antigen-antibody Flashcards

(106 cards)

1
Q

a molecule capable of inducing an
immune response in the host organism

A

antigen

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2
Q

a substance that stimulates antibody
formation and can bind to an antibody or a T lymphocyte antigen receptor but may not be able to evoke an immune response initially.

A

antigen

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3
Q

it can specifically react with
such antibodies or synthesized T cells.

A

immunogen

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4
Q

T or F: haptens are considered immunogen but not considered as antigen

A

false, haptens are considered as antigen but not considered as immunogen

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5
Q

T or F: immunogens are antigens but not all antigens are immunogens

A

true

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6
Q

factors influencing the immune response

A
  • age
  • overall health
  • route of inoculation
  • genetic capacity
  • dose
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7
Q

large doses can result in?

A

T and B cell tolerance

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8
Q

the actual amount of immunogen needed to generate an immune response differs with the?

A

route of inoculation

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9
Q

factors affecting immonogenicity

A
  • chemical composition
  • physical form (foreignness, degradability, molecular weight, structural ability, complexity)
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10
Q

T or F: individual’s immune response does respond to self-antigen.

A

false, does not

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11
Q

most effective antigen

A

proteins because of their large molecular weight

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12
Q

repeating polymers

A

lipids, carbohydrates, nucleic acid

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13
Q

which is an effective antigen, repeating polymers or proteins?

A

proteins

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14
Q

are considered inferior antigens
because of their relative simplicity and lack of structural stability. However, when ___ are linked to proteins or polysaccharides, they may function as antigens.

A

lipids

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15
Q

chemical substance of poison ivy

A

catechols

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16
Q

a physical nature of antigens which to elicit a patient antibody response

A

structural stability

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17
Q

cells that recognize structures that project from the external surfaces of macromolecules.

A

B cells

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18
Q

example of synthetic polymers

A

nylon or teflon

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19
Q

the physical nature of antigens which works for antigen processing.

A

degradability

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20
Q

If a macromolecule can’t be degraded and presented with MHC molecules, it would be of ___.

A

pure immunogen

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21
Q

small peptides or pieces

A

Ag + enzymatic digestion

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22
Q

present to responsive lymphocytes

A

small peptides + MHC molecule

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23
Q

A substance distinct to antigen that enhances T – cell activation by promoting accumulation of APC’s at a site of antigen exposure and enhances expression of costimulators and cytokines by the APC

A

adjuvants

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24
Q

this helps you promote more APCs where you have inoculated the antigens

A

adjuvants

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25
an adjuvant used to complex with the immunogen to increase its size and to prevent a rapid escape from the tissues.
aluminum salts
26
examples of adjuvants
aluminum salts and freund's
27
an adjuvant used for hepa B vaccine
aluminum salts
28
these adjuvant produces granulomas, or large areas of scar tissue, and thus is not used in humans.
Freund's
29
a determinant site of an antigen which come in two shapes; linear and conformational
epitopes
30
molecular shapes or configurations that are recognized by B or T cell
epitopes
31
these epitopes consists of amino acids in a single polypeptide chain
linear epitopes
32
tertiary or quarternary structure epitopes
conformational epitopes
33
Result from the folding of a polypeptide chain or chains, and nonsequential amino acids are brought into close proximity.
conformational epitopes
34
those antigens that belong to the host
autoantigens
35
those antigens from other members of the host’s species, and these are capable of eliciting an immune response.
alloantigens
36
what type of antigen: **blood transfused to you**
alloantigens
37
these antigens are from other species, such as pig’s heart and the poison ivy.
heteroantigens
38
heteroantigens that exist in unrelated plants or animals but are either identical or closely related in structure so that antibody to one will cross-react with antigen of the other.
heterophile antigens
39
Normally in serological reactions, the ideal is to use a reaction that is completely specific, but the fact that cross - reactivity exists can be helpful for certain diagnostic purposes.
heterophile antigens
40
this antibody was found to react with sheep RBCs and this formed the basis of the *Paul-Bunnell screening test* for mononucleosis
heterophile antibody
41
procedure was a useful screening test when the causative agent of IM had not been identified.
Paul-Bunnell screening test
42
Current rapid screening tests for IM are based on the principle of?
detection of heterophile antibody
43
Antibodies, referred to as immunoglobulins are usually found in ___, in a ___. They are observable, which constitutes majority of the gamma globulins.
Antibodies, referred to as immunoglobulins are usually found in **gamma, in a serum electrophoresis**. They are observable, which constitutes majority of the gamma globulins.
44
what is the end product after B lymphocyte are stimulated by an antigen and undergo differentiation?
antibody or immunoglobulin
45
these are glycoproteins found in the serum portion of the blood and in many body fluids.
immunoglobulins
46
The main chemical mediator in the humoral immunity
antibody
47
a usual immunoglobulin is made up of?
two large chains called **heavy chain** and two small chains called **light chain**
48
a specific region where the amino acid sequences vary or shows heterogeneity, because it binds the antibodies
variable region
49
The remainder of the molecule that has a constant amino acid sequence is known as __, where amino acids are fixed
constant region
50
How would we know which are those regions? in basic structure of Ig
if we do **enzymatic digestion**
51
an enzyme which would cleave the major disulfide region
papain
52
these fragments retain the ability to bind antigen
fab fragments (antigen-binding fragments)
53
third fragment, which is relatively homogeneous and is sometimes crystallizable
fc portion
54
proteolytic enzyme used to treat IgG
pepsin
55
chromatography which separates the material into two types of fragments, one of which spontaneously crystallized at 4C
carboxymethyl cellulose ion exchange chromatography
56
functions of antibodies (2)
- to bind antigen - exhibits secondary effector functions (complement fixation and placental transfer)
57
these portion can activate then complement cascade. Or bind to the receptor of phagocytic cells to trigger phagocytosis.
fc portion
58
predominant Ig in serum; longest lasting antibody in our serum
IgG
59
3rd predominant; first antibody to be produced
IgM
60
2nd predominant Ig
IgA
61
exposed fc portion following antigen binding by antibody promotes?
- complement fixation - opsonization - activation of NK cells
62
Largest, mostly found in the circulation and first to appear in response to antigen.
IgM
63
this Ig is detectable in CSF but it cannot cross the placenta
IgM
64
normal values for IgM
- 60 to 250mg/dL (70 to 290IU/mL) – **Males** - 70 to 280mg/dL (80 to 320IU/mL) – **Females** - **Cord blood** - >20mg/dL
65
functions of IgM, except: - complement fixation - opsonization - immunity - toxin neutralization - agglutination
**immunity** because IgM cannot cross the placenta in which it cannot provide immunity for the newborn unlike IgG
66
first antibody to appear in a maturing infant and it is synthesized only as long as the antigen remains present because there are **no memory cells for this Ig**
IgM
67
which Ig is increased in multiple myeloma
ALL classes of Ig
68
which Ig is increased in Waldenstrom?
IgM
69
Only antibody class than can cross the placenta – protects the newborn during neonatal period.
IgG
70
NV of IgG
- **800 to 1800mg/dL (90 to 210 IU/mL)** – Normal adult serum - **350 to 400mg/dL (40 to 45 IU/mL)** – infants 3 to 4 months old gradually increasing to 700 to 800mg/dL (80 to 90 IU/mL) - Cord blood – **800 to 1800mg/dL** - CSF – **2 to 4mg/dL**
71
Functions of IgG, except: - fixing complement - for immunity - opsonization - neutralizing toxins and viruses - agglutination and precipitation reaction
none of the above
72
IgG is better at ___ than ___
better at precipitation reactions than agglutination
73
IgG is increase in?
- infectious disease **hepatitis** - collegen disorders **RA and SLE** - hematologic **Hodgkin's**
74
predominant antibody in secretions, especially in saliva, tears, breastmilk, bronchial, and intestinal secretions.
IgA
75
these antibody bind to macrophages and PMNs, and they may path directly into the intestinal or diffused into the circulation.
IgA
76
dimeric form of IgA is called?
**secretory IgA** which are plasma cells that are found in mucosal associated lymphoid tissue
77
NV of IgA
- **90 to 450 mg/dL (55 to 270 IU/mL)** – normal human adult - at the end of the first year of life, 25% of the adult IgA is reached, and 50% at 3.5 years of age. - Cord blood – **1mg/dL** - CSF – **0.1 – 0.6mg/dL**
78
IgA is increase in?
- tuberculosis - RA - monocytic leukemia - liver disease (Laennec's cirrhosis)
79
IgM is increase in?
- subacute bacterial endocarditis - sclerodema - waldenstrom's
80
what Ig? - prenatal: - postnatal:
prenatal: **IgG** postnatal: **IgA**
81
IgA that act as opsonin
serum and secretory IgA
82
Ig that helps during oral immunization such as Sabin vaccine
IgA
83
A monomer found mainly (with IgM) on the surface of B cells
IgD
84
Ig found mainly on the skin, and in the lining of the respiratory and alimentary tracks.
IgE
85
this Ig mediates the release of histamines and heparin.
IgE
86
the Ig that are very important in mucosa
IgE and IgA
87
the most **heat-labile** of all immunoglobulins; heating to 56ºC for between 30 minutes and 3 hours results in conformational changes and loss of ability to bind to target cells.
IgE
88
a unique amino acid sequence that is common to all immunoglobulin molecules of a given class in a given species.
isotype determinant
89
it differentiates one class of IgG from the other.
isotype determinant
90
Minor variants of the constant region that are present in some individuals but not others
allotype determinants
91
IgG subclasses, what antigenic determinant
allotype determinants
92
the determinants are located in the variable part of the antibody associated with the hypervariable regions that form the antigen-combining site.
idiotype determinants
93
Unique structures on light and heavy chains, what determinant?
idiotype determinants
94
Activation and proliferation of a lymphocyte
clonal selection
95
First antibody response, after binding the B cell triggering antibody synthesis.
primary antibody response
96
phase where no antibody is detectable
lag phase
97
phase where the antibody titer increases logarithmically
log phase
98
phase where the antibody titer stabilizes
plateau phase
99
phase where antibody is catabolized
decline phase
100
this response can be observed in hemolytic disease, when Rh-nega mother is pregnant with an Rh-posi baby
anamnestic response (secondary)
101
time during anamnestic response
- shorter lag phase - longer plateau - more gradual decline
102
antibody titer for anamnestic response
higher Ab levels
103
This property resides in the portion of the Fab molecule in which a cleft formed largely by the hypervariable regions of heavy and light chains.
combining site
104
this exists when the binding sites of the antibodies directed against determinants of one antigen are not complementary to determinants of another dissimilar antigen.
specificity
105
A proportion of the antibodies directed against one type of antigen will also react with the other type of antigen
cross-reactivity
106
continue to antibody affinity!!!!!