Antibiotics and antifungals Flashcards

(34 cards)

1
Q

βLactam mechanism of action, targets?

A

Bactericidal - inhibit cell wall synthesis (block peptidases)

1) penicillin -> G+
2) Cephalosporin
- 1st gen -> G++
- 2nd gen -> G+
- 3rd gen -> G+ = G-

3) carbapenems -> G- . MDR e.coli, pseudo, klebsiella

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2
Q

Glycopeptide example ?

A

Vancomycin

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3
Q

How do glycopeptide works?

A

Bactericidal G+ which inhibit cell wall synthesis (block aa’s).

MDR tarket

Side effect; can cause histamine release

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4
Q

How do fluoranquinilones work?

A
  • Topoisomerase II (gyrase) -> G-
  • Topoisomerase IV -> G+

It is bactericidal and concentration dependent.

1st gen; enrofloxacin/marbo/orbi
3rd gen; pradofloxacin

Can starget staph +

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5
Q

what are side effects of fluoranquinilones?

A
  • Cartilage growth inhibitor in young
  • Retinal degernation in cats
  • Increased theophyline tox (block CYP450)
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6
Q

How does metronidazole work?

A

Concentration dependent bactericidal pro-drug. Accets e- to make free radial which damages DNA.
Targets G+, G- and ANAEROBES and protozoa

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7
Q

what are metronidazoles side effects ?

A

Neurotoxic -> vestibular ataxia (it is a gaba analogue)

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8
Q

How does Rifampih work?
Side effect?

A

Concentration dependent and bactericidal - block β-subunit of RNA polymerase
Good for staph, strep (+) and mycobacterium
Body fluids turn red

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9
Q

How do TMS work and what are side effects ?

A

Concentration dependent bactericidal.
Block folic acid metabolism (no purine and pyrimidines are made)

Broad spectrum with antiprotoxoal and anti-coccidial properties.

Side effects
- Blood dyscrasias
- ITP (black and tan dogs)
- KCS
- Hepatic necrosis

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10
Q

How do aminoglycoside work ? examples? side effect?

A

Gentamyxin/amikicin/ tobramicin

Concentration dependent bactericisal. Bind ribosomal unit 30s

Targets G- and MDR staph

They can be nephrotoxic and ototoxic

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11
Q

How do tetracyclines work ? examples? side effect?

A

1st gen -> tetracycline
2nd gen -> doxycycline
Bacteristatic, time dependent with broad spectrum.

Key for wolbachia, leptospirosis, ricketsia

Side effect - esophageal stricture in cats and teeth discoloration

Bind ribosomal 30s subunit

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12
Q

what are side effects of tetracyclines

A

Side effect - esophageal stricture in cats and teeth discoloration

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13
Q

How does chloramphenicol work and target?

A

Bacteristatic, time dependent antibiotic which targets ribosome subunit 50s.

Targets G+, G-, anaerobes and ricketsia

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14
Q

what are macrolides ?
Examples ?
Side effects

A

Azithromycin and erythromycin

These are bacteristatic, time dependent antibiotics which targe ribosome subunit 50s.

side effects ;
- increase GIT transit time
- CYP450 inhibitor

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15
Q

what side effects do the macrolides have ?

A

Cyp450 inhibitor so it can affect drugs that rely on this

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16
Q

what non antibiotic property does macrolides have?

A

Stimulate motilin in GI

17
Q

what are licosamides and what do they do ?
example?

A

These are bacteristatic G+, anaerobes, and protozoa affectors.
They bind subunit 50s of the ribosome

18
Q

which antibiotics target subunits of the ribosome and which subunit?

A

Aminoglycoside and tetracyclines - 30s

chloramphenicol, macrolides, lincosamides - 50s

19
Q

What is amphotercin B and what does it do ?

A

Technically a macrolide.
Irreversibly binds fungal wall steroles forming pores that allow ions and other products to leak out

20
Q

what does terbifaline do?

A

It is an inhibitor of ergostererole synthesis (essential for fungal wall synthesis)

21
Q

How do the Azoles work?

A

block 14-α-serole demethylase which is essential for the formation of ergosterole

22
Q

what tissues can/cannot the different azoles enter?

A
  • Keto; poor CNS
  • itra;good bone, poor CNS, pumped out by p-glycoprot (MDR1)
  • FLU; good urine and cns penetration
  • Vori; good CNS penetration
23
Q

what charachteristics do drugs need to have to penetrate the BBB ?
what antibiotics penetrate the BBB?

A
  • tetracyclines (doxycycline and minocycline),
  • third-generation cephalosporins (ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, ceftazidime),
  • ciprofloxacin,
  • metronidazole,
  • linezolid,
  • chloramphenicol
24
Q

what are abs that penetrate the prostate?

A

Fluoroquinolones like levofloxacin and ciprofloxacin are key

Other options include TMS, some third-generation cephalosporins (ceftriaxone), and macrolides (azithromycin and clarithromycin)

25
what antibiotics penetrate bone
- Fluoroquinolones (like levofloxacin and ciprofloxacin), - clindamycin, doxycycline, linezolid, and some beta-lactams (like piperacillin/tazobactam)
26
what antibiotics enter placenta?
virtually all.
27
what antibiotics enter the testes ?
fluoroquinolones like levofloxacin and ciprofloxacin, and doxycycline TMS can also, and some β-latams like cefriaxone
28
what are the ISCAD guidelines for non complicated urinary tract infections ?
Simple uncomplicated UTI; - Clinically significant infection implies the presence of dysuria, pollakiuria, and/or stranguria. Diagnosis of UTI cannot be made on the basis of clinical signs alone. - sediment exam alone not sufficient - Complete urinalysis and quantitative aerobic C&S testing should be performed for all cases. Free-catch samples should not be used. - For cystocentesis specimens, counts ≥ 10^3 CFU/ mL indicate UTI. 10^4 in male and 10^5 in female for catherisation - pending C&S=, for patient comfort amoxicillin (11–15 mg/kg PO q 8 h) or trimethoprim-sulfonamide (15 mg/kg PO q 12 h). - 3-5 days been reported as sufficient - ISCAD says 7-14 days but state that <7 maybe sufficient
29
what are the ISCAD guidelines for **complicated** urinary tract infections ?
UTI that occurs in the presence of an anatomic or functional abnormality or a comorbidity that predisposes the animal to persistent infection, recurrent infection, or treatment failure. Recurrent UTIs, as defined by the presence of 3 or more episodes of UTI during a 12-month period, also indicate complicated infection. - Same principle of non complicated (C&S etc) - identify the underlying cause - treatment based on C&S - 4 weeks treatment (more studies needed) - Urine culture could be considered after 5–7 days of treatment to ensure treatment has been effective - urine culture should be performed 7 days after discontinuation - insufficient evidnece to justify pulse therapy
30
What are the ISCAD guidelines for subclinical bacteruria
Presence of bacteria in the urine as determined by positive bacterial culture, in the absence of clinical signs of UTI. Treatment may not be necessary, but could be considered if there is a high risk of ascending or systemic infection (e.g., patients with underlying renal disease).
31
what are the ISCAD guidelines for urinary catheters ?
- Clinical signs of UTI absent: no culture or treatment indicated - Removal of urinary catheters: urine culture is reasonable if the risk and implications of a UTI are high. There is no indication for routine use of prophylactic antimicrobials - Clinical signs of UTI present: perform a culture after replacement of the urinary catheter with a new catheter. Several mL of urine should be removed to clear the catheter before a specimen is obtained for culture. Alternatively, remove the catheter and perform a cystocentesis.
32
what are ISCAD guidelines for pyelonephritis ?
C&S testing should always be performed. Treatment should be initiated while awaiting culture results, using antimicrobials effective against Gram-negative Enterobacteriaceae. A fluoroquinolone is a reasonable first choice, after which treatment should be based on C&S results. Treatment for 4 to 6 weeks is recommended until further information becomes available. Culture is recommended 1 week after starting treatment and 1 week after treatment is discontinued.
33
what are the ISCAD guidelines for bacterial folliculitis | superficial pyoderma
The cause of most superficial bacterial folliculitis (SBF) in dogs is Staphylococcus pseudintermedius methicillin-resistant S. pseudintermedius (MRSP), which is often highly multiresistant, has now become common Cytological exam needs to be performed to confirm that this is pyoderma and not allergic dermatosis etc. Also need to determine if there is co-infection with Mallasezia Pachydermatis Deep skin scrape should be performed to differentiate demodicosis Culture is essential if there is a poor response to 2 weeks of appropriate systemic antimicrobial therapy, emergence of new lesions 2 weeks or more after the initiation of such therapy, presence of residual lesions after 6 weeks of therapy combined with cytology demonstrating infection with cocci Topical antimicrobials; First-tier empirical drugs include clindamycin, first-generation cephalosporins, potentiated sulphonamides, and lincomycin.
34
whart must be done to confirm bacterial superficial pyoderma prior to strting antibiotics?
Staphylococci are not able to invade normal skin and thus SBF only occurs when there is an underlying problem such as allergic dermatoses, hyperadrenocorticism, hypothyroidism, or demodicosis. These need to be differentiated from SBF. Early signs of SBF are papules and pustules associated with the hair follicles. Subsequently, annular areas of alopecia, scaling, erythema and hyperpigmentation may appear, commonly surrounded by epidermal collarettes. Diagnosis of SBF should be supported by cytological examination and the demonstration of coccoid bacteria associated with inflammatory cells and within phagocytes.