do you treat pubic lice?
malathion
47
Which bacteria typically causes tonsillitis?
strep pyogenes
48
Treament of salmonella/gastroenteritis:
ciprofloxacin
49
Investigations before starting anti-TB meds:
LFTs, U&Es, vision testing, FBC
50
What should be added if the pneumonia is secondary to influenza?
flucloxacillin
51
Most common cause of viral encephalitis in adults:
herpes simplex virus
52
Which bacteria is associated with reactivating herpes simplex and causing cold sores?
streptococcus pneumoniae
53
Bacteria type staphylococci:
- gram positive - facultative anaerobes - produce catalase
54
Staph aureus:
- coagulase positive | - skin infections, abscesses, osteomyelitis, TSS
55
Staph epidermis:
- coagulase negative - central line infections - infective endocarditis
56
Alpha haemolytic strep:
- streptococcus pneumonias | - streptococcus viridans
57
Beta haemolytic strep
- group A: strep pyogenes, erysipelas, impetigo, cellulitis, type 2NF, pharyngitis/tonsillitis, immunological reactions - rheumatic fever or post strep GN - group B: streptococcus agalactiae (neonatal meningitis and septicaemia) - group D: enterococcus